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Worksheets

Biochemistry and Physiology Review Questions

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the nature of enzymes?

a)

Protein

b)

Lipid

c)

Coenzyme

d)

Hormone

2.

Which set consists of water-soluble vitamins?

a)

B1, B6, ascorbic acid

b)

Vitamin K, A, C, B1

c)

Vitamin B1, B2, E, and C

d)

Vitamin B2, C, and thiamine

3.

The reaction AB → A + B is catalyzed by which factor?

a)

Hydrolase

b)

Hydratase

c)

Transferase

d)

Catalase

4.

The reaction RCOOH → RH + CO2 is catalyzed by which factor?

a)

Hydrolase

b)

Decarboxylase

c)

Isomerase

d)

Synthetase

5.

Coenzyme A contains which substance?

a)

Riboflavin (vitamin B2)

b)

Pantothenic acid (B5)

c)

Nicotinamide (vitamin PP)

d)

Thiamin (vitamin B1)

6.

Which are the fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

A, B, C, D

b)

A, B, E, K

c)

A, B, D, P

d)

A, D, E, K

7.

Which is an action of vitamin PP (niacin)?

a)

Prevents Beri-Beri

b)

Prevents Seobus disease

c)

Prevents angular stomatitis

d)

Prevents psoriasis

8.

What is the catalytic role of enzymes in reactions?

a)

Decrease activation energy

b)

Increase activation energy

c)

Increase contact between substrate molecules

d)

Prevent reverse reactions

9.

The hypothalamus secretes which type of hormone?

a)

RF

b)

IF

c)

GH

d)

Both A and B

10.

What is an effect of vitamin A?

a)

Prevents Beri-Beri

b)

Prevents scurvy

c)

Converts opsin to rhodopsin

d)

Catalyzes isomerization reactions

11.

How many ATP are formed when electrons are transferred from one FADH2 and one NADH molecule to the final acceptor O2?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

12.

Which set participates in the composition of NAD?

a)

Adenine, nicotinamide, deoxyribose

b)

Adenylic acid, nicotinamide, ribose

c)

Adenylic acid, pantothenic acid, nicotinamide

d)

Adenine, ribose, thioethanolamine

13.

Which of the following coenzymes does not contain a vitamin?

a)

NAD

b)

FAD

c)

CoA

d)

Lipoic acid

14.

Dehydrogenase enzymes have which coenzymes?

a)

NAD+

b)

NADP+

c)

CoA

d)

FAD

15.

What is the nature of enzymes?

a)

Protein

b)

Lipid

c)

Coenzyme

d)

Hormone

16.

What is the primary role of vitamin B6?

a)

Participates in the visual mechanism

b)

Prevents pellagra

c)

Participates in blood coagulation

d)

Catalyzes transamination and decarboxylation reactions

17.

Which set lists fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

E, A, K, folic acid

b)

D, E, B1, K

c)

K, D, A, tocopherol

d)

A, C, B6, D

18.

Which vitamin participates in the structure of coenzyme A?

a)

Vitamin E

b)

Vitamin B5

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Vitamin B

19.

Deficiency of nicotinamide may cause which disease?

a)

Beri-Beri edema

b)

Scurvy

c)

Pellagra

d)

Corneal keratinization

20.

Which vitamin plays a role in protecting the epithelium?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin B1

d)

Vitamin B12

21.

What is the optimal temperature for enzyme activity in the body?

a)

25°C

b)

30°C

c)

37°C

d)

40°C

22.

At what pH does salivary amylase act optimally?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

23.

NAD+ and NADP+ are coenzymes of enzymes that catalyze which reactions?

a)

Aminotransfer

b)

Electron exchange

c)

Hydrogen transfer

d)

Transfer of –CH3 groups

24.

In cardiovascular disease, which LDH isoenzyme increases predominantly in blood?

a)

LDH 1

b)

LDH 2

c)

LDH 3

d)

LDH 4

25.

To reach maximal reaction rate, the substrate concentration S should be how many times larger than Km?

a)

10 times

b)

20 times

c)

50 times

d)

100 times

26.

