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AP: lesson 3 quiz, 53 min

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Endocrine glands ______.

a)

Secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs

b)

Release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft

c)

Secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream

d)

Include sebaceous glands and sweat glands

2.

Which of the following hormones is an anterior pituitary hormone?

a)

ADH

b)

Oxytocin

c)

TSH

d)

Cortisol

3.

The secretion of thyroid hormones is controlled by ______.

a)

TSH from the hypothalamus

b)

TSH from the anterior pituitary

c)

Thyroxine from the anterior pituitary

d)

Thyroglobulin from the thyroid’s parafollicular cells

4.

Which of the following can result from hyperparathyroidism?

a)

Increased bone density

b)

Fractures

5.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland?

a)

Temporary elevation of blood sugar

b)

Prolonging of the effect of the sympathetic nervous system

c)

Suppression or limiting of inflammation

d)

Building muscle mass

6.

What are the hormone functions? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Regulate metabolism

b)

Growth and development

c)

Support

d)

Maintain homeostasis

7.

Which statement about insulin and glucagon effects on blood glucose is correct?

a)

Insulin decreases blood glucose and glucagon increases blood glucose

b)

Insulin increases blood glucose and glucagon decreases blood glucose

c)

Both insulin and glucagon decrease blood glucose

d)

Both insulin and glucagon increase blood glucose

8.

Which statement correctly matches ADH abnormalities to urine output?

a)

ADH deficiency causes polyuria; ADH excess causes oliguria

b)

ADH deficiency causes oliguria; ADH excess causes polyuria

c)

Both ADH deficiency and excess cause polyuria

d)

Both ADH deficiency and excess cause oliguria

9.

Which gland is responsible for the fight-or-flight response?

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Parathyroid gland

c)

Pituitary

d)

Thyroid

10.

Which of these is an example of negative feedback?

a)

Insulin production stops when blood glucose level is back to normal

b)

Contractions increase in intensity

c)

Platelet aggregation increases

d)

Lactation is stimulated by breastfeeding

11.

Which of the following is a direct measurement of the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?

a)

Differential cell count

b)

Specific gravity

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Hematocrit

12.

Type AB blood has which erythrocyte surface antigens?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

A and B

d)

O

13.

A fetus with Type A- blood is at risk for erythroblastosis fetalis from a mother with Type A+. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Type O blood has antibodies to which of the following?

a)

anti-A

b)

anti-B

c)

anti-A and anti-B

d)

anti-O

15.

The percentage of blood made up of red blood cells is called the:

a)

buffy coat

b)

differential count

c)

hematocrit

d)

complete blood count

16.

Hematopoiesis is the production of:

a)

plasma proteins

b)

red blood cells only

c)

white blood cells only

d)

red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets

17.

The main component of erythrocytes is:

a)

fibrinogen

b)

hemoglobin

c)

globulin

d)

lipoprotein

18.

Red blood cells live for:

a)

10 days

b)

60 days

c)

120 days

d)

several years

19.

Identify the formed element that functions in initiating the process of blood clotting.

a)

basophils

b)

erythrocytes

c)

neutrophils

d)

platelets

20.

Hemorrhagic bleeding disorders may result from a deficiency of vitamin:

a)

B12

b)

D

c)

E

d)

K

21.

Plasma minus fibrinogen and prothrombin is called:

a)

lymph

b)

serum

c)

tissue fluid

d)

interstitial fluid

22.

What is a low platelet count called?

a)

coagulation

b)

hemorrhage

c)

thrombocytopenia

d)

hemostasis

23.

Which valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?

a)

Mitral (bicuspid)

b)

Tricuspid

c)

Pulmonary

d)

Aortic

24.

Which chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation?

a)

Left atrium

b)

Left ventricle

c)

Right atrium

d)

Right ventricle

25.

Which of the following best describes veins?

a)

Thick walled, small lumens, low pressure, lack valves

b)

Thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, have valves

c)

Thin walled, small lumens, high pressure, have valves

d)

Thick walled, large lumens, high pressure, lack valves

26.

In a blood pressure measurement of 110/70, the number 70 is the ______.

a)

Systolic

b)

Diastolic

c)

Mean arterial pressure

d)

Pulse pressure

27.

Which heart chamber would you expect to have the thickest myocardial wall?

a)

The right ventricle

b)

The left ventricle

c)

The right atrium

d)

The left atrium

28.

Immediately after leaving the right ventricle, blood enters which structure of the circulatory system?

a)

The pulmonary arteries

b)

The right atrium

c)

The left ventricle

d)

The pulmonary veins

29.

What is the function of heart valves?

a)

Keep blood moving unidirectionally

b)

Slow down blood flow

c)

Control the amount of pumped blood

d)

Mix blood thoroughly

30.

After passing through the bicuspid valve, blood enters which structure?

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Left atrium

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricle

31.

When tissue is inflamed, the tissue is warm. Why?

a)

Blood clotting creates heat

b)

White blood cells are warm

c)

The increased blood flow makes it warm

d)

Muscle contractions cause heat to be released

32.

The body's first line of defense against the invasion of disease-causing microorganisms is:

a)

Phagocytes

b)

Natural killer cells

c)

Inflammatory response

d)

Fever

e)

Skin and mucus membranes

33.

The structure of the walls of large lymphatic vessels is most similar to the structure of:

a)

Arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

Sinuses

d)

Veins

34.

What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils?

a)

Appendectomy

b)

Lymph node resection

c)

Adenoidectomy

d)

Tonsillectomy

35.

The thymus is located within the ______.

a)

Mediastinum

b)

Periosteum

c)

Episternum

d)

Endosteum