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Worksheets

111 Cumulative review

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the reaction that releases energy for use by the cell occurs in which site?

a)

cytoplasmic membrane

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

mitochondrial membrane

d)

endoplasmic membrane

2.

What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a)

6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy

b)

6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy

d)

6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6

3.

Besides ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

carbon dioxide and pyruvate

c)

water and pyruvate

d)

NADH and pyruvate

4.

Where does glycolysis occur?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

cell membrane

5.

When oxygen is taken in and glucose broken down, this is an example of what type of respiration?

a)

anaerobic

b)

aerobic

6.

ATP is:

a)

a short-term energy-storage compound.

b)

the cell’s principle compound for energy transfers.

c)

synthesized within mitochondria.

d)

synthesized in the cytoplasm.

7.

Which type of reaction is shown below?

glucose → lactic acid + ATP

a)

photosynthesis

b)

aerobic respiration

c)

cellular respiration

d)

anaerobic respiration

8.

what does ATP stand for

a)

Adenosine diphosophate

b)

energy

c)

Adenosine triphosphate

d)

Guanine Triphosphate

9.

What is the input of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

pyruvate

d)

glucose

e)

ATP

10.

In pyruvate oxidation, ____ pyruvate molecules enter and ___ acetyl CoA molecules leave.

a)

6, 4

b)

3, 2

c)

2, 2

d)

2,4

11.

All of the following are functions of the citric acid cycle EXCEPT:

a)

production of ATP

b)

production of NADH

c)

production of FADH2

d)

release of carbon dioxide

e)

reducing oxygen and forming water

12.

What is the difference between ATP and ADP?

a)

ATP has two phosphate groups

b)

ADP has two phosphate groups

c)

ATP has three phosphate groups

d)

ADP three phosphate groups

13.

When is NADH NOT made?

a)

glycolysis

b)

pyruvate oxidation

c)

citric acid cycle

d)

ETC

14.

What happens when the phosphate bond in ATP is broken?

a)

it is reduced

b)

it releases energy

c)

it is oxidized

d)

It absorbs energy

15.

When an atom or molecule gains electrons then it is _________.

a)

oxidized

b)

reduced

16.

What is the output of glycolysis?

a)

glucose

b)

2 pyruvate

c)

2 NADH

d)

2 ATP

e)

2 FADH2

17.

What is the main function of the Citric Acid cycle?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

18.

What is the main function of the Citric Acid cycle?

a)

To complete the breakdown of glucose

b)

To generate a proton gradient and synthesize ATP

c)

To split a glucose molecule in half and synthesize NADH

19.

What is NADH?

a)

an electron carrier

b)

a protein

c)

a sugar

d)

a nucleotide

20.

What is a product of fermentation?

a)

NAD+

b)

ADP

c)

pyruvate

21.

How many times does pyruvate oxidation occur

for each glucose molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

22.

Where does cellular respiration occur in prokaryotes cells?

a)

cell membrane

b)

mitochondria

c)

cell wall

d)

cytoplasm

23.

A substance that loses an electron has been...

a)

reduced

b)

oxidized

c)

negatived

d)

positived

24.

What is the output of the Citric Acid cycle (one turn)?

a)

3 NADH

b)

1 FADH2

c)

1 ATP

d)

2 CO2

e)

acetyl CoA

25.

During aerobic respiration, electrons travel downhill (losing energy) in which sequence?

a)

food-citric acid-ATP-NAD+

b)

food-NADH-electron transport chain-oxygen

c)

glucose-pyruvate-ATP-oxygen

d)

glucose-ATP-electron transport chain-NADH

e)

food-glycolysis-citric acid cycle-NADH-ATP

26.

What is the primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration?

a)

combine with carbon to form carbon dioxide

b)

final electron acceptor at end of ETC

c)

combine with lactate to form pyruvate

d)

catalyze reactions of glycolysis

e)

yield energy in the form of ATP as its passed down the ETC

27.

if 18 carbon dioxide molecules are used during photosynthesis, how many glucose molecules are created?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

6

d)

18

28.

During glycolysis, for each mole of glucose oxidized to pyruvate:

a)

6 moles of ATP are produced.

b)

4 moles of ATP are used, and 2 moles of ATP are produced.

c)

2 moles of ATP are used, and 4 net moles of ATP are produced.

d)

2 moles of NAD+ are produced.

e)

an undetermined number of ATP is produced.

29.

Which of the following is a by-product of cellular respiration in animals?

a)

oxygen

b)

sugar

c)

heat

d)

protein

30.

