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MIS - Ch6, 7 - Testbank (2)

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following provides a suite of integrated software modules for finance and accounting, human resources, manufacturing and production, and sales and marketing that allows data to be used by multiple functions and business processes?

a)

Process management software

b)

ERP systems

c)

Groupware

d)

CRM software

e)

Supply chain management systems

2.

Enterprise software is built around thousands of predefined business processes that reflect:

a)

government regulations.

b)

industry benchmarks.

c)

best practices.

d)

cutting edge workflow analysis.

e)

the firm's culture.

3.

Which of the following is not true about enterprise systems?

a)

Enterprise systems help firms respond rapidly to customer requests for information or products.

b)

Enterprise system data have standardized definitions and formats that are accepted by the entire organization.

c)

Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to mimic their unique business practices.

d)

Enterprise software includes analytical tools to evaluate overall organizational performance.

e)

Enterprise systems provide firm-wide information to help managers make better decisions.

4.

You have been asked to implement enterprise software for a manufacturer of kitchen appliances. What is the first step you should take?

a)

Rewrite the software to support the way the company's business processes work.

b)

Select the business processes you wish to automate.

c)

Map the company's business processes to the software's business processes.

d)

Map the software's business processes to the company's business processes.

e)

Select the functions of the system you wish to use.

5.

Which of the following enables a company to tailor a particular aspect of enterprise software to the way a company does business?

a)

Configuration tables

b)

Web services

c)

Data dictionaries

d)

Middleware

e)

Groupware

6.

In order to achieve maximum benefit from an enterprise software package, a business should:

a)

customize the software to match all of its business processes.

b)

use only the processes in the software that match its own processes.

c)

change the way it works to match the software's business processes.

d)

select only the software that best matches its existing business processes.

e)

retain legacy systems that best work with the software.

7.

Implementing enterprise software from Oracle enabled Alcoa to achieve all of the following except:

a)

reduce requisition-to-pay cycle times.

b)

reduce accounts payable transaction processing.

8.

Manufacturing and production processes include all of the following except:

a)

procurement

b)

material requirements planning

c)

quality control

d)

transportation execution

e)

product configuration

9.

Enterprise systems include analytical tools.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

An enterprise system can help reduce redundant business processes.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Extensive customization of enterprise software may degrade system performance.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Which set lists the three major enterprise applications described in the passage below? The passage states that enterprise systems are based on integrated software modules and a common central database; supply chain management systems help manage planning, sourcing, manufacturing, delivering, and returning items; and customer relationship management systems help firms maximize the benefits of their customer assets.

a)

Enterprise systems, customer relationship management, supply chain management

b)

Financial accounting, human resources, sales and marketing

c)

Manufacturing, procurement, transportation execution

d)

Product configuration, pricing, credit checking

13.

A network of organizations and business processes for procuring raw materials, transforming these materials into intermediate and finished products, and distributing the finished products to customers is called a:

a)

distribution channel

b)

supply chain

c)

value chain

d)

marketing channel

e)

information system

14.

Components or parts of finished products are referred to as:

a)

upstream materials

b)

raw materials

c)

secondary products

d)

intermediate products

e)

mid-chain products

15.

Which of the following refers to a company’s suppliers, suppliers’ suppliers, and the processes for managing relationships with them?

a)

Supplier’s internal supply chain

b)

External supply chain

c)

Upstream portion of the supply chain

d)

Downstream portion of the supply chain

e)

Onstream portion of the supply chain

16.

Which of the following refers to a company’s organizations and processes for distributing and delivering products to the final customers?

a)

Supplier’s internal supply chain

b)

External supply chain

c)

Upstream portion of the supply chain

17.

If manufacturers had perfect information, they could implement a:

a)

hyper-efficient strategy.

b)

frictionless strategy.

c)

streamlined strategy.

d)

bullwhip strategy.

e)

just-in-time strategy.

18.

Why isn't overstocking warehouses an effective solution for a problem of low availability?

a)

It does not speed product time to market.

b)

It is an inefficient use of raw materials.

c)

It increases sales costs.

d)

It increases inventory costs.

e)

It lowers fill rate.