Based on chemical nature, into how many types are hormones classified?

a)

2 types

b)

3 types

c)

4 types

d)

5 types

27.

Which cells secrete insulin?

a)

Pancreatic beta cells

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Liver cells

d)

Anterior pituitary

28.

Where are steroid hormone receptors located?

a)

On the cell surface

b)

Within the cell membrane

c)

Inside the cell

d)

In mitochondria

29.

Pancreatic hormones belong to which group?

a)

Peptides

b)

Glucids

c)

Amines

d)

Steroids

30.

Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which source?

a)

Free tyrosine

b)

Tyrosine within albumin

c)

Tyrosine within globulin

d)

Tyrosine within fibrin

31.

The adrenal medulla secretes which hormone?

a)

Mineralocorticoid

b)

Glucocorticoid

c)

Insulin

d)

Catecholamine

32.

What is the function of a receptor?

a)

Acts like an enzyme

b)

Binds specifically to a hormone

c)

Forms a pore to let a specific hormone pass through

d)

Forms a complex to increase hormone solubility

33.

What is the significance of anabolism and catabolism?

a)

Provide new materials for cell construction

b)

Help provide energy for activity

c)

Enable cells of organisms to function normally and maintain life

d)

All of the above

34.

What is phosphorylation?

a)

Breaking a phosphate bond

b)

Adding a phosphate group to an inorganic molecule

c)

Adding a phosphate group to an organic molecule

d)

An energy-releasing reaction

35.

Which statement best defines an oxidizing agent?

a)

Donates electrons; its element’s oxidation number increases after the reaction

b)

Donates electrons; its element’s oxidation number decreases after the reaction

c)

Accepts electrons; its element’s oxidation number increases after the reaction

d)

Accepts electrons; its element’s oxidation number decreases after the reaction

36.

Which pair of concepts are equivalent?

a)

Oxidation process and oxidation

b)

Oxidation process and oxidizing agent

c)

Reduction process and oxidation

d)

Oxidation process and reducing agent

37.

How are electrons transferred from one molecule to another?

a)

Directly, by hydrogen atoms, hydric iron; directly bound to oxygen

b)

Indirectly, directly, by hydrogen atoms, directly to oxygen

c)

Indirectly, directly, by carbon atoms, by hydrogen atoms

d)

Directly, by hydrogen atoms, by carbon atoms, by hydrogen atoms

38.

What is the first substance entering the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle?

a)

Acetyl-CoA

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

Glycolysis

39.

Which compound is not a high-energy compound?

a)

Glucose 6-phosphate

b)

Phosphoenolpyruvate

c)

Acetyl-CoA

d)

1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate

40.

Which of the following is a high-energy bond?

a)

Glycosidic bond

b)

Ester phosphate bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Acyl phosphate bond

41.

What is the P/O ratio for succinate?

a)

1.5

b)

1.25

c)

2.5

d)

2.25

42.

How many ATP does 1 NADH produce?

a)

2.5

b)

1.5

c)

2

d)

3

43.

If 1 NADH yields 3 ATP and 1 FADH2 yields 2 ATP, how many ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose?

a)

38

b)

30

c)

29

d)

21

44.

How many ATP does the Krebs cycle produce?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

45.

Which of the following is not a product of the cellular respiratory chain?

a)

O2 production

b)

CO2 production

c)

H2O production

d)

H2O2 production

46.

Which enzyme does not have a detoxification role in the body?

a)

Hydroperoxidase

b)

Peroxidase

c)

Oxidase

d)

Catalase

47.

Which enzyme does not participate in the cellular respiratory chain?

a)

Phosphorylase

b)

Peroxidase

c)

Dehydrogenase

d)

Catalase

48.

Which statement about free energy is correct?

a)

The portion of cellular energy not used is called free energy

b)

The free energy of a system is directly proportional to its entropy

c)

A spontaneous reaction occurs with a decrease in free energy

d)

Entropy is lowest when the system reaches equilibrium

49.

