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Worksheet Questions Extraction

Total questions: 148

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Histamine and heparin secrete:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Basophils

e)

Platelets

2.

The following are involved in the regulation of vascular permeability processes:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Monocytes

e)

Lymphocytes

3.

A large nucleus and cytoplasm in the form of a thin rim have:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Basophils

e)

Eosinophils

4.

Differentiates into plasmacyte:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Basophil

c)

B-lymphocyte

d)

T-lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

5.

Agranulocytes include:

a)

Monocytes

b)

Basophil

c)

Segmented neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Stab neutrophils

6.

After exiting the bloodstream into the connective tissue, the monocyte turns into:

a)

Plasmocyte

b)

Mastocyte

c)

Macrophage

d)

Pericyte

e)

Lipocyte

7.

Blood monocytes differentiate into:

a)

Microglia

b)

Oligodendrogliocyte

c)

Protoplasmic astrocytes

d)

Ependymocytes

e)

Fibrous astrocytes

8.

Acute leukemias are mainly represented by:

a)

Immature poorly differentiated cells

b)

Mature poorly differentiated cells

c)

Immature highly differentiated cells

d)

Mature highly differentiated cells

e)

Atypical cells

9.

In the thymus are formed:

a)

B-lymphocytes

b)

T-lymphocytes

c)

Granulocytes

d)

Monocytes

e)

Platelets

10.

In the process of erythropoiesis in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes occurs:

a)

Accumulation of hemoglobin

b)

The appearance of a specific granularity

c)

Accumulation of lysosomes

d)

Increase in RNA content

e)

Increase in the number of mitochondria

11.

Effector cells of humoral immunity are:

a)

Reticulocytes

b)

Adipocytes

c)

Plasmocytes

d)

T-lymphocytes

e)

Fibroblasts

12.

Effector cells of cellular immunity are:

a)

Reticulocytes

b)

Adipocytes

c)

B-lymphocytes

d)

T-lymphocytes-killers

e)

Plasmocytes

13.

Immunological protection in the body is carried out by:

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Reticulocytes

c)

Lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells

d)

Erythrocytes, platelets

e)

Adipocytes

14.

In the postembryonic period, erythrocytes are formed in:

a)

Thymus

b)

Spleen

c)

Red bone marrow

d)

Lymph nodes

e)

Tonsils

15.

In the embryonic period, intravascular hematopoiesis occurs in:

a)

Spleen

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Thymus

d)

Pancreas

e)

Yolk sac

16.

In the embryonic period, hematopoiesis in the liver begins with:

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

6th month

d)

5th week

e)

8th month

17.

In the embryonic period, hematopoiesis in the thymus begins with:

a)

3 days

b)

7-8 weeks

c)

3rd month

d)

6th month

e)

9th month

18.

The death of old erythrocytes occurs in:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Thymus

c)

Kidney parenchyma

d)

White pulp of the spleen

e)

Red pulp of the spleen

19.

The universal hematopoietic organ in an adult is:

a)

Red marrow

b)

Yellow bone marrow

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

e)

Thymus

20.

The hematopoietic organ in an adult is not:

a)

Amygdala

b)

Spleen

c)

Thymus

d)

Liver

e)

Appendix

21.

The first organ of hematopoiesis in the embryo is:

a)

Red marrow

b)

Yolk sac

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

e)

Thymus

22.

The color of the cytoplasm of an oxyphilic erythroblast is determined by:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Lipofuscin

c)

Melanin

d)

RNA

e)

Hemoglobin

23.

The stroma of the red bone marrow is:

a)

Reticular tissue

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Reticuloepithelium

d)

Bone

e)

Dense connective tissue

24.

In the thymus mature:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

T-lymphocyte

e)

B-lymphocytes

25.

In granulocytopoiesis occurs:

a)

Accumulation of hemoglobin

b)

Accumulation of specific granularity

c)

Formation of multinucleated cells

d)

Cell enlargement

e)

Ejection of nuclei from cells

26.

Antigen-independent reproduction of B-lymphocytes occurs in:

a)

Lymph nodes

b)

Spleen

c)

Tonsils

d)

Red bone marrow

e)

Solitary lymph nodes

27.

From megakaryocytes are formed:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Platelets

e)

Lymphocytes

28.