19.

Which of the following traditional solutions enables manufacturers to deal with uncertainties in the supply chain?

a)

Safety stock

b)

Continuous replenishment

c)

Just-in-time strategies

d)

Demand planning

e)

Perfect information

20.

A scheduling system for minimizing inventory by having components arrive exactly at the moment they are needed and finished goods shipped as soon as they leave the assembly line best describes a ________ strategy.

a)

just-in-time

b)

frictionless

c)

bullwhip

d)

safety-stock

e)

streamlined

21.

A distortion of information about the demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain is called the ________ effect.

a)

network

b)

bullwhip

c)

ripple

d)

whirlpool

e)

diffraction

22.

Supply chain software can be classified as either supply chain ________ systems or supply chain ________ systems.

a)

push; pull

b)

demand; continual

c)

upstream; downstream

d)

planning; execution

e)

maintenance; development

23.

Which of the following enables a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product?

a)

Supply chain demand system

b)

Supply chain delivery system

c)

Supply chain optimization system

d)

Supply chain execution system

e)

Supply chain planning system

24.

Supply chain planning systems perform all of the following functions except:

a)

establish inventory levels for raw materials and finished goods.

b)

identify the transportation mode to use for product delivery.

c)

determine where to store finished goods.

d)

determine how much product to manufacture in a given time period.

e)

track the physical status of goods.

25.

Which supply chain planning function determines how much product is needed to satisfy all customer demands?

a)

Distribution management

b)

Replenishment planning

c)

Demand planning

d)

Order planning

e)

Customer planning

26.

Which of the following manages the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner?

a)

Supply chain demand system

b)

Supply chain delivery system

c)

Supply chain planning system

d)

Supply chain execution system

e)

Supply chain optimization system

27.

Supply chain execution systems provide all of the following functions except:

a)

generating demand forecasts for products.

b)

tracking the flow of finished goods.

c)

managing materials.

d)

managing warehouse operations.

e)

managing the financial information involving all parties.

28.

A supply chain driven by actual customer orders or purchases follows a ________ model.

a)

push model

b)

pull model

c)

hybrid push–pull model

d)

continuous replenishment model

29.

A build-to-order supply-chain model is also called a ________ model.

a)

supply-based

b)

demand-driven

c)

replenishment-driven

d)

push-based

e)

market-driven

30.

Concurrent supply chains are made possible by which technology?

a)

ERP systems

b)

The Internet

c)

Supply-chain management systems

d)

Just-in-time supply-chain technologies

e)

Extranets

31.

The business value of an effective supply chain management system includes all of the following except:

a)

faster time to market

b)

cost reduction

c)

supply matched to demand

d)

improved delivery service

e)

increased inventory levels

32.

The bullwhip effect can be countered by:

a)

globalization

b)

disintermediation

c)

implementing a CRM

d)

reducing information uncertainty

e)

product differentiation

33.

As they move through the supply chain, ________ are transformed into finished products and shipped to retailers and customers.

a)

raw materials

b)

intermediate products

c)

basic products

d)

natural resources

e)

nascent products

34.

The total time it takes to complete a business process, from start to finish, is called its ________ time.

a)

development

b)

cycle

c)

fulfillment

d)

service

e)

actualization

35.

A company having difficulty with timely delivery of parts to its manufacturing plants should implement a supply chain ________ system.

a)

execution

b)

planning

c)

optimization

d)

management

e)

touch point

36.