Which product is not a product of the citric acid cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

H2O

50.

The Q cycle occurs at which complex?

a)

Complex I

b)

Complex II

c)

Complex III

d)

Complex IV

51.

Which substance is not a membrane-bound electron carrier?

a)

Coenzyme Q

b)

NADH

c)

Cytochrome

d)

Fe–S protein

52.

In which stages are reducing equivalents formed?

a)

Stages 1, 3, 4

b)

Stages 2, 5, 7

c)

Stages 1, 6, 8

d)

Stages 4, 6, 8

53.

The cellular respiratory chain belongs to which stage of catabolism?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

54.

Which process belongs to the common degradative (convergent) stage of metabolism?

a)

Proteins degraded to amino acids

b)

Glucose degraded to pyruvate

c)

Beta-oxidation of fatty acids

d)

Citric acid cycle

55.

Regarding metabolism, which statement is correct?

a)

Catabolism is the process of breaking down complex nutrients

b)

The free energy of catabolism is stored entirely in phosphate form

c)

Catabolism supplies high‑energy electrons to NAD+ and NADP+

d)

Entropy is lowest when the system reaches equilibrium

56.

What is intermediary metabolism?

a)

A biosynthetic process occurring in three stages

b)

Energy is released mostly in stage 1

c)

The half‑life of brain triglyceride is 200 days

d)

Acetyl‑CoA is oxidized in the citric cycle to CO2 and H2O

57.

What is anabolism?

a)

The process converting dietary specific macromolecules into the body’s specific macromolecules

b)

The process converting dietary specific macromolecules into simple structural units

c)

The hydrolysis of dietary macromolecules into specific simple units

d)

Transfer of body macromolecular units into dietary macromolecules

58.

In catabolic reactions, what percentage of the released energy is captured as ATP?

a)

40%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

70%

59.

In catabolism, at which stage is the carbon skeleton of alpha‑keto acids formed?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stages 2 and 3

60.

Which processes are included in metabolism?

a)

Digestion of food

b)

Absorption of digestive products

c)

Intermediary metabolism

d)

All of A, B, and C

61.

Catabolism consists of how many stages?

a)

4 stages

b)

2 stages

c)

5 stages

d)

3 stages

62.

Which process is not part of overall metabolism?

a)

Digestion of food

b)

Absorption of digestive products

c)

Intermediary metabolism

d)

Formation of reducing sugars

63.

Each metabolic pathway can take multiple forms; which is the most common form?

a)

Linear pathway

b)

Cyclic pathway

c)

Spiral pathway

d)

None of the above

64.

Under aerobic conditions, the convergent product at the end of stage 2 of macromolecule degradation is

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Acetyl‑CoA

c)

H2O

d)

CO2

65.

At which stage of catabolism is the carbon skeleton of alpha‑keto acids formed?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stages 2 and 3

66.

What is the first substrate‑level phosphorylation in glycolysis?

a)

Formation of 3‑phosphoglycerate

b)

Formation of ADP from AMP

c)

Catalyzed by phosphofructokinase

d)

Processes are irreversible

67.

The enzyme that adds a phosphate group to fructose‑6‑phosphate in glycolysis does so for what main purpose?

a)

This step produces ATP

b)

To regulate glycolysis

c)

To produce fructose‑2,6‑bisphosphate

d)

It is phosphofructokinase‑2

68.

In anaerobic metabolism, pyruvate is reduced to lactate. This process produces

a)

ATP

b)

FAD

c)

NAD+

d)

H2O

69.

The enzyme that converts phosphodiacetone (dihydroxyacetone phosphate) to glyceraldehyde‑3‑phosphate belongs to which class?

a)

Oxidoreductase

b)

Transferase

c)

Lyase

d)

Isomerase

70.

Five hundred molecules of glucose labeled with 14C are supplied to cells that produce lactate. How many molecules of ATP labeled with 14C are formed from these glucose molecules?

a)

500

b)

250

c)

750

d)

800

71.