Blood stem cells are first formed in:

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Yolk sac

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

e)

Thymus

29.

In a patient with anemia, a normal number of erythrocytes was found in the blood test, but with a low content of hemoglobin. The function of what hematopoietic organs is impaired?

a)

Red bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Tonsils

d)

Thymus

e)

Lymph node

30.

Hemoglobinopathies are genetic disorders that affect:

a)

Synthesis of globin

b)

Synthesis of pathological forms of all blood cells

c)

Proliferation of leukocytes

d)

Proliferation of erythrocytes

e)

Synthesis of a hemoglobin molecule

31.

When examining a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from a patient with aplastic anemia, it was revealed:

a)

Reduced protein content in the cerebrospinal fluid

b)

High sugar content in the cerebrospinal fluid

c)

The presence of a tumor

d)

Hypercellular bone marrow

e)

Hypocellular bone marrow

32.

Loose fibrous connective tissue. Origins of all connective tissues:

a)

Ectoderm

b)

Splanchnotom

c)

Myotome

d)

Mesenchyme

33.

Once in the connective tissue, the monocyte turns into:

a)

Melanocyte

b)

Macrophage

c)

Mast cell

d)

Adventitial cell

e)

Lipocyte

34.

Melanocyte:

a)

Mesenchymal origin

b)

Formed from the neural crest

c)

Formed from bone marrow precursors

d)

Endodermal origin

e)

Derived from connective tissue stem cells

35.

Getting into the connective tissue, B-lymphocyte can become:

a)

Plasma cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Mastocyte

d)

Pericyte

e)

Fibroclast

36.

Dense connective tissue differs from loose:

a)

High content of basic amorphous substance

b)

Many macrophages

c)

Greater intensity of the synthesis of glycosaminoglycans in mast cells

d)

A certain orientation of rare fibers in the tissue matrix

e)

Low content of cells and amorphous matter

37.

Functions of a plasma cell:

a)

Blood plasma production

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins

d)

Synthesis and secretion of components of the intercellular substance

e)

Synthesis and secretion of histamine and heparin

38.

Adventitial cell:

a)

Produces antibodies

b)

Participates in the resorption of intercellular substance

c)

Regulates the permeability of the walls of blood vessels and amorphous matter

d)

Connective tissue stem cell

e)

Synthesizes histamine, serotonin and bradykinin

39.

The strength of the connective tissue is determined by:

a)

Collagen fibers

b)

Elastic fibers

c)

Components of an amorphous substance

d)

Connective tissue cells

e)

Reticular fibers

40.

Functions of pericyte:

a)

Synthesis and accumulation of melanin

b)

Synthesis and secretion of immunoglobulins

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Regulation of vascular wall permeability

e)

Synthesis and secretion of elastin and fibrillin

41.

Elastic fibers:

a)

Produced by fibrocytes

b)

Able to restore their original shape after deformation

c)

Give strength to connective tissue

d)

Are part of the stroma of the hematopoietic organs

e)

Produced by mast cells

42.

Fibroblast Function:

a)

Synthesis of fibrous structures of intercellular substance

b)

Synthesis of basic amorphous substance

c)

Resorption of intercellular substance

d)

Uptake and utilization of biogenic amines

e)

Synthesis and secretion of heparin, histamine and serotonin

43.

Fibrocyte is a definitive form:

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Fibroclast

c)

Myofibroblast

d)

Macrophage

e)

Mast cell

44.

Dense unformed connective tissue is located:

a)

Along the blood and lymph vessels

b)

In tendons and ligaments

c)

In the submucosa of hollow tubular organs

d)

In the reticular dermis

e)

In the papillary dermis

45.

The following actively participates in heat production in a newborn:

a)

Reticular connective tissue

b)

Pigmented connective tissue

c)

Mucous connective tissue

d)

Brown adipose tissue

e)

White adipose tissue

46.

The macrophage system of the body includes:

a)

Fibroblasts

b)

Myofibroblasts

c)

Plasmocytes

d)

Loose connective tissue macrophages

e)

Mastocytes

47.

Labrocyte is:

a)

Mast cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Fibroblast

d)

Myofibroblast

e)

Plasmocyte

48.