Supply chain management systems are a type of enterprise system.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

The upstream portion of the supply chain consists of the organizations and processes for distributing and delivering products to the final customers.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Supply chain inefficiencies can waste as much as 25 percent of a company's operating costs.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Safety stock acts as a buffer for the lack of flexibility in the supply chain.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

The bullwhip effect describes consistency and continuity in demand for a product as it passes from one entity to the next across the supply chain.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Supply chain execution systems enable the firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Before the pre-Internet environment, supply chain coordination was hampered by the difficulties of making information flow smoothly among different internal supply chain processes.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Inefficiencies in a supply chain are primarily caused by inaccurate or untimely information.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

In a push-based model of SCM systems, actual customer orders or purchases trigger events in the supply chain.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

In a pull-based model of SCM systems, production master schedules are based on forecasts of demand for products.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Walmart is an example of a push-based model.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Total supply chain costs in some industries approach 75 percent of the total operating budget.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Discuss the business value of supply chain management systems by selecting the option that best summarizes their impact on firm performance.

a)

They primarily automate accounting entries to reduce clerical labor.

b)

They network supply chain processes to match supply with demand, cut inventories and costs, improve delivery and time to market, use assets more effectively, and increase sales by having the right product available when and where customers want it.

c)

They focus on social media engagement to build brand recognition regardless of fulfillment performance.

d)

They replace marketing research with predictive algorithms that eliminate the need for logistics planning.

49.

From your reading of the LG Electronics case study, the company implemented JDA software solutions to solve what problems?

a)

Lack of brand recognition

b)

Lack of coordination among production facilities

c)

Poor supply chain visibility for management

d)

Shoddy record-keeping

e)

Inefficient logistics

50.

A ________ is a method of interaction with a customer, such as telephone or customer service desk.

a)

point of presence

b)

touch point

c)

sales point

d)

client channel

e)

point of service

51.

Which of the following would not be considered a contact point?

a)

E-mail

b)

Website

c)

Intranet

d)

Retail store

e)

Facebook

52.

________ modules use many of the same data, tools, and systems as CRM to enhance collaboration between a company and its selling partners.

a)

SCM

b)

SFA

c)

ERM

d)

DRM

e)

PRM

53.

________ modules deal with issues such as setting objectives, employee performance management, and performance-based compensation.

a)

SCM

b)

SFA

c)

ERM

d)

DRM

e)

PRM

54.

Customer relationship management systems typically provide software and online tools for sales, customer service, and:

a)

marketing

b)

account management

c)

advertising

d)

public relations

e)

human resources

55.

SFA modules in CRM systems provide tools for all of the following except:

a)

team selling

b)

territory management

c)

sales forecasting

d)

managing sales prospects and contact information

e)

managing customer service requests

56.

CRM systems help businesses achieve which of the following business objectives?

a)

Automated accounting processes

b)

Automated production forecasts

c)

Faster time to market with new products and services

d)

Enhanced supplier intimacy

e)

Enhanced customer intimacy

57.

Customer service modules in CRM systems provide tools for:

a)

assigning and managing customer service requests

b)

capturing prospect and customer data

c)

identifying profitable and unprofitable customers

d)

managing sales prospect and contact information

e)

organizing effective marketing campaigns

58.

Marketing modules in CRM systems provide tools for all of the following except:

a)

assigning and managing customer service requests

b)

capturing prospect and customer data

c)

identifying profitable and unprofitable customers

d)

qualifying leads

e)

identifying opportunities for cross-selling

59.

Major CRM products typically have all of the following service capabilities except:

a)

customer satisfaction management.

b)

returns management.

c)

call center & help desk.

d)

service analytics.

e)

order management.

60.

Which of the following is an important capability for sales processes that is found in most SFA modules in major CRM software products?

a)

Returns management

b)

Lead management

c)

Channel promotions management

d)

Events management

e)

Customer satisfaction management

61.

Which of the following customer relationship management applications provides analysis of customer data?

a)

Operational CRM

b)

Analytical CRM

c)

Operational SCM

d)

Analytical SFA

e)

Operational SFA

62.

Operational CRM applications include tools for all of the following except:

a)

sales force automation.

b)

call center support.

c)

marketing automation.

d)

customer service support.

e)

calculating CLTV.

63.

The difference between push- and pull-based models is summarized by which of the following slogans?

a)

Sell what we make, not make what we sell.

b)

Push what we make, not pull what we make.

c)

Make what we sell, not sell what we make.

d)

Pull what we make, not push what we sell.

e)

Make what we push, not push what we sell.

64.