What is the proper sequence in aerobic respiration?

a)

Acetyl‑CoA, electron transport, glycolysis, Krebs cycle

b)

Acetyl‑CoA, glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport

c)

Krebs cycle, glycolysis, electron transport, Acetyl‑CoA

d)

Glycolysis, Acetyl‑CoA, Krebs cycle, electron transport

72.

Which principal substance in muscle stimulates cAMP formation to promote glycogen breakdown and inhibit glycogen synthesis?

a)

Calmodulin

b)

Insulin

c)

Glucose

d)

Glucagon

73.

Which pair are the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway?

a)

NAD+ and ribose

b)

NADH and glucose

c)

NAD+ and glucose

d)

NADPH and ribose

74.

What is the main substrate for gluconeogenesis?

a)

Galactose

b)

Glycerol

c)

Mannitol

d)

Sucrose

75.

What is the role of glucagon?

a)

Stimulates the citric acid cycle

b)

Stimulates the pentose phosphate pathway

c)

Stimulates glycogen synthesis

d)

Stimulates gluconeogenesis

76.

What is hexokinase?

a)

Predominantly active in the liver

b)

Has low affinity for glucose

c)

Phosphorylates large amounts of glucose

d)

Is inhibited by glucose‑6‑phosphate

77.

How many ATP are consumed in glycolysis up to the formation of fructose‑1,6‑bisphosphate when starting from free glucose?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

78.

Which of the following sugars is non‑reducing?

a)

Fructose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Glucose

d)

Lactose

79.

Which sugar is called milk sugar?

a)

Galactose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Lactose

d)

Fructose

80.

Which substance is used to assess glomerular filtration function?

a)

Heparin

b)

Dextrin

c)

Inulin

d)

Insulin

81.

Which substance is commonly used to replace blood plasma?

a)

Inulin

b)

Dextrin

c)

Inulin

d)

Lactose

82.

What is the role of heparin?

a)

Coagulates blood and clarifies plasma

b)

Anticoagulant and clarifies plasma

c)

Anticoagulant and clouds plasma

d)

Coagulates blood and clouds plasma

83.

Which substance is produced in muscle cells under anaerobic conditions?

a)

ATP

b)

Pyruvate

c)

Lactate

d)

Acetyl‑CoA

84.

Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to lactate; this process generates which molecule?

a)

NAD+

b)

ATP

c)

FAD

d)

H2O

85.

The enzyme that converts phosphodiacetone to phosphoglyceraldehyde belongs to which class?

a)

Oxidoreductase

b)

Hydrolase

c)

Lyase

d)

Isomerase

86.

Which substance primarily in muscle stimulates cAMP production to activate glycogen breakdown and inhibit glycogen synthesis?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Glucagon

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucose

87.

Which set contains only saturated fatty acids?

a)

Oleic acid, palmitic acid, arachidonic acid

b)

Stearic acid, palmitic acid, butyric acid

c)

Palmitic acid, linolenic acid, stearic acid

d)

Butyric acid, oleic acid, linolenic acid

88.

Which of the following is a characteristic of tripalmitin?

a)

Highly soluble in water

b)

Abundant in liver

c)

A complex lipid

d)

A simple glyceride

89.

Where are ketone bodies synthesized?

a)

Liver

b)

Muscle

c)

Kidney

d)

Pancreas

90.

Where does β-oxidation occur?

a)

Cytosol and mitochondria

b)

Cytosol and other organelles

c)

In mitochondria

d)

All of the above

91.

What is the composition of linolenic acid?

a)

16 carbons and 1 double bond

b)

18 carbons and 3 double bonds

c)

18 carbons and 1 double bond

d)

18 carbons and 2 double bonds

92.

Which compound is a neutral fat?

a)

Triglyceride

b)

Diglyceride

c)

Monoglyceride

d)

Phosphoric acid

93.

Which lipid component is abundant in LDL?

a)

Triglyceride

b)

Phospholipid

c)

Free fatty acids

d)

Cholesterol

94.