Brown adipose tissue differs from white by the presence of:

a)

Iron-containing pigment

b)

Melanin

c)

Carotene

d)

Lipofuscin

e)

Acid phosphatase

49.

Rich in melanocytes:

a)

Brown adipose tissue

b)

Mucous tissue

c)

Loose fibrous tissue

d)

Loosely shaped fibrous tissue

e)

Pigment tissue

50.

Consists of reticular cells and reticular fibers:

a)

Dense irregular fibrous tissue

b)

Densely shaped fibrous tissue

c)

Loose, irregular fibrous tissue

d)

Reticular tissue

e)

Adipose tissue

51.

Cartilaginous tissues. The source of development of cartilaginous tissues is:

a)

Loose fibrous connective tissue

b)

Mucous connective tissue

c)

Mesenchyme

d)

Reticular connective tissue

e)

Dense connective tissue

52.

The ability of cartilage to calcify is associated with the presence in them of:

a)

Proteoglycans

b)

Chondronectins

c)

Type X collagen

d)

Chondroitin sulfates

e)

Keratan sulfates

53.

Localization of hyaline cartilage without perichondrium:

a)

Articular surfaces

b)

Larynx

c)

Connection of the ribs with the sternum

d)

Large caliber bronchi

e)

Bronchi of medium and small caliber

54.

The intervertebral disc is a connection by type:

a)

Syndesmosis

b)

Synchondrosis

c)

Synostosis

d)

Arthrosis

e)

Diarthrosis

55.

Localization of fibrocartilage:

a)

Auricle

b)

External auditory canal

c)

Connection of the ribs with the sternum

d)

Intervertebral discs

e)

Trachea

56.

Interstitial cartilage growth is called:

a)

Proliferation of chondroblasts of the perichondrium

b)

Synthesis of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans by chondroblasts

c)

Division of chondrocytes in isogenic groups

d)

Cartilage growth from interstitial tissue

e)

Cartilage growth at the expense of the underlying bone

57.

Cartilage tissue can be nourished by diffusion of substances from:

a)

Vessels of the perichondrium

b)

Vessels of the underlying bone

c)

Cartilage connective tissue

d)

Blood vessels that penetrate cartilage

e)

Intercellular substance of cartilage

58.

The inner layer of the perichondrium contains:

a)

Young chondrocytes

b)

Type 1 chondrocytes

c)

Chondrocytes type 2

d)

Chondrocytes type 3

e)

Prechondroblasts and chondroblasts

59.

The growth of cartilage tissue due to its layering on the existing cartilage (appositional) occurs due to:

a)

Type 1 chondrocytes

b)

Chondrocytes type 2

c)

Chondrocytes type 3

d)

Chondroblasts

e)

Fibroblasts

60.

Location of hyaline cartilage in the body:

a)

Intervertebral discs

b)

Horn-shaped cartilages of the larynx

c)

Trachea

d)

Auricle

e)

Sphenoid cartilages of the larynx

61.

Elastic cartilage differs from hyaline by the presence of:

a)

Basic substance

b)

Elastic fibers

c)

Collagen fibers

d)

Chondrocytes

e)

Perichondrium

62.

The outer layer of the perichondrium is formed by:

a)

Loose fibrous connective tissue

b)

Dense fibrous irregular connective tissue

c)

Dense fibrous connective tissue

d)

Reticular tissue

e)

Adipose tissue

63.

Intercellular substance of hyaline cartilage:

a)

Contains type I collagen

b)

Contains reticular tissue

c)

Has its own blood vessels

d)

Nourishes by diffusion of substances from the synovial fluid

e)

Determines cartilage growth

64.

Chondroblasts:

a)

Capable of calcification of the intercellular substance

b)

Synthesize synovial fluid

c)

Determine the nutrition of cartilage

d)

Formed from chondroclasts

e)

Capable of synthesizing intercellular substance

65.

The first stage of cartilage formation is:

a)

Perichondrium formation

b)

Chondrogenic islet stage

c)

Appositional growth

d)

Interstitial growth

e)

Cartilage differentiation

66.

The cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium are:

a)

Chondroblasts

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Chondroclasts

d)

Osteoblasts

e)

Osteoclasts

67.

Chondroblasts turn into:

a)

Myofibroblasts

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteoclasts

e)

Mast cells

68.