If fewer hydrogens are pumped through the ETC, this means...

a)

more ATP are made

b)

fewer ATP are made

c)

The same amount are made

31.

which process releases the highest amount of energy?

a)

anaerobic respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

aerobic respiration

d)

protein synthesis

32.

What happens when there is an excess of pyruvate?

a)

Nothing, it will continue as normal

b)

Citric acid cycle will speed up

c)

Citric acid cycle will slow down

d)

Glycolysis will slow down

33.

What happens when excess ATP is present?

a)

Glycolysis speeds up

b)

Glycolysis slows down

c)

Electron transport chain slows down

d)

Pyruvate oxidation slows down

34.

What does it mean when there is excess ADP present?

a)

You are making too much ATP, so the ETC must speed up

b)

You’re making too much ATP, so pyruvate oxidation must increase

c)

You are not making enough ATP, so glycolysis must increase

d)

You are not making enough ATP, so glycolysis must decrease

35.

When there is too much citric acid, you must…

a)

Increase pyruvate oxidation

b)

Decrease glycolysis

c)

Increase glycolysis

d)

Decrease the ETC

36.

When there is excess oxaloacetate, you must..

a)

Slow down glycolysis

b)

Speed up glycolysis

c)

Speed up pyruvate oxidation

d)

Slow down the citric acid cycle

37.

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Fatty Acids

d)

Polysaccharides

38.

Nucleotides polymerize by adding from

a)

3’ to 5’

b)

5’ to 5’

c)

5’ to 3’

d)

3’ to 3’

39.

The process of DNA replication is called semi conservative because it results in

a)

none of these

b)

Two DNA molecules.  One original molecule and one with two new strands

c)

two exact copies with new strands

d)

two DNA molecules, each with 1 original strand and one new.

40.

Nitrogen bases are joined by which type of bond?

a)

polar bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

phosphate bonds

d)

deoxyribose bonds

41.

Adenine bonds with _____

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

42.

Cytosine bonds with ____

a)

Adenine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

43.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

44.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

45.

Which is the first step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

46.

Which is the second step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

47.

Which is the third step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

48.

Which is the fourth step?

a)

DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA strand

b)

RNA Primase lays down RNA primer for new nucleotide bases.

c)

DNA polymerase builds new strands by bring in new nucleotide bases.

d)

Ligase knits together fragments on lagging strand

49.

Which letter in the picture below depicts the leading strand in DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

None of the above

50.

If a person suffered from a disorder where their DNA fragments were unable to fill in the missing slots in between the fragments of the lagging strand, they would most likely have a disorder that affected which enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

51.

Okazaki fragments appear on which strand of DNA during DNA replication?

a)

lagging

b)

leading

52.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
53.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
54.
A nucleotide includes...?
a)
pentose sugar
b)
nitrogenous base
c)
phosphate group
d)
all of the above
55.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
56.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
57.

Enzyme that breaks hydrogen bonds (unzips)

a)

Ligase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

58.

Site where replication begins

a)

Polymerase action site

b)

Replication fork

c)

Replication Origin

d)

In the front

59.

The new DNA strand formed after DNA replication is an exact copy of its parent strand

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Proteins that DNA winds itself around to for Chromosomes

a)

Histone

b)

Double Helix

c)

Chromatin

d)

Chromatin

61.
DNA codes for...
a)
cholesterol
b)
proteins
c)
fatty acids
d)
a sandwich
62.
Before the cell divides, what process needs to happen?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Protein synthesis
63.

Which bases are purines?

a)

A

b)

G

c)

T

d)

C

64.

Which bases are pyramidines?

a)

C

b)

T

c)

G

d)

A

65.

What is the purpose of SSBs?

a)

Snipping DNA

b)

Removes tension in strand

c)

Prevents the strands from making secondary structures

d)

Separates the bases

66.

What is the difference between DNA polymerase 1 and 3?

a)

3 adds to the new strand, 1 removes primer, and replaces the primer with DNA primers

b)

1 adds to the new strand, 3 removes the primer

c)

They do the same thing

67.

What does topoisomerase do?

a)

It relives tension in the strand

b)

It separates hydrogen bonds

c)

It glues the fragments together

d)

It prevents secondary structures from forming

68.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
69.
Chromatid pairs can be seen, spindle fibers form and nuclear membrane disappears
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Prophase
70.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
71.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
72.
The organelle that helps in cell division and produces spindle fibers.
a)
Chromosome
b)
Centriole
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Chloroplast
73.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
74.

The phase wherein sister chromatids align in one place at the center.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

75.

What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

76.
Chromosomes duplicate, the cell grows and develops
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
77.
Which of the following lists, in order, the phases of mitosis?
a)
interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, interphase
d)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
78.
How many chromosomes does a human cell have?
a)
42
b)
46
c)
24
d)
64
79.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
80.
Structure C is pointing to one ____. 
a)
sister chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
d)
gene
81.

Identical copies of chromosomes

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromatid

c)

Centriole

d)

Centromere

82.
Cytokinesis happens at the end of mitosis. That is when
a)
the cell membrane splits
b)
the nucleus splits again
c)
the chromosomes merge
83.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
84.
In which phase does the cell spend most of it's life?
a)
Interphase
b)
Nuclear Division
c)
Telophase
d)
Mitosis
85.
Which of the following describes cancer?
a)
Nondisjunction of gamete cells
b)
Cell division without replication of DNA
c)
Mitosis without cytokinesis
d)
Uncontrolled cell division
86.

When homologous chromosomes pair up and align, its called

a)

Crossing over

b)

Synapsis

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase 1

87.

In which phase does crossing-over happen?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

88.

Mitosis is the same as which of the following?

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

c)

Meiosis III

d)

Crossing Over

89.

In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is ____.

a)

23

b)

46

c)

69

d)

92

90.

In Anaphase I, the _________ are separated by the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

centrosomes

91.

How many cells are formed at the end of Meiosis II?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

8

92.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

93.

The products of MEIOSIS have _______ number of chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

94.

True or False: Crossing-over also happens in Meiosis II.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

What effect does crossing over has in terms of traits of offspring?

a)

Results in identical traits of offsprings.

b)

Causes variation in the traits of offsprings.

c)

It really does nothing to the traits of offspring.

96.
What phase is this?
a)
Interphase II
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Anaphase II
97.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Prophase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
Anaphase I
98.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase II
b)
Metaphase I
c)
Anaphase I
d)
Telophase II
99.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Metaphase II
b)
Telophase I
c)
Telophase II
d)
Metaphase I
100.

What phase is shown here?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Interphase I

101.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Anaphase I
b)
Prophase I
c)
Metaphase II
d)
 Metaphase I
102.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase II
b)
Anaphase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Interphase I
103.
What phase is shown here?
a)
Telophase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Telophase II
d)
Anaphase I
104.

DNA + proteins

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosome

c)

Chromatids

d)

Centromere

105.

Nonreproductive cells

a)

Gametes

b)

Autosome

c)

Somatic

d)

Sex chromosome

106.

The specific position a gene has on a chromosome

a)

Locus

b)

Gene

c)

Karyotype

d)

Autosomic location

107.

How many chromosomes are Autosomes?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

44

d)

2

108.

What are the 4 RNA nitrogen bases?

a)

adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine

b)

adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine

c)

adenine, uracil, cytoplasm, and guanine

d)

adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine

109.

What is the process that makes a complementary mRNA strand from a DNA strand?

a)

protein synthesis

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

DNA Polymerase

110.
Where does transcription take place?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
ribosome
111.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
112.

Using this DNA sequence AAA TTT, what is the complementary RNA sequence will be

a)

UUU AAA

b)

AAA UUU

113.

Using this DNA sequence ATA CGA GGA TTT, what is the complementary RNA sequence will be

a)

UAU GCU CCU AAA

b)

UAU GCU CCU TTT

c)

TAT GCT CCT AAA

d)

TAT GCT CCT TTT

114.
What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?
a)
phosphate
b)
nitrogenous base
c)
deoxyribose
d)
sugar
115.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
116.

The first step of protein synthesis is.....

a)

replication

b)

mitosis

c)

translation

d)

transcription

117.

Where does transcription take place in EUKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

118.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
119.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
120.
Amino acids are the building blocks of... 
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Atoms
d)
Proteins
121.

Which RNA carries the message from the DNA molecule out of the nucleus?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

122.

Where does transcription take place in PROKARYOTIC cells?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

123.

How does RNA polymerase know where to start copying down instructions in the DNA molecule?

a)

It looks for Promoters in the code

b)

It looks for Stop Codons

c)

It doesn't matter where it starts, it will find it.

d)

mRNA signals to the RNA polymerase where to start by telekinesis

124.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

125.
Which of the following best describes how DNA and RNA are similar?
a)
they both contain A and T
b)
They both have a double helix
c)
They are both composed of 5 different nucleotides
d)
they both have C and G
126.
The central dogma of biology states that information flows in one direction from 
a)
nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes to proteins to DNA
c)
genes to nuclei to ribosomes
d)
DNA to RNA to proteins
127.

What is the function of DNA?

a)

Store genetic information

b)

Store energy

c)

Form enzymes

d)

Form the cell membrane

128.

Each section of DNA that codes for a protein is called a...

a)

Chromosome

b)

RNA

c)

Gene

d)

Enzyme

129.

MET is know as the __________ codon.

a)

stop

b)

main

c)

start

d)

most common

130.

Find the amino acid that this segment of RNA codes for: UUG

a)

Glycine

b)

Asparagine

c)

Lysine

d)

Leucine

131.

DNA is confined to the nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

What enzyme does transcription use?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

ligase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

helicase

133.

Which RNA forms part of the ribosomes?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

134.

Which of the following describes the direction the template strand is read?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5'

c)

N terminus to C terminus

d)

C terminus to N terminus

135.

Which of the following describes the process of alternative RNA splicing?

a)

Different mRNA molecules are made from different sections of DNA

b)

Different mRNA molecules are made from cutting out different introns from same pre-mRNA

c)

Different mRNA molecules are made from cutting out different exons from same pre-mRNA

d)

Different mRNA molecules are absorbed from the mitochondria for translation

136.

Which of the following is the function of the poly-A tail?

a)

To protect mRNA from hydrolytic enzymes

b)

To allow for exit from nucleus

c)

To signal for termination of translation

d)

To decrease the length of mRNA molecules

137.

Which of the following describes the difference between prokaryotic mRNA and eukaryotic mRNA?

a)

Prokaryotes have longer mRNA strands due to presence of introns

b)

Eukaryotes have longer mRNA strands due to the presence of introns

c)

Prokaryotes modify the mRNA due to the presence of a nuclear envelope

d)

Eukaryotes modify the mRNA due to the absence of a nuclear envelope

138.

Which of the following describes the correct mRNA sequence from the template strand of 5' - CGGTTA - 3'?

a)

5' - GCCAAT - 3'

b)

5' - GCCAAU - 3'

c)

5' - UAACCG - 3'

d)

5' - TAACCG - 3'

139.

The anti-codon of tRNA

a)

contains a sequence the same as DNA

b)

contains a sequence complementary to the mRNA codon

c)

contains the base thymine

d)

does not exist

140.

What is the correct sequence for protein synthesis?

a)

rRNA --> DNA --> Protein---->mRNA

b)

Protein --> rRNA --> DNA---->tRNA

c)

DNA ----> mRNA ---->tRNA----> Protein

d)

DNA --> Protein --> tRNA-->mRNA

141.
The process of transferring the codons to the amino acids ends with what codon?
a)
Stop
b)
Terminal
c)
End
d)
Cancel 
142.

What is done with the portion of DNA that does NOT code for proteins?

a)

Introns are spliced out.

b)

They are kept in the coding sequence.

c)

Exons are spliced out.

d)

Nothing happens.

143.

Scientists can use a single codon chart to translate the information in a strand of mRNA from any species because –

a)

scientists only study a few related species

b)

the codon chart can adjust to any species

c)

every species uses the same genetic code

d)

all species makes the exact same proteins

144.

anticodons are used to

a)

Read DNA

b)

connect tRNA to mRNA

c)

destroy codons

d)

create codons

145.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

146.

How can a mutation in the DNA sequence result in NO change to the protein that is made?

a)

There are multiple codons that can code for the same amino acid and result in the same protein

b)

There is always a change in the protein when a mutation occurs

c)

Only the mRNA is used in protein synthesis so a mutation in the DNA would have no effect on the protein

147.

What is the name of the enzyme that matches a tRNA and an amino acid?

a)

Aminoacyl-mRNA synthetase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

d)

RNA polymerase

148.

Which site does the tRNA exit the ribosome?

a)

P

b)

E

c)

A

d)

R

149.

Where does the tRNA bind to in a ribosome?

a)

E site

b)

P site

c)

The 5’ cap

d)

A site

150.

Which site does the peptide chain bind to in a ribosome?

a)

P

b)

A

c)

E

d)

R

151.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
152.

What are the three types of gene mutation?

a)

Insertion, Deletion, Subsitution

b)

Aberration, Deletion, Substitution

c)

Inversion, Duplication, Insertion

d)

Insertion, Duplication, Substitution

153.

In this type of point mutation, one extra base pair is inserted into a sequence of DNA

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

translocation

154.

Mutations that change the amino acid specified by the codon, affecting the amino acid sequence, are called:

a)

nonsense mutations

b)

missense mutations

c)

silent mutations

d)

point mutations

155.

Which mutation below would have the worst effect on the function of the protein? 

a)

an insertion or deletion near the end of a gene

b)

an insertion or deletion at the beginning of the gene

c)

an insertion at the middle of the gene

d)

a base substitution in the middle of the gene

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