Where is lipoprotein lipase most abundant in the body?

a)

Vascular wall

b)

Intestinal lumen

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

95.

Which apolipoprotein is present in chylomicrons?

a)

Apo A‑I

b)

Apo B‑48

c)

Apo B‑100

d)

Apo A‑II

96.

How many carbons does testosterone have?

a)

24 carbons

b)

21 carbons

c)

12 carbons

d)

19 carbons

97.

Degradation of fatty acids to acetoacetyl‑CoA occurs primarily in which organ?

a)

Adipose tissue

b)

Intestine

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

98.

Where is cholesterol most abundant?

a)

HDL

b)

VLDL

c)

Chylomicrons

d)

LDL

99.

Which is not a function of lipids?

a)

Membrane structure

b)

Energy storage

c)

Transport

d)

Carrying genetic information

100.

Which lipoprotein is synthesized only in the small intestine?

a)

HDL

b)

LDL

c)

Chylomicron

d)

VLDL

101.

Which lipid component is abundant in HDL?

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Free cholesterol

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Triglyceride A

102.

Which lipid component is abundant in chylomicrons?

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Free fatty acids

c)

Endogenous triglyceride

d)

Exogenous triglyceride

103.

Which apolipoprotein is present in both VLDL and LDL?

a)

Apo A‑I

b)

Apo B‑100

c)

Apo A‑II

d)

Apo B‑48

104.

Cholesterol is not a precursor of which of the following?

a)

Bile salts

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Corticosterone

d)

Testosterone

105.

Where does fatty acid synthesis primarily occur?

a)

Liver

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Outside mitochondria

d)

In mitochondria

106.

Which substance decreases the activity of HMG‑CoA reductase?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

TSH

d)

Adrenaline

107.

Where is Apo B‑48 abundant?

a)

Chylomicrons

b)

LDL

c)

VLDL

d)

HDL

108.

Which enzyme functions at pH 1–2?

a)

Trypsin

b)

Pepsin

c)

Trypsinogen

d)

Pepsinogen

109.

Which amino acid contains an imino group?

a)

Valine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Proline

d)

Cystine

110.

Which of the following has the nature of a protein?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Vitamin

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Enzyme

111.

Which amino acid contains a sulfhydryl (−SH) group?

a)

Cysteine

b)

Threonine

c)

Cystine

d)

Histidine

112.

What is keratin?

a)

Globulin

b)

Tripeptide

c)

Fibrous protein

d)

Globular protein

113.

Which group consists only of heterocyclic amino acids?

a)

Tyr, His, Pro, Lys

b)

Trp, Tyr, His, Lys

c)

Pro, His, Hyp, Trp

d)

Pro, Phe, His, Trp

114.

Which amino acid is basic?

a)

Trp

b)

Met

c)

Val

d)

Lys

115.

Which substance gives a positive biuret reaction?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Triglyceride

c)

Tetrapeptide

d)

Monosaccharide

116.

Thyroxine (T4) is derived from which compound?

a)

Tyramine

b)

Taurine

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Tryptoamine

117.

Arginase acts on which substrate to produce urea?

a)

Glutamate

b)

Arginine

c)

Glutamine

d)

Ornithine

118.

Which is a product of arginine hydrolysis in the urea cycle?

a)

Ornithine

b)

Citrulline

c)

Glutamine

d)

Aspartate

119.

In what form does NH3 travel in the blood?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Asparagine

c)

Glutamine

d)

Ammonia

120.

How many grams of protein does the body need per day?

a)

40–50 g

b)

100–200 g

c)

30–60 g

d)

20–80 g

121.

What is the oxidative decarboxylation product of tryptophan?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Epinephrine

c)

Histamine

d)

Melanin

122.

What is the pH of the stomach?

a)

2–3

b)

1–3

c)

6–6.5

d)

4–5

123.

What is the pH of the duodenum?

a)

6–6.5

b)

3–4

c)

2–3

d)

6–7

124.

What is the pH of the large intestine?

a)

5–7

b)

1–3

c)

6–6.5

d)

5.5–7

125.