Which of the following tools is used to analyze customer buying patterns?

a)

CLTV

b)

Analytical CRM

c)

Operational CRM

d)

Demand planning

e)

SFA

65.

Which metric is based on the relationship between the revenue produced by a specific customer, the expenses incurred in acquiring and servicing that customer, and the expected life of the relationship between the customer and the company?

a)

Churn rate

b)

Customer lifetime value

c)

Cost per lead

d)

Cost per sale

e)

Customer average value

66.

The measurement of the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company is called:

a)

switching costs.

b)

churn rate.

c)

CLTV.

d)

switch rate.

e)

turnover percentage.

67.

Walmart's continuous replenishment system is an example of a ________ model.

a)

push-based

b)

pull-based

c)

enterprise-based

d)

supply chain optimization

e)

forecast-based

68.

________ modules in CRM systems help sales staff increase their productivity by focusing sales efforts on the most profitable customers, those who are good candidates for sales and services.

a)

Customer

b)

SOA

c)

Marketing

d)

Complex

e)

SFA

69.

________ CRM includes customer-facing applications such as tools for sales force automation, call center and customer service support, and marketing automation.

a)

Analytical

b)

Employee

c)

Operational

d)

Partner

70.

All CRM packages contain modules for PRM and ERM.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Major CRM application software vendors include Oracle, SAP, and Salesforce.com.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Cross-selling is the marketing of complementary products to customers.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

CRM software can help organizations identify high-value customers for preferential treatments.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Analytical CRM uses tools to analyze customer data collected from the firm's customer touch points and from other sources.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Churn rate is an important indicator of the growth or decline of a company's customer base.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Identify and describe the two types of customer relationship management applications.

a)

Operational CRM and analytical CRM

b)

Sales CRM and service CRM

c)

On‑premises CRM and cloud CRM

d)

Partner CRM and employee CRM

77.

Identify five benefits of customer relationship management systems.

a)

Improve customer service and make call centers more efficient

b)

Help sales staff close deals faster and simplify marketing/sales processes

c)

Acquire and retain profitable customers while reducing sales and marketing costs

d)

Increase product utilization and provide information for developing new products

78.

You have been hired by Croydon Visiting Nurse Services, whose business processes are all manual, paper‑based. How might a CRM system benefit them?

a)

Provide nurses with access to patients' health records so any nurse can take over care with instant knowledge of patient needs

b)

Automate only billing processes while leaving patient information on paper

c)

Focus solely on advertising to attract new patients without changing care processes

d)

Replace nurses with automated chatbots for patient communication

79.

Enterprise application vendors have created ______ to make their own customer relationship management, supply chain management, and enterprise systems work closely together with each other.

a)

e‑business suites

b)

ERP systems

c)

middleware

d)

legacy systems

e)

cloud solutions

80.

Next‑generation enterprise suites use ______ and SOA to link to systems of customers and suppliers.

a)

employee relationship management

b)

cross‑selling

c)

just‑in‑time strategy

d)

web services

e)

operational CRM

81.

Using social networking tools to converse with customers is called:

a)

analytical CRM

b)

social CRM

c)

operational CRM

d)

PRM

e)

ERM

82.

Enterprise application vendors are now including ______ features, such as tools for data visualization, flexible reporting, and ad‑hoc analysis, as part of the application.

a)

social media

b)

PRM

c)

ERM

d)

SOA

e)

business intelligence

83.

Enterprise systems require fundamental changes in the way the business operates.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Enterprise applications introduce switching costs.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Enterprise applications are based on organization‑wide definitions of data.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

SCM systems require multiple organizations to share information and business processes.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

What is social CRM and how is it being used?

a)

Using tools that connect customer conversations from social networking sites to CRM processes, enabling firms to monitor, track, and analyze social activity and tailor marketing and lead management

b)

Running isolated social media pages that are not integrated with CRM and are used only for brand awareness without analytics

c)

Replacing traditional CRM databases with public social media profiles to reduce data entry and eliminate lead tracking

d)

Limiting customer interactions to email and phone to avoid the complexity of social media monitoring