WorksheetsFinal Exam in ME 223 - Part 1.1 - Elements
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of _____.
a)
Entropy
b)
Internal energy
c)
Temperature
d)
Pressure
2.
Which of the following is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?
a)
Brayton
b)
Otto
c)
Carnot
d)
Diesel
3.
What is the first law of thermodynamics?
a)
Internal energy is due to molecular motion
b)
Entropy of the universe is increased by irreversible processes
c)
Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
d)
Heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work
4.
An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. What is the enthalpy change?
a)
Always negative
b)
Always positive
c)
Zero
d)
Undefined
5.
Name the process that has no heat transfer.
a)
Isothermal
b)
Isobaric
c)
Polytropic
d)
Adiabatic
6.
An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated that there is essentially no heat transfer. The temperature of the gas.
a)
decreases
b)
increases
c)
remain constant
d)
is zero
7.
What is the SI unit of pressure?
a)
kg/cm²
b)
Dynes/cm²
c)
Pascal
d)
Psi
8.
The equation Cₚ = Cᵥ + R applies to which of the following?
a)
Enthalpy
b)
Ideal gas
c)
Two phase states
d)
All pure substances
9.
In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and potential energy, the integral of VdP represents what?
a)
Heat transfer
b)
Flow energy
c)
Enthalpy change
d)
Shaft work
10.
Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat.
a)
Kinetic energy
b)
Enthalpy
c)
Heat exchanger
d)
Heat of compression
11.
The theory of changing heat into mechanical work.
a)
Thermodynamics
b)
Kinematic
c)
Inertia
d)
Kinetics
12.
Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure condition exist.
a)
Back pressure
b)
Partial
c)
Pressure drop
d)
Mean effective pressure
13.
Which of the following cycles consists of two isothermal and two constant volume processes?
a)
Diesel cycle
b)
Ericsson cycle
c)
Stirling cycle
d)
Otto cycle
14.
A control volume refers to what?
a)
A fixed region in space
b)
A reversible process
c)
An isolated system
d)
A specified mass
15.
In the polytropic process, PVⁿ = constant, if the value of n is infinitely large, the process is
a)
Isobaric
b)
Isometric
c)
Isothermal
d)
Polytropic
16.
If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure, then the working medium must be:
a)
Compressed liquid
b)
Subcooled liquid
c)
Saturated vapor
d)
Saturated liquid
17.
Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure.
a)
Superheated vapor
b)
Wet vapor
c)
Subcooled liquid
d)
Saturated liquid
18.
Number of molecules in a mole of any substance is a constant called _____.
a)
Rankine constant
b)
Avogadro’s number
c)
Otto constant
d)
Thompson constant
19.
If the pressure of a gas is constant the volume is directly proportional to absolute temperature.
a)
Boyle’s law
b)
Joule’s law
c)
Charle’s law
d)
Kelvin’s law
20.
The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom or the number of electrons in the orbit of an atom.
a)
Atomic volume
b)
Atomic number
c)
Atomic weight
d)
Atomic mass
21.
In a P-T diagram of a pure substance, the curve separating the solid phase from the liquid phase is:
a)
Vaporization
b)
Fusion curve
c)
Boiling point
d)
Sublimation point
22.
<p>A water temperature of 18°F in the water-cooled condenser is equivalent in °C to _____.</p>
a)
7.78
b)
10
c)
263.56
d)
-9.44
23.
The latent heat of vaporized in joules per kg is equal to _____.
a)
5.4 x 10²
b)
4.13 x 10³
c)
22.6 x 10⁵
d)
3.35 x 10
24.
From of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random motion of large number of molecules.
a)
Internal energy
b)
Kinetic energy
c)
Heat of fusion
d)
Heat
25.
If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure, then the working medium must be:
a)
Saturated vapor
b)
Compressed liquid
c)
Saturated liquid
d)
Subcooled liquid
26.
Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its vapor are indistinguishable.
a)
Critical point
b)
Dew point
c)
Absolute humidity
d)
Relative humidity
27.
When a substance in gaseous state is below the critical temperature it is called _____.
a)
Vapor
b)
Cloud
c)
Moisture
d)
Steam
28.
Superheated vapor behaves _____.
a)
Just as gas
b)
Just a steam
c)
Just as ordinary vapor
d)
Approximately as a gas
29.
Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature?
a)
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b)
First law of thermodynamics
c)
Second law of thermodynamics
d)
Third law of thermodynamics
30.
Which of the following is commonly used as liquid absorbent?
a)
Silica gel
b)
Activated alumina
c)
Ethylene glycol
d)
None of these
31.
Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air passing through it.
a)
Air cooler
b)
Air defense
c)
Air spill over
d)
Air cycle
32.
A device for measuring the velocity of wind.
a)
Aneroid barometer
b)
Anemometer
c)
Anemoscope
d)
Anemograph
33.
Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body wherein it is impossible to convert heat without other effects.
a)
First law of thermodynamics
b)
Second law of thermodynamics
c)
Third law of thermodynamics
d)
Zeroth law of thermodynamics
34.
The temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid.
a)
Absolute humidity
b)
Calorimetry
c)
Boiling point
d)
Thermal point
35.
A nozzle is used to _____.
a)
increase velocity and decrease pressure
b)
decrease velocity as well as pressure
c)
increase velocity as well as pressure
d)
decrease velocity and increase pressure
36.
The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in several complex form.
a)
Kinetic energy
b)
Potential energy
c)
Internal energy
d)
Frictional energy
37.
The total energy in a compressible fluid flowing across any section in a pipeline is a function of _____.
a)
pressure and velocity
b)
pressure, density and velocity
c)
pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
d)
Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy
38.
The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of some standard substance.
a)
Relative density
b)
Specific gravity
c)
Specific density
d)
Relative gravity
39.
Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its temperature.
a)
Compressed liquid
b)
Saturated liquid
c)
Saturated vapor
d)
Superheated vapor
40.
The changing of solid directly to vapor without passing through the liquid state is called _____.
a)
Evaporation
b)
Vaporization
c)
Sublimation
d)
Condensation
41.
Weight per unit volume is termed as _____.
a)
Specific gravity
b)
Density
c)
Weight density
d)
Specific volume
42.
What is the SI unit of force?
a)
Pound
b)
Newton
c)
Kilogram
d)
Dyne
43.
The volume of fluid passing a cross-section of steam in unit time.
a)
Steady flow
b)
Uniform flow
c)
Discharge
d)
Continuous flow
44.
What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible open steady state system?
a)
Q – W = U₂ – U₁
b)
Q + VdP = H₂ –H₁
c)
Q – VdP = U₂ – U₁
d)
Q – PdV = H₂ – H₁
45.
A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to _____.
a)
1000 dynes/cm²
b)
1000 cm of Hg
c)
1000 psi
d)
1000 kg/cm²
46.
When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing:
a)
Isobaric process
b)
Quasi-static process
c)
Isometric process
d)
Cyclic process
47.
What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is rotating?
a)
Centrifugal force
b)
Centrifugal in motion
c)
Centrifugal advance
d)
Centripetal force
48.
What is the process that has no heat transfer?
a)
Reversible isometric
b)
Isothermal
c)
Polytropic
d)
Adiabatic
49.
Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?
a)
Turbojet
b)
Pulsejet
c)
Rockets
d)
Ramjet
50.
Exhaust gases from an engine posses _____.
a)
solar energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
chemical energy
d)
stored energy
51.
At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is _____.
a)
Temperature dependent
b)
Zero
c)
Minimum
d)
Maximum
52.
What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is rotating?
a)
Centrifugal force
b)
Centrifugal in motion
c)
Centrifugal advance
d)
Centripetal force
53.