Where is chymotrypsin secreted?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

126.

Blood protein increases in which situation?

a)

Hemoconcentration

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Blood loss

127.

The product of amino acid metabolism excreted in urine of animals is in what form?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Glutamine

c)

Urea

d)

Creatinine

128.

In heme, the two propionic side chains are attached to the porphyrin nucleus at which positions?

a)

1, 2

b)

3, 4

c)

5, 6

d)

7, 8

129.

Which hemoglobin has valine at position 6 of the beta chain?

a)

HbA

b)

HbC

c)

HbS

d)

HbF

130.

Which hemoglobin has lysine at position 6 of the beta chain?

a)

HbA

b)

HbC

c)

HbF

d)

HbS

131.

Which set contains only derivatives that include Fe2+?

a)

HbCO2, HbO2, Hb

b)

HbO2, HbCO, Hb

c)

MetHb, HbCO2, Hb

d)

Hb, HbCO, HbCO2

132.

Which group includes only chromoproteins whose prosthetic group contains a porphyrin nucleus?

a)

Hemoglobin, cytochrome, glycoprotein

b)

Hemoglobin, chlorophyll II, ferritin

c)

Hemoglobin, cytochrome, chlorophyll II

d)

Flavoprotein, cytochrome, chlorophyll II

133.

Sickle cell disease is due to what?

a)

A mutation in the gene encoding the gamma polypeptide chain

b)

A mutation in the gene encoding the two beta polypeptide chains

c)

A mutation in the gene encoding the two alpha polypeptide chains

d)

A mutation in the gene encoding the delta polypeptide chain

134.

On which chromosome is the gene encoding the alpha polypeptide chain located?

a)

Chromosome 16

b)

Chromosome 18

c)

Chromosome 20

d)

Chromosome 12

135.

Which protein stores oxygen for muscle?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Albumin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Collagen

136.

Which form of hemoglobin is present mainly in the fetus?

a)

HbA

b)

HbB

c)

HbC

d)

HbF

137.

How many polypeptide chains in total are present in the quaternary structure of a hemoglobin molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

138.

Which of the following is a cause of prehepatic jaundice?

a)

Bile duct obstruction

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Pancreatitis

139.

How many types of bilirubin are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

140.

What is the normal concentration of total bilirubin in serum?

a)

<10 mg/dl

b)

<1 mg/dl

c)

<1 g/l

d)

<1 mg/l

141.

Which is a cause of prehepatic jaundice?

a)

Viral hepatitis

b)

Alcohol

c)

Drugs (e.g., acetaminophen, isoniazid)

d)

Hemolysis

142.

Which is a cause of intrahepatic jaundice?

a)

Neonatal jaundice

b)

Common bile duct stone

c)

Pancreatic head tumor

d)

Viral hepatitis

143.

Which is a cause of posthepatic jaundice?

a)

Neonatal jaundice

b)

Ascaris invading the bile duct

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Cirrhosis

144.

A direct/total bilirubin ratio (conjugated/total) >80% is seen in which condition?

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Pancreatic head tumor

c)

Obstruction

d)

Drug-induced hepatitis

145.

A direct/total bilirubin ratio (conjugated/total) <25% is seen in which condition?

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Neonatal jaundice

c)

Obstruction

d)

Viral hepatitis

146.

In DNA, which nitrogenous base pair is connected by three hydrogen bonds?

a)

Adenine and guanine

b)

Adenine and thymine

c)

Cytosine and guanine

d)

Cytosine and adenine

147.

Which of the following is not a purine base?

a)

Guanine

b)

Caffeine

c)

Adenine

d)

Cytosine

148.

Which of the following is not a pyrimidine base?

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Uracil

d)

Guanine

149.

Which nitrogenous base contains a methyl group (-CH3) in its structure?

a)

Guanine

b)

Thymine

c)

Uracil

d)

Cytosine

150.

Which of the following is a nucleotide?

a)

Guanosine

b)

Thymidine

c)

Cyclic AMP

d)

Deoxyadenosine

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