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Chapter 3

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The staff person responsible for ensuring that the business office runs smoothly is, in the final analysis, ____.

a)

Corporate finance director

b)

The administrator

c)

Business office staff

d)

Facility treasurer

2.

In general, the ownership patterns for U.S. nursing facilities in 2006 ____.

a)

Were unstable

b)

Varied widely from state to state

c)

Were somewhat stable

d)

Were unchanged from 89 years earlier

3.

Generating reports on the financial standing of the nursing facility is generally assigned to ____.

a)

The accountant

b)

The director of finance

c)

The administrative assistant

d)

The chief financial officer (CFO)

4.

Responsibility and blame for overspending in the department of nursing and in food services are typically assigned by the owners to the ____.

a)

Director of nursing and director of food services

b)

Director of nursing and the dietitian

c)

Chief financial officer

d)

Administrator

5.

A set of records that lists each monetary transaction of the facility is normally referred to as ____.

a)

The books

b)

Financial statements

c)

Monetary records

d)

Income and revenue statement

6.

The primary purpose of the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles is to ____.

a)

Guarantee honesty among providers

b)

Maximize comparability of financial statements of different organizations

c)

Create a single view among financial managers

d)

Protect the owners

7.

An owner who takes unrecorded cash from the facility’s daily cash intake to purchase a tablet for his daughter to use at college has violated the ____ concept.

a)

Consistency

b)

Entity

c)

Time period

d)

Objective evidence

8.

Instructing the financial manager to record assets at current market value and to not record patient bills expected to become uncollectible violates the ____ concept.

a)

Entity

b)

Good faith

c)

Time period

d)

Consistency

9.

Telling the accountant not to record overtime paid from the cash box to employees working weekends is violating the ____ concept.

a)

Ongoing concern

b)

Entity

c)

Full disclosure

d)

Time period

10.

Directing the accountant to move from a January 1 date to a June 30 fiscal year date in order to minimize the negative image possibly created by an anticipated loss violates the ____ concept.

a)

Ongoing concern

b)

Time period

c)

Conservation

d)

Entity

11.

Allowing the bookkeeper to destroy vouchers showing payments made for meals to employees once these are recorded may violate the ____ concept.

a)

Objective evidence

b)

Consistency

c)

Time period

d)

Entity

12.

Pieces of paper indicating money owed to or by the facility, bank statements, and similar pieces of paper or their electronic equivalents are known as ____.

a)

Paper trail

b)

Source documents

c)

Bill of lading

d)

Records

13.

An administrator who instructs the accountant to begin reporting facility finances by recording all expenditures and all receipts as they actually occur has decided to use the ____ system of accounting.

a)

Cash

b)

Implied

c)

No-fault

d)

Accrual

14.

It is difficult to recognize items such as depreciation and prepaid insurance in the ____ system of accounting.

a)

Accrual

b)

Simplified

c)

Cash

d)

Income and expense

15.

An administrator directing the accountant to record revenues when they are earned and expenses when they are incurred regardless of the time the cash transaction takes place has decided to use the ____ approach to accounting.

a)

Accrual

b)

Cash

c)

Simplified

d)

Advanced

16.

Allowing the facility to accurately measure revenues earned after expenses have been paid or losses incurred by matching revenues and expenses for each time period is the advantage of the ____ system of accounting.

a)

Accrual

b)

Cash

c)

Income and loss

d)

Advanced electronic

17.

A summary of the nursing home’s financial well-being within a time period is normally referred to as ____.

a)

The financial statements

b)

Profit and loss

c)

Notes to changes in financial condition

d)

Statements of change

18.

If the administrator asked the bookkeeper for a list containing every account in the facility, the bookkeeper would hand the administrator the ____.

a)

Books

b)

Financial report

c)

Chart of accounts

d)

General journal

19.

Things owned by the facility are normally referred to as ____.

a)

Debentures

b)

Assets

c)

Possessions

d)

Tangibles

20.

Things owed by the facility, its obligations, are normally referred to as ____.

a)

Capital

b)

Unpaid bills

c)

Invoices

d)

Liabilities

21.

Money invested in the facility, also known as the facility’s net worth, is normally referred to as ____.

a)

Stock

b)

Collateral

c)

Capital

d)

Income stream

22.

If the administrator asks the accountant for the journals, the administrator wants to look at ____.

a)

The original entries

b)

The assets

c)

The debits

d)

Current summaries of income and outgo

23.

The new accountant informs the administrator that to simplify things, he has incorporated all purchases that will be paid for the next few years into the accounts payable journal. The administrator should _____.

a)

Compliment the accountant

b)

Ask for last year's books to be conformed to the new system

c)

Begin a search for a new accountant

d)

Ask that these purchases be transferred to the general journal

24.

Making a debit and a credit entry for each transaction is known as the _____ system of accounting.

a)

Single/double

b)

Systematic

c)

Alternate

d)

Double-entry

25.

Under double-entry bookkeeping, when a bill is sent to a client for 3,000forthepastmonthscare,thebookkeeperwouldnormallyrecord3,000 for the past month's care, the bookkeeper would normally record 3,000 in the debit column as an increase in assets and _____.

a)

Record $3,000 on the credit side as an increase in revenue

b)

Record $3,000 as received

c)

Wait for the payment before entering further data

d)

Enter an estimate of when the bill will be paid

26.

Using accrual accounting, purchase of a 6‑month supply of provisions would be entered into the _____.

a)

Billings journal

b)

Cash receipts journal

c)

General journal

d)

Credit side of the ledger

27.

Under accrual accounting, when the accountant shows the amount of medical supplies used during a month in the cash disbursements journal and the general journal, the bookkeeper has made _____.

a)

A mistake

b)

An adjusting entry

c)

An inappropriate entry

d)

A good accounting judgment

28.

When errors are discovered in other journals, they can be corrected by entries into the _____.

a)

Support records

b)

Ledger

c)

Cash receipts journal

d)

General journal

29.

When the administrator asks the accountant for a summary of all debits and credits contained in the journals for the time period, the accountant should hand the _____ to the administrator.

a)

General journal

b)

General ledger

c)

Financial statements

d)

Debits and credits listing

30.

At the end of a time period, when debits do not match credits exactly, the accountant can first assume that an error has been made in _____.

a)

Recording transactions

b)

Entering debits

c)

Entering credits

d)

Source documents

31.

The Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) do not normally require financial statements prepared for general distribution to include _____.

a)

Income statement, or profit/loss statement

b)

Balance sheet, or statement of financial position

c)

Statement of changes in financial position

d)

Chart of accounts

32.

The income statement shows whether _____ were sufficient to cover expenses.

a)

Charges

b)

Revenues

c)

Debts

d)

Retained earnings

33.

The accountant has listed the new building annex, the new central air conditioning system, and the supplies for the next 6 months as capital expenses. The administrator should _____.

a)

Be pleased with the decisions

b)

Forward the report to corporate headquarters

c)

Rewrite the report

d)

Look for a new accountant

34.

At the end of a time period, total expenses are subtracted from total revenues to compute the _____.

a)

Net income, or profit or loss

b)

Approximate income

c)

Adjusted income margin

d)

Operating income

35.

The accountant, upon successfully bringing the expense and revenue accounts to zero, has successfully _____.

a)

Calculated profit

b)

Calculated losses

c)

Closed the books

d)

Completed the financial statements

36.

When the administrator asks the chief financial officer (CFO) for a statement showing the ending balance of the revenue and expense accounts, the CFO should hand the _____ to the administrator.

a)

Income statement

b)

Balance sheet

c)

General ledger

d)

General journal

37.

A financial statement in which the assets must equal the liability and capital accounts is known as the _____.

a)

Ending statement

b)

Final statement

c)

Balance sheet

d)

Financial statement

38.

Any possession of the facility that will be or could be turned into cash within 12 months is a _____.

a)

Noncurrent asset

b)

Current asset

c)

Benefit

d)

Positive asset

39.

Because capital assets will not be liquidated any time soon, their current market value is not directly relevant relates to the ongoing concern concept and is known as _____.

a)

Historic cost

b)

Current cost

c)

Original cost

d)

Projected value

40.

Depreciation is an expense associated with the use of _____.

a)

A purchase

b)

An asset

c)

Land

d)

A specified purchase

41.

Bills from suppliers of foodstuffs or office supplies or janitorial services contractors are normally classified as among the _____.

a)

Current liabilities

b)

Accounts due

c)

Invoices

d)

Bills of lading

42.

When an administrator notes that there are $600,000 in notes payable on the financial reports, the administrator knows these must be paid within _____.

a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

1 month

d)

90 days

43.

Funds that have been put into the facility by owners or others, and retained earnings that have been put back into the facility are usually included when calculating the _____.

a)

Net worth

b)

Bottom line

c)

Final value

d)

Financial liabilities

44.

Except for for‑profit facilities paying taxes and the not‑for‑profit facility not paying income taxes, there are _____ in accounting and financial processes.

a)

Only a few significant differences

b)

No real differences

c)

No real similarities

d)

Increasingly fewer similarities

45.

Not having to pay taxes gives not‑for‑profit facilities a slight _____.

a)

Disadvantage

b)

A competitive edge

c)

Increase in more incentives

d)

A large investment opportunities

46.

The certified public accountant's end‑of‑year report for a 15‑year‑old 120‑bed for‑profit facility with no debt shows an excess of income over expenses of $95,000. The owners would likely be _____.

a)

Very pleased with facility performance

b)

Very displeased with facility performance

c)

Generally satisfied

d)

Neutral

47.

When asked whether funds are readily available for a 75,000purchaseandtheaccountantrespondsthatthenetworthiswellover75,000 purchase and the accountant responds that the net worth is well over 800,000 and to go ahead with the purchase, the administrator should _____. (p. 231)

a)

Ask for a statement of working capital

b)

Make the purchase

c)

Seek a vertical analysis

d)

Amortize the purchase

48.

When the amount of current assets remaining after current liabilities have been subtracted is calculated, the administrator has an idea of the _____ available to be spent. (p. 231)

a)

Capital

b)

Net worth

c)

Working capital

d)

Assets

49.

When the CFO identifies trends in measures of financial performance of the facility by comparing the same relationships for several time periods he is doing _____. (p. 232)

a)

Comparison analyses

b)

Time period analyses

c)

Ratio analyses

d)

Trade-off comparisons

50.

A facility has current assets of 403,898andcurrentliabilitiesof403,898 and current liabilities of 367,000. Its current ratio is _____. (p. 232)

a)

9

b)

3

c)

1.1

d)

2.1

51.

A 1-year-old, 120-bed for-profit facility with a 2,500,000mortgageat7.42,500,000 mortgage at 7.4% reports a net operating margin before depreciation of 25,000. In today’s financial market, the owners would likely be _____. (p. 234)

a)

Very pleased

b)

Very displeased

c)

Seeking to sell the facility as a result

d)

Seeking to refinance as a result

52.

Ratios, to be truly useful, should be _____. (p. 232)

a)

Used to measure over time

b)

Compared with industry averages over time

c)

In simple mathematical terms

d)

Compared to expected future ratios

53.

The new administrator in a private pay for-profit facility is told by the accountant that the accounts receivable are 105,800andthenetoperatingrevenuesare105,800 and the net operating revenues are 334,000. On calculating the average collection period ratio, which turns out to be _____ days, the administrator should be _____. (p. 234)

a)

29/pleased

b)

20/displeased

c)

115/pleased

d)

115/upset

54.

A 12-year-old facility, largely out of debt, has 334,693inoperatingrevenuesand334,693 in operating revenues and 339,078 in operating expenses, yielding a net operating margin ratio of _____. The owners of this facility would likely feel this to be _____. (p. 234)

a)

0.013/unacceptable

b)

0.013/acceptable

c)

8.013/unacceptable

d)

8.013/acceptable

55.

A facility with long-term debt of 4,000,000andatotalequityof4,000,000 and a total equity of 3,000,000 has a debt-to-equity ratio of _____, which is _____ the industry average. (p. 234)

a)

1.33/considerably above

b)

1.33/considerably below

c)

2.33/far above

d)

2.33/well below

56.

Trends and patterns in the operation of a nursing facility can best be obtained by doing _____. (p. 236)

a)

Ratio analyses

b)

Vertical analyses

c)

Ratio and vertical analyses over time

d)

Ratio and vertical analyses

57.

To safeguard the finances of a facility, procedures should be arranged to establish a system of _____ so that employees review each other’s financial activities. (p. 238)

a)

Checks

b)

Dual bookkeeping

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Antitheft devices

58.

A useful form that summarizes the facility’s occupancy, listing daily admissions, discharges, and transfers is known as the _____. (p. 239)

a)

Daily census form

b)

Headcount

c)

Weekly census report

d)

Occupancy ratio

59.

At the end of each year for facilities participating in Medicare, a Medicare Cost Reconciliation settlement occurs, in which _____. (p. 245)

a)

The facility receives additional money

b)

The facility pays out additional money

c)

The facility receives or pays back money

d)

A flat rate per patient per month is paid the facility

60.

The frozen food contractor arrives, places the order in the freezer, checks off the receiving slip, hands it to the appropriate kitchen employee who thanks the contractor and hands the receiving slip and purchase order copy to the director of food services. The administrator, on observing this, should _____. (p. 246)

a)

Be pleased with the smoothness of the working relationship

b)

Compliment the contractor for an efficient delivery

c)

Be upset

d)

Continue to enjoy his or her cup of coffee

61.

Perhaps the only way to maintain an accurate count of supplies consumed and those remaining is to use _____. (p. 250)

a)

A computer program

b)

A hand-counted inventory system

c)

A receipt inventory system

d)

A perpetual inventory system

62.

The use of LIFO (last in/first out) to price inventory during a period of inflation will have the effect of making the value of the goods remaining in inventory _____. (p. 251)

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

About the same

d)

At market value

63.

The largest directly controllable cost for the average administrator is _____. (p. 252)

a)

Inventory/supplies

b)

Labor

c)

Long-term debt financing costs

d)

Short-term debt financing costs

64.

Payroll deductions are subtracted from _____ to arrive at the employee’s _____ pay. (p. 252)

a)

Net/gross

b)

Total/net

c)

Gross/net

d)

Overall/take home

65.

Assets that can be capitalized or depreciated differ from the other assets of a facility in that they are used in operations for more than _____ and will not be converted into _____ within the year. (p. 256)

a)

One time period/cash

b)

Two time periods/debt

c)

A balance sheet period/securities

d)

Three years/cash

66.

On discovering that the new accountant had set the actual purchase price paid (e.g., no tax, delivery, or similar costs) for the assets to be depreciated, the facility administrator would normally feel the accountant was _____. (p. 256)

a)

Sharp and on the ball

b)

Not serving the facility well

c)

Overestimating historical costs

d)

Doing okay, all things considered

67.

One practical reason for using straight line depreciation is that _____. (p. 257)

a)

It brings the fastest write-off

b)

It is the only fully acceptable method

c)

Most third-party payers require it

d)

It has the approval of the Internal Revenue Service (IRS)

68.

Congress’ purpose for passing accelerated depreciation was to _____ of new facilities. (p. 257)

a)

Discourage overbuilding

b)

Encourage more building

c)

Regulate construction

d)

Deregulate construction

69.

As a practical matter, most owners do not fund depreciation and treat it as _____. (p. 258)

a)

Money available to the facility to spend

b)

Money to be placed in reserve

c)

A fiction

d)

A useless set of required calculations

70.

Using several differing depreciation schedules for a single piece of equipment is _____ as an accounting behavior. (p. 259)

a)

Unacceptable

b)

Quite acceptable

c)

Risky

d)

Illegal

71.

Land _____ is a depreciable asset. (p. 229)

a)

Never

b)

Sometimes

c)

For for-profit facilities

d)

For nonprofit facilities

72.

Medical supplies, food supplies, and postage for billing residents are ____ costs.

a)

Fixed

b)

Variable

c)

Semi-variable

d)

Break-even

73.

The salary of the director of nursing and the administrator are examples of ____ costs.

a)

Fixed

b)

Variable

c)

Semi-variable

d)

Proportionate

74.

In a facility having high fixed costs the pressure to keep beds filled is ____ in facilities with low fixed costs.

a)

About the same as

b)

Stronger than

c)

Weaker than

d)

More moderate than

75.

For in-facility services such as physical therapy it is important to calculate the ____ cost in order to better analyze the cost-effectiveness of such services.

a)

Total

b)

Break-even

c)

Minimum

d)

Maximum

76.

Nursing and physical therapy are normally thought of as ____ centers.

a)

Cost

b)

Loss

c)

Revenue

d)

Break-even

77.

A financial analysis that yields to the administrator a representative picture of the entire expense of providing a service (for example, offering adult day care services) is known as ____.

a)

Value analysis

b)

Revenue analysis

c)

Cost finding

d)

Center analysis

78.

Only when appropriate ____ has been achieved can an accurate job of ____ be accomplished.

a)

Information/gathering cost setting

b)

Cost finding/rate setting

c)

Expense reporting/estimating income

d)

Tax analysis/cost setting

79.

In order to develop a reasonable estimate of income and expenses for a coming time period it is important to do both a(an) ____ budget and a ____ budget.

a)

Capital/cash

b)

Expense/revenue

c)

Expense/balanced

d)

Cash/capital

80.

Because income and expenses vary from time period to time period, it is desirable to project a ____ budget.

a)

Cash

b)

Balanced

c)

Forecasted

d)

Capital

81.

Plans for expenditures for buildings, major equipment, and the like are normally part of the ____ budget.

a)

Cash

b)

Revenue

c)

Expense

d)

Capital

82.

A method of measuring the potential profitability of an investment, calculated by dividing the net income by the investment, is the ____.

a)

Activity-based costing

b)

ARR (accounting rate of return)

c)

Profit ratio

d)

Profit assurance calculation

83.

A revision of an accounting forecast or assumption about the facility’s expected or experienced performance is a(an) ____.

a)

Change in accounting estimate

b)

Change in performance

c)

Review

d)

Accountant’s revision

84.

The portion of a brand in the form of a symbol, design, or distinctive coloring or lettering, also called a logo, is an organization’s ____.

a)

Intangible asset

b)

Sign

c)

Brand mark

d)

Original art

85.

The administrator decides to offer newer forms of physical therapy that reduce use of currently used physical therapy methods. The administrator has ____ the current methods.

a)

Reduced the competitive advantage of

b)

Cannibalized

c)

Reduced

d)

Usurped

86.

A market that is so competitive that all its participants have virtually no control over price is known as ____.

a)

Niche marketing

b)

No holds barred competition

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Imperfect markets

87.

The administrator asks the business manager to divide the net income after any taxes by the noncurrent liabilities plus owners’ equity. The administrator wants the ____.

a)

Best income estimate

b)

Return on invested capital estimate

c)

Probability estimate

d)

Best productivity achievable

88.

A method of determining the optimum amount of materials that needs to be ordered on a regular basis is known as the ____.

a)

Best ordering method

b)

Ordering queue

c)

Economic order quantity

d)

Inventory control procedure

89.

When governments use their powers to keep the price either above or below the equilibrium point it is known as ____.

a)

Market interference

b)

Government control

c)

Price controls

d)

Government rule

90.

Short-term securities (2 days to 270 days) issued by corporations, banks, and other borrowing institutions to raise short-term working capital is known as ____.

a)

Securities fraud

b)

Commercial paper

c)

Short-term bonds

d)

Notes payable

91.

The administrator asks the bank for an instrument stating that the bank that has granted the holder the amount of credit equal to the face amount wants a ____.

a)

Short-term loan

b)

Long-term loan

c)

Letter of credit

d)

Letter of assurance

92.

The facility has issued a debt obligation to pay a specific amount on a stated date. The facility has issued ____.

a)

Letters of credit

b)

Notes

c)

Bonds

d)

Financial instruments

93.

When the financial manager classifies an expense as an asset because it benefits the facility for more than 1 year, the financial manager has ____ that expense.

a)

Adjusted

b)

Reduced

c)

Spread

d)

Capitalized

94.

The administrator wishes to lease a building and acquire substantial property rights in the process. The administrator seeks ____.

a)

A leasehold

b)

A long-term lease

c)

A capital lease

d)

Refinancing

95.

The administrator has borrowed cash for an agreed upon purpose between a lender and borrower. The administrator now has a ____.

a)

Legal obligation

b)

Bond

c)

Note

d)

Capital asset

96.

The chain issues stocks and bonds that can be converted into capital stock at some future date. It has issued ____.

a)

Convertible bonds

b)

Convertible securities

c)

Quasi-bonds

d)

Quasi-bonds and quasi-stocks

97.

The chain “buys back” a portion of its outstanding stock by giving one new share in place of each four previously held shares. The chain has accomplished a(an) ____.

a)

Reverse split

b)

Buy-back

c)

Buy-down

d)

Illegal move

98.

The administrator seeks to be licensed without having to meet all the conditions new entrants would have to meet. The administrator seeks to be ____.

a)

Grandfathered

b)

Granted concessions

c)

Avoiding current requirements

d)

Advancing him- or herself

99.

The administrator holds a number of assets, such as bonds or easily sold stock, as investments. The administrator has substantial ____.

a)

Sources of income

b)

Riches

c)

Good investments

d)

Cash equivalents

100.

The instrument that creates a corporation under the laws of a state is known as the ____.

a)

Registration

b)

Certificate

c)

Statement of incorporation

d)

Articles of incorporation

101.

The three owners hold all the shares in the facility. They have a ____.

a)

Cash cow

b)

Profitable operation

c)

Semipublic corporation

d)

Privately held company

102.

Statutes are laws _____. (p. 274)

a)

Known as common law

b)

Made by judges

c)

Passed by cities

d)

Passed by legislatures

103.

Normally, courts of appeal do not have _____. (p. 276)

a)

Criminal jurisdiction

b)

Original jurisdiction

c)

Criminal law enforcement authority

d)

Authority to hear misdemeanors

104.

Statutes and subsequent regulations are collected in _____. (p. 275)

a)

The Code

b)

Constitutional amendments

c)

The federal requirements

d)

Law books

105.

Generally, the lowest level of the court system is the _____ court. (p. 275)

a)

Circuit

b)

Criminal

c)

Civil

d)

Magistrate's

106.

To set a person or corporation free of accusations is to _____. (p. 276)

a)

Enjoin

b)

Acquit

c)

Consent

d)

Motion

107.

A statement in writing given under oath before a notary public is an _____. (p. 276)

a)

Affidavit

b)

Affirmation

c)

Appeal

d)

Appearance

108.

The coming into court of a person being summoned to do so is a(an) _____. (p. 277)

a)

Appeal

b)

Discovery

c)

Appearance

d)

Injunction

109.

An impartial person chosen by the parties to an argument who agree to abide by that person’s decision is a(an) _____. (p. 277)

a)

Arbitrator

b)

Adjudicator

c)

Civil judge

d)

Attorney at law

110.

A Latin phrase meaning to stand by earlier court decisions is _____. (p. 279)

a)

Stare decisis

b)

Res judicata

c)

Res ipsa loquitur

d)

Respondeat superior

111.

A verdict given by a jury at the direction of a judge is a(an) _____. (p. 278)

a)

Directed verdict

b)

Dismissal

c)

Indictment

d)

Injunction

112.

An application to the court asking for an action favorable to one’s side is _____. (p. 279)

a)

A witnessing

b)

A motion

c)

An application to the court

d)

A plea bargain

113.

When the employee is acting within the control or scope of the employer, the employer is responsible for the acts of the employee under the concept of _____. (p. 282)

a)

Contractor–employee relations

b)

Strict liability

c)

A subcontractor relationship

d)

Borrowed servant

114.

A written publication that exposes someone to public scorn, hatred, contempt, or ridicule is _____. (p. 278)

a)

Libel

b)

Slander

c)

An aggrieved party

d)

An assault

115.

An early step in a criminal procedure during which the defendant is formally charged with an offense is a(an) _____. (p. 277)

a)

Discovery

b)

Arraignment

c)

Adjudication

d)

Action

116.

Conduct giving rise to a cause for legal action is _____. (p. 276)

a)

Actionable

b)

An adjudication

c)

An appeal

d)

An indictment

117.

When parties to a lawsuit who are dissatisfied with the court’s decision ask a higher court to review the decision, it is known as a(an) _____. (p. 276)

a)

Appeal

b)

Arbitration

c)

Respondeat superior

d)

Stare decisis

118.

A district attorney may bring assault charges for the purpose of _____. (p. 280)

a)

Revenge

b)

Punishment

c)

Monetary award

d)

Defamation

119.

Damages for proven losses are known as _____ damages. (p. 277)

a)

Actual

b)

Exemplary

c)

Incidental

d)

Punitive

120.

A fee paid in advance to an attorney for services on a case is known as a _____. (p. 280)

a)

Lien

b)

Prepayment

c)

Retainer

d)

Reward

121.

A concept in torts used as a defense by the defendant against the plaintiff is an assumption of _____. (p. 278)

a)

The risk

b)

Innocence

c)

Guilt

d)

Fraud

122.

Consent given after full information regarding the matter has been provided is known as _____ consent. (p. 277)

a)

Informed

b)

Individual

c)

Intended

d)

Personal

123.

Spoken statements leading to actual damages implying crime, or unchastity, or relating to a person’s profession or business are known as _____. (p. 278)

a)

Libel

b)

Slander

c)

Exemplary damages

d)

Consequential damages

124.

A reckless disregard for human life, a state of mind that accompanies a wrongful act in which the resulting harm was intended, is known as _____. (p. 278)

a)

Malice

b)

Comparative negligence

c)

A heinous act

d)

Contempt

125.

A public official, either elected or appointed, who conducts cases against persons accused of crimes is known as a _____. (p. 279)

a)

Lawyer

b)

Prosecutor

c)

Judge

d)

Bailiff

126.

A written order from a judge permitting certain law enforcement officers to look for certain things or persons is a _____. (p. 280)

a)

Retainer

b)

Search certificate

c)

Search and rescue

d)

Search warrant

127.