Hyaline cartilage without perichondrium is located in:

a)

Articular surfaces

b)

Larynx

c)

The junction of the ribs with the sternum

d)

Large bronchi

e)

Bronchi of medium and small caliber

69.

Intervertebral disc is a type of connection:

a)

Syndesmosis

b)

Synchondrosis

c)

Synostosis

d)

Arthrosis

e)

Diarthrosis

70.

Urates in gout are deposited in:

a)

extracellularly in avascular tissues;

b)

regarding avascular tissues;

c)

skin around colder distal joints and tissues;

d)

all of the above;

e)

none of the above.

71.

A patient with osteoarthritis of the spine at the level of the discs may (might) develop:

a)

Pronounced thickening of the posterior longitudinal ligaments;

b)

Proliferation of the posterior longitudinal ligaments;

c)

Transverse structures;

d)

All of the above;

e)

None of the above.

72.

Bone tissues. Osteoclast precursor:

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Chondroblast

c)

Macrophage

d)

Monocyte

e)

Basophil

73.

Monocyte, getting into the bone tissue, can turn into:

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteoclast

d)

Chondroclast

e)

Reticulocyte

74.

Localization of coarse fibrous bone tissue in an adult:

a)

Flat bones

b)

Epiphyses of tubular bones

c)

Diaphysis of tubular bones

d)

Metaphyses of tubular bones

e)

Overgrown sutures of the skull

75.

The growth of a tubular bone in length occurs due to:

a)

Metaphyseal cartilaginous plate

b)

Endosteum

c)

Periosteum

d)

Proliferating osteons

e)

Articular cartilage

76.

Washing out of calcium from bone tissue enhances:

a)

Vitamin D3

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Parathyrin

d)

Estrogens

e)

Growth hormone

77.

What layer in the diaphysis of the tubular bone are osteons:

a)

Endosteum

b)

Middle layer of bone plates

c)

Outer layer of bone

d)

Inner layer of bone plates

e)

Periosteum

78.

Indirect osteogenesis begins with:

a)

Perichondral ossification

b)

Endochondral ossification

c)

Stages of the skeletal islet

d)

Cartilage degeneration and calcification

e)

Ingrowth of blood vessels into cartilage

79.

The process of formation of the intercellular substance of bone tissue is carried out:

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Fibroblasts

e)

Endotheliocytes

80.

Osteoblasts are involved in:

a)

Bone formation

b)

Thermoregulation

c)

Destruction of cartilage and bone

d)

Antibody production

e)

Maintaining bone homeostasis

81.

A bone tissue cell that has lost the ability to divide, having a small body and numerous processes:

a)

Osteoblast

b)

Osteocyte

c)

Osteoclast

d)

Fibroblast

e)

Odontoblast

82.

Cells involved in bone destruction:

a)

Enameloblasts

b)

Odontoblasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Osteocytes

e)

Osteoclasts

83.

Osteoclasts are formed from:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

Basophils

d)

Lymphocytes

e)

Erythrocytes

84.

Tissue located at the sites of fusion of the cranial sutures:

a)

Coarse fibrous bone tissue

b)

Elastic cartilage tissue

c)

Fibrocartilage tissue

d)

Hyaline cartilage tissue

e)

Lamellar bone tissue

85.

The first stage of direct osteogenesis is characterized by the formation of:

a)

Bone trabeculae

b)

Skeletal islets

c)

Osteoid

d)

Bone cuff

e)

Periosteum

86.

The growth of the tubular bone in width occurs due to:

a)

Periosteum

b)

Endosteum

c)

Metaepiphyseal plate

d)

Epiphysis

e)

Diaphysis

87.

The growth of a tubular bone in length occurs due to:

a)

Periosteum

b)

Endosteum

c)

Metaepiphyseal plate

d)

Epiphysis

e)

Diaphysis

88.

In the periosteum (periosteum) in the inner layer are:

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Chondrocytes

c)

Macrophages

d)

Odontoblasts

e)

Enameloblasts

89.

Directly under the periosteum is located:

a)

Inner layer of bone plates

b)

Osteon layer

c)

Endosteum

d)

Outer layer of bone

e)

Medullary cavity

90.