When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is undergoing _____.
a)
Isobaric process
b)
Quasi-static process
c)
Isometric process
d)
Cyclic process
54.
A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to
a)
1000 dynes/cm²
b)
1000 cm of Hg
c)
1000 psi
d)
1000 kg/cm²
55.
Work done per unit charge when changed is moved from one point to another.
a)
Equipotential surface
b)
Potential at a point
c)
Electrostatic point
d)
Potential difference
56.
How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
57.
Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?
a)
h = u + p/t
b)
h = u + pV
c)
h = u + p/V
d)
h = pV + T
58.
Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero?
a)
Internal energy is negative
b)
Entropy is non-zero
c)
Specific volume is zero
d)
Vapor pressure is zero
59.
On what plane is the mollier diagram plotted?
a)
p-V
b)
p-T
c)
h-s
d)
h-u
60.
The compressibility factor z, is used for predicting the behavior of non-ideal gasses. How is the compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (Subscript c refers to critical value.)
a)
z = P/Pc
b)
z = PV/RT
c)
z = T/Tc
d)
z = (T/Tc)(Pc/P)
61.
How is the quality x of a liquid vapor mixture defined?
a)
The fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor
b)
The fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
c)
The fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor
d)
The fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid
62.
What is the expression for heat of vaporization?
a)
hg
b)
hf
c)
hg - hf
d)
hf - hg
63.
What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?
a)
Zero
b)
Positive
c)
Negative
d)
Indeterminate
64.
What is the equation for the work done by a constant temperature system?
a)
W = mRT In (V₂ - V₁)
b)
W = mR (T₂ - T₁) In (V₂/V₁)
c)
W = MRT In (V₂/V₁)
d)
W = RT In (V₂/V₁)
65.
What is true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect gas undergoing an isobaric process?
a)
n > 0
b)
n < 0
c)
n = ∞
d)
n = 0
66.
How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?
a)
Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0, isentropic, Heat transfer = 0
b)
Adiabatic: Heat transfer = 0 Isentropic: Heat transfer = 0
c)
Adiabatic: Reversible, Isentropic: Not reversible
d)
Both: Heat transfer = 0, Isentropic: Reversible
67.
During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in entropy?
a)
It is always zero
b)
It is always less than zero
c)
It is always greater than zero
d)
It is temperature dependent
68.
For an irreversible process, what is true about the change in entropy of the system and surroundings?
a)
ds = dq/dt
b)
ds = 0
c)
ds > 0
d)
ds < 0
69.
For which type of process does the equation dQ = Tds hold?
a)
Irreversible
b)
Reversible
c)
Isobaric
d)
Isothermal
70.
Which of the following is true for any process?
a)
∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) > 0
b)
∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) < 0
c)
∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) ≤ 0
d)
∆S (surrounding) + ∆S (system) ≥ 0
71.
Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is the most efficient?
a)
Brayton
b)
Rankine
c)
Carnot
d)
Otto
72.
The ideal reversible carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes are they?
a)
All isothermal
b)
All adiabatic
c)
All isentropic
d)
Two isothermal and two isentropic
73.
What is the temperature difference of the cycle if the entropy difference is ∆S , and work done is W?
a)
W - ∆S
b)
W/∆S
c)
∆S/W
d)
∆S - W
74.
Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?
a)
Lower equipment cost
b)
Increased efficiency
c)
Increased turbine life
d)
Increased boiler life
75.
Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycle is not true?
a)
Use of a condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle.
b)
The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and form the working liquid are less separated than in a Carnot cycle.
c)
Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle.
d)
In practical terms the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the operating efficiency
76.
Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)?
a)
0 K and 1 atm pressure
b)
0 F and zero pressure
c)
32 F and zero pressure
d)
0 ℃ and 1 atm pressure
77.
A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?
a)
It turns red
b)
It loses electrons
c)
It gives off heat
d)
It absorbs energy
78.
Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
a)
Pa
b)
kg/m-s
c)
Bars
d)
kg/m²
79.
Which of the following is the definition of joule?
a)
Newton meter
b)
kg-m/s²
c)
Unit of power
d)
Rate of change of energy
80.
Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
a)
The principle of conservation of mass
b)
The principle of conservation of energy
c)
The continuity equation
d)
Fourier’s law
81.
Equation of state for a single component can be any of the following except:
a)
The ideal gas law
b)
Any relationship interrelating 3 or more state function
c)
Relationship mathematically interrelating thermodynamic properties of the material
d)
A mathematical expression defining a path between states
82.
The state of a thermodynamic system is always define by its:
a)
Absolute temperature
b)
Process
c)
Properties
d)
Temperature and pressure
83.
In any non quasi-static thermodynamics process, the overall entropy of an isolated system will
a)
Increase and then decrease
b)
Decrease and then increase
c)
Increase only
d)
Decrease only
84.
Entropy is the measure of:
a)
The internal energy of a gas
b)
The heat capacity of a substance
c)
Randomness or disorder
d)
The change of enthalpy of a system
85.
Which of the following statement about entropy is false?
a)
Entropy of a mixture is greater than that of its component under the same condition
b)
An irreversible process increases entropy of the universe
c)
Net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero
d)
Entropy of a crystal at 0°F is zero
86.
Work energy can be a function of all the following except:
a)
Force and distance
b)
Power and time
c)
Force and time
d)
Temperature and entropy
87.
Energy change are represented by all except which one of the following:
a)
mCpdt
b)
-ʃ VdP
c)
Tds - PdV
d)
dQ/T
88.
U + pV is a quantity called:
a)
Shaft work
b)
Entropy
c)
Enthalpy
d)
Internal energy
89.
In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, ʃ vdP represents which item below?
a)
Heat transfer
b)
Shaft work
c)
Enthalpy change
d)
Closed system work
90.
Power may be expressed in units of _____.
a)
ft-lb
b)
kW-hr
c)
Btu
d)
Btu/hr
91.
Equilibrium condition exist in all except which of the following?
a)
In reversible processes
b)
In processes where driving forces are infinitesimals
c)
In a steady state flow process
d)
Where nothing can occur without an effect on the system’s surrounding
92.
In a closed system (with a moving boundary) which of the following represents work done during an isothermal process?
a)
W = 0
b)
W = P(V₂ - V₁)
c)
W = P₁V₁ In (V₂ / V₁)
d)
W = (P₂V₂ - P₁V₁)(1 - n)
93.
A substance that exists or is regarded as existing as a continuous characterized by a low resistance to flow and the tendency to assume the shape of its container.
a)
Fluid
b)
Atom
c)
Molecule
d)
Vapor
94.
A substance that is homogenous in composition and homogenous and invariable in chemical aggregation.
a)
Pure substance
b)
Simple substance
c)
Vapor
d)
Water
95.
A substance whose state is defined by variable intensive thermodynamic properties.
a)
Pure substance
b)
Simple substance
c)
Vapor
d)
Water
96.
A system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surrounding or mass does not cross its boundaries.
a)
Open system
b)
Closed system
c)
Isolated system
d)
Nonflow system
97.
A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding or neither mass nor energy cross its boundaries.
a)
Open system
b)
Closed system
c)
Isolated system
d)
Non flow system
98.
A system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries.
a)
Open system
b)
Closed system
c)
Isolated system
d)
Steady flow system
99.
The properties that are dependent upon the mass of the system and are total values such as total volume and total internal energy.
a)
Intensive properties
b)
Extensive properties
c)
Specific properties
d)
State properties
100.
The properties that are independent of the mass of the system such as temperature, pressure, density and voltage.
a)
Intensive properties
b)
Expensive properties
c)
Specific properties
d)
State properties
100 %
