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WorksheetsInstrument Procedures Worksheet – Extraction
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 25mins
Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered in the design of an Instrument Departure Procedure?
Terrain.
The transition altitude.
Airspace restrictions.
ATC requirements.
For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is:
Depends on aircraft category.
591 ft.
394 ft.
200 ft.
A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centerline is:
40° or less.
20° or less.
30° or less.
10° or less.
What is a STAR?
Standard arrival.
Special terminal arrival.
Standard instrument arrival.
Supplementary terminal arrival.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure (above 3,000 ft) and approach instrument procedures, 20° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure (above 1,000 ft), approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).
The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.
25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures.
The published holding procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232° (no wind). Select the appropriate entry procedure:
Offset.
Parallel.
Either offset or parallel.
Direct.
The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are:
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path only, plus a margin for height loss on any go around.
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path including an allowance for aircraft speed plus a margin.
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors.
The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for height loss on any go around.
In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
To the left.
In a direction depending on the entry.
In a direction depending on the wind direction.
To the right.
The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than:
2,500 ft.
1,500 ft.
1,000 ft.
3,000 ft.
When determining the OCA/OCH for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to:
Aerodrome reference point.
MSL.
Highest obstacle within 25 NM of aerodrome.
Threshold.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
250 ft.
150 ft.
100 ft.
200 ft.
Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be:
QNE.
QFE.
1,013.2 hPa.
QNH.
Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
3.3%.
0.8%.
5%.
2.5%.
The maximum angle of bank to be used in a holding pattern is:
25°.
35°.
30°.
15°.
When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until:
Required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe landing.
The pilot has visual reference and the required obstacles clearance can be maintained.
You're clear of clouds.
Visual reference is established and can be maintained, the landing threshold is in sight, the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be executed.
Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? 1) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20° from the runway alignment. 2) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15° from the runway alignment. 3) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10° from the runway alignment. 4) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5° from the runway alignment.
1, 2, 3.
1.
1, 2, 3, 4.
1, 2.
Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end?
Where 50 m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
At 394 ft AGL.
Where the turn towards the IAF is made.
At the point where the climb is established.
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
200 ft.
The OCH.
400 ft.
350 ft.
Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach. The result is then called:
DH.
MDA.
DA.
MDH.
As a standard rule, while establishing the instrument departure procedures, the procedure assumes that the aeroplane has a climb gradient of:
2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative.
5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two, three and four engines, taking in account one engine inoperative.
2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines.
3.3% with all engines operating.
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
Pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 ft/min, which is obligatory.
Follow approximately 50 ft above the nominal glide path.
Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
Leave the intermediate approach altitude step by step until reaching the MAPt.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Contact approach.
Visual manoeuvring (circling).
Aerodrome traffic pattern.
Visual approach.
A radial is:
A magnetic bearing to a VOR station.
A magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station.
A QDM.
A magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR.
Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1?
The designer of the procedure (normally the State).
ATC will provide radar vector for obstacle clearance.
The operator of the aircraft.
The pilot in co-operation with ATC.
For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)?
2.5%.
3.3%.
3.5%.
5%.
The transition altitude for an aerodrome is 5000 ft, the QNH is 943 hPa (1 hPa = 30 ft). What is the transition level (assuming the max depth of the transition layer is 500 ft)?
FL75.
FL45.
FL70.
7000 ft.
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument approach procedure is predicated:
15 NM (28 km).
20 NM (37 km).
25 NM (46 km).
30 NM (55km)
During a non-precision approach, the maximum interception angle to the initial segment track is:
120°
100°
90°
45°
The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
ATC availability and requirements.
availability of navigation aids.
the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
airspace restrictions applicable and in force.
A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases:
Initial, intermediate and final.
Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
Arrival, intermediate and final.
Initial and final.
One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is:
the landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.
the required visual references have been established and can be maintained.
the horizontal visibility is at least 5 NM and the ceiling is 1.500 ft or higher.
the ceiling is 1.500 ft or higher.
What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approach?
A procedure turn.
A base leg turn.
A racetrack.
A reverse procedure turn.
On an instrument approach - when may the pilot descend below MSA? 1) When the terrain below the aircraft and the destination airfield is in sight and is likely to remain so. 2) When under radar control. 3) When visual with the underlying terrain but not the airfield. 4) When commencing a published approach procedure.
1, 2, 4
2, 3
1, 4
1, 2, 3, 4
You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What is the required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound leg?
20°
30°
60°
45°
A turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than:
20°
10°
25°
15°
For a turning departure turns may be specified at:
a fix.
an altitude or height.
a facility.
all of the above.
For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that:
at least 90 m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30° can be specified.
at least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30° can be specified.
at least 90 m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15° can be specified.
at least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15° can be specified.
The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:
1,3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified Landing Mass.
1,3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified Landing Mass.
1,3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified Landing Mass.
1,3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified Landing Mass.
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?
When it seems possible to land.
When the aircraft has the control tower in sight.
When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight.
When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet.
A circling approach is:
a visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.
a visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.
a visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
a visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.
You are flying towards a VOR on the 230° radial and have been told to hold on the 043° radial at FL60. What type of entry to the holding pattern is required?
Direct.
Offset.
Parallel.
Either parallel or offset.
In a standard holding pattern, all turns should be made:
to the right at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the highest bank.
to the left at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
to the left at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the highest bank.
to the right at a bank angle of 25° or at a rate of 3° per second, whichever requires the lesser bank.
EAT is the time that an aircraft:
is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach.
is expected to cross the FAF of FAP.
is expected to land.
is expected to join the holding pattern.
What is the minimum visibility for a circling approach for a Category B aircraft (using ICAO legislation)?
1900 m
1600 m
3500 m
2800 m
For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
200 ft.
the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH).
400 ft.
350 ft.
A racetrack is:
a right hand circuit pattern.
a procedure used for descent; resembling a holding pattern (including the entry).
traffic landing and taking-off again within 1 hour and returning to the same airport of the original departure.
taking off and landing traffic on the same runway.
An aircraft is inbound to the hold on a track of 190° (M). The inbound hold track is 010° (M). The correct entry type would be:
parallel or offset.
reciprocal or direct.
offset or direct.
parallel or direct.
Following an AIRPROX incident, an Air Traffic Incident Report (ATIR) should be made:
within 7 days.
immediately after landing.
within 24 hours.
to the air traffic service unit concerned.
Runway visual range is reported when it falls below:
1.500 m
1.200 m
800 m
m
The additional letter Z in the designator of an ATS route (e.g. A126Z) has the following meaning:
RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM.
RNP 1 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 22,5 NM.
RNP 1 route at and above FL200. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 22,5 NM.
RNP 5 route at and below FL190. All turns on the route between 30° and 90° shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of 15 NM.