Osteons are characterized by the fact that:

a)

Located under the periosteum

b)

Made up of cylindrical plates

c)

Form endosteum

d)

Adjacent to the medullary cavity

e)

Make up the outer layer of the periosteum

91.

Osteomyelitis develops due to the possibility of infectious agents to penetrate through:

a)

Periosteum

b)

Nerves

c)

Cartilage

d)

Endosteum

e)

The cortical layer of the bone

92.

Defect of bone mineralization in rickets (not calcipenic) develops due to:

a)

Low levels of phosphate

b)

Dysfunction of osteoblasts

c)

Low concentration of calcium

d)

Options a and b

e)

Options a, b and c

93.

Bone regeneration after an injury occurs by:

a)

Migration of osteocytes

b)

Enhanced differentiation of osteoclasts

c)

Proliferation of the adventitial layer of the periosteum

d)

Cell proliferation of the osteogenic layer of the periosteum

e)

All of the above

94.

Skeletal muscle tissue derives from:

a)

Dermatome

b)

Sclerotome

c)

Myotome

d)

Splanchnotome

e)

Mesenchyme

95.

Intracellular regeneration in adult myocardium occurs via:

a)

Stem cells

b)

Myoblasts

c)

Myosatellite cells

96.

Functions of caveolae in the smooth myocyte cytoplasm:

a)

Accumulate Ca2+\mathrm{Ca^{2+}} ions

b)

Introduce myosin filaments

c)

Introduce actin filaments

d)

Introduce troponin C

e)

Give excitation to the smooth muscle tissues

97.

Striated cardiac muscle tissue develops from:

a)

Somite myotome

b)

Somite sclerotoma

c)

Somite dermatome

d)

Visceral leaf of splanchnotome

e)

Mesenchyme

98.

Regeneration of skeletal striated muscle tissue occurs due to:

a)

Symplast nuclear fission

b)

Division of myosatellitocytes

c)

Endomysial stem cells

d)

Perimysium stem cells

e)

Myofibroblasts

99.

Smooth muscle tissue of internal organs develops from:

a)

Mesenchyme

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neural tube

e)

Mesoderm somites

100.

Smooth muscle cell shape:

a)

Cubic

b)

Prismatic

c)

Pyramidal

d)

Fusiform

e)

Pear-shaped

101.

Structures of a smooth muscle cell containing calcium ions:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Actin filaments

c)

Myosin filaments

d)

Golgi complex

e)

Vesicles of the granular endoplasmic reticulum

102.

Actin filaments of a smooth muscle cell are connected to each other and to the plasmalemma:

a)

Dense bodies

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Lysosomes

d)

Tanks of granular endoplasmic reticulum

e)

Tubules of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

103.

The transmission of a nerve impulse from one smooth muscle cell to another is carried out through:

a)

Desmosome

b)

Interdigitations

c)

Nexuses

d)

Adhesive bands

e)

Tight contacts

104.

Shape of skeletal muscle myosatellitocytes:

a)

Cubic

b)

Prismatic

c)

Flattened

d)

Round

e)

Pyramidal

105.

Regeneration of striated muscle fiber occurs due to:

a)

Sarcolemmas

b)

Myosatellitocytes

c)

Sarcoplasms

d)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

e)

Myofibrils

106.

The trophism of the striated muscle fiber is carried out:

a)

Nuclei and organelles of general importance

b)

Myofibrils

c)

Telophragms and mesophragms

d)

Sarcolemma

e)

Triads

107.

Thin myofilaments of the sarcomere of the striated muscle fiber are:

a)

Telophragm

b)

Mesophragma

c)

Isotropic disk

d)

Anisotropic disk

e)

T-tubules

108.

Thick myofilaments of the sarcomere of the striated muscle fiber are:

a)

Telophragm

b)

Mesophragma

c)

Isotropic disk

d)

Anisotropic disk

109.

Sarcomere is a section of a myofibril of a muscle fiber between:

a)

Two lines M

b)

Two Z lines

c)

Two lines M and Z

d)

Overlap zone and line M

e)

Overlap zone and Z line

110.

General border structure between adjacent sarcomeres:

a)

Line M

b)

Line Z

c)

Light bar H

d)

T-tubules

e)

Overlap zone

111.

Part of the muscle fiber sarcomere, in which six thin filaments are located around one thick filament:

a)

Telophragm

b)

Mesophragm

c)

Overlap zone

d)

Isotropic disk

e)

H-zone of disk A

112.

During contraction of a striated muscle fiber, myosin interacts with:

a)

Tropomyosin

b)

Nebulin

c)

Actinome

d)

Titin

e)

Myomesin

113.

White muscle fibers of skeletal muscles are characterized by:

a)

A large number of myofibrils

b)

High myoglobin content

c)

A small number of myofibrils

d)

Absence of myofibrils

e)

High content of oxidative enzymes

114.

After a blood and urine test, a final diagnosis of myopathy was made in a patient. For the diagnosis, the key factor was the determination in the analysis of the level:

a)

Tryptophan

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

Acyl-carnitine

d)

Methionine

e)

All of the above

115.

Myasthenia is manifested by a violation of neuromuscular transmission and develops as a result of an autoimmune attack on:

a)

Postsynaptic serotonin receptors

b)

Postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors

c)

Postsynaptic histamine receptors

d)

Postsynaptic norepinephrine receptors

e)

Postsynaptic GABA receptors

116.

In a patient after myocardial infarction, the following process will occur:

a)

Myocardial regeneration

b)

Proliferation of fibrous tissue

c)

Proliferation of pacemaker cells

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

117.

Nervous tissue consists of:

a)

Nerve cells and neuroglia

b)

Fibroblasts and reticular fibers

c)

Reticular and fat cells

d)

Histiocytes and collagen fibers

e)

Epithelial cells and oxyalan fibers

118.

Source of development of nervous tissue:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Dorsal thickening of the ectoderm - neural plate

c)

Mesoderm somites

d)

Mesoderm splanchnotome

e)

Mesenchyme

119.

Multipolar neurocytes are characterized by:

a)

One axon and many dendrites

b)

Two axons and one dendrite

c)

One axon and one dendrite

d)

One process, which subsequently divides into an axon and a dendrite

e)

One dendrite and many axons

120.

Pseudo-unipolar neurons are characterized by the fact that:

a)

One process departs from their body, which then divides into two

b)

Two processes extend from opposite poles of the cell

c)

Many processes extend from their body

d)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum is poorly developed in their cytoplasm

e)

In their cytoplasm, the Golgi complex is poorly developed

121.

Location of pseudo-unipolar neurons:

a)

Cerebral cortex

b)

Dorsal horn of the spinal cord

c)

Cerebellar cortex

d)

Spinal ganglia

e)

Anterior horn of the spinal cord

122.

Cells of the nervous tissue containing granules and drops of secretion in the cytoplasm:

a)

Neurosecretory

b)

Normal nerve cells

c)

Oligodendroglia

d)

Astroglia

e)

Microglia

123.

Organelles found only in the nerve cell:

a)

Basophilic substance and neurofibrils

b)

Mitochondria and tonofibrils

c)

Golgi complex and myofibrils

d)

Lysosomes and residual bodies

e)

Centrioles and mitochondria

124.

The chromatophilic substance of nerve cells is:

a)

Accumulation of mitochondria

b)

Accumulation of lysosomes

c)

Cisterns of the Golgi apparatus

d)

Accumulation of cisterns of agranular EPS

e)

Accumulation of cisterns of granular ER, free ribosomes and polysomes

125.

Neurofibrils of nerve cells are:

a)

Invaginations of the plasmalemma

b)

Tubules of agranular er

c)

Fibrous protein collagen of the nervous type

d)

Bundles of neurofilaments and neurotubules

e)

Elements of the Golgi apparatus

126.

Nerve cells are characterized by:

a)

High levels of protein synthesis

b)

Low levels of protein synthesis

c)

Lack of protein synthesis

d)

High phagocytic activity

e)

Lack of retrograde current of neuroplasm

127.

Nerve cells are characterized by:

a)

Strong development of granular endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi complex

b)

Lack of a cell center

c)

Lack of mitochondria

d)

Absence of neurofibrils

e)

Absence of agranular endoplasmic reticulum

128.

Cells of the nervous tissue that generate a nerve impulse in response to irritation:

a)

Ependymocytes

b)

Protoplasmic astrocytes

c)

Neurocytes

d)

Oligodendrogliocytes

e)

Fibrous astrocytes

129.

Nerve cells differ from other cells by the presence of:

a)

Tonofibrils

b)

Myofibril

c)

Cilia

d)

Basophilic clumps and neurofibrils

e)

Striated border

130.

The following is involved in the conduction of a nerve impulse:

a)

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Microtubules

d)

Cisterns of the Golgi complex

e)

Plasmalemma

131.

Synthesis of mediators is carried out:

a)

Cell center

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Granular endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

e)

Mitochondria

132.

Cells of the nervous tissue incapable of phagocytosis:

a)

Protoplasmic astrocytes

b)

Fibrous astrocytes

c)

Microglia

d)

Neurocytes

e)

Schwann cells

133.

Most of the neurons in the nervous tissue by function are:

a)

Sensitive

b)

Receptor

c)

Associative

d)

Motor

e)

Secretory

134.

When cutting a peripheral nerve, it degenerates and collapses:

a)

Peripheral part of the process of a neuron

b)

The central part of the process of a neuron

c)

Whole neuron

d)

Peripheral neuroglia

e)

Neuroglia of the central part of the process of the neuron

135.

Lemmcocytes perform the following functions:

a)

Secretory

b)

Base, boundary

c)

Trophic

d)

Form sheaths of nerve fibers

e)

Phagocytic

136.

The patient has a tremor of the extremities, especially of the hands in a relaxed position, the tremor usually increases during stress and is often stronger on one side of the body. This neurological disease develops as a result of:

a)

Loss of dopamine-secreting cells

b)

Loss of histamine-secreting cells

c)

Loss of cells secreting serotonin

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

137.

Velocity of a nerve impulse in an unmyelinated nerve fiber:

a)

100-200 m/s

b)

50-60 m/s

c)

1-2 m/s

d)

150-200 m/s

e)

200-250 m/s

138.

The speed of the nerve impulse along the myelinated nerve fibers:

a)

10-15 m/s

b)

2-10 m/s

c)

1-2 m/s

d)

5-120 m/s

e)

20-25 m/s

139.

An unmyelinated nerve fiber consists of:

a)

One axial cylinder, myelin sheath

b)

Two axial cylinders and a myelin layer

c)

10-20 axial cylinders immersed in a strand of neurolemmocytes

d)

Five axle cylinders

e)

More than 100 axle cylinders

140.

Axial cylinders of the nerve fiber are:

a)

Axon or dendrite of neurocytes

b)

Processes of protoplasmic astrocytes

c)

Processes of fibrous astrocytes

d)

Chains of oligodendrogliocytes

e)

Processes of microglia

141.

The structure of the nerve fiber stained black with osmic acid:

a)

Axle cylinder

b)

Interceptions of Ranvier

c)

Myelin layer

d)

Neurolemma

e)

Nuclei of neurolemmocytes

142.

Neuroglia cells involved in the formation of the myelin sheath of nerve fibers:

a)

Protoplasmic astrocytes

b)

Fibrous astrocytes

c)

Microglia

d)

Lemmocytes

e)

Ependymocytes

143.

The Schwann sheath of the nerve fiber consists of:

a)

Microglial cells

b)

Fibrous astrocytes

c)

Lemmocytes

d)

Protoplasmic astrocytes

e)

Ependymocytes

144.

Chemical synapses transmit an impulse to another nerve cell with the help of:

a)

Calcium ions

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Neurotransmitters

d)

Potassium ions

e)

Phosphorus ions

145.

The structure of a chemical synapse, equipped with receptors for neurotransmitters:

a)

Presynaptic membrane

b)

Synaptic cleft

c)

Postsynaptic membrane

d)

Neurofilaments

e)

Presynaptic vesicles

146.

Substances involved in the transmission of a nerve impulse:

a)

Calcium ions

b)

Sodium ions

c)

Acetylcholine, norepinephrine

d)

Potassium ions

e)

Phosphorus ions

147.

Synapse in which impulse inhibition occurs:

a)

Axo-somatic

b)

Axo-dendritic

c)

Axo-axonal

d)

Somato - somatic

e)

Dendro - dendritic

148.

What type of receptors does the lamellar body of Vater-Pacini belong to:

a)

Thermoreceptors

b)

Mechanoreceptors

c)

Baroreceptors

d)

Photoreceptors

e)

Chemoreceptors

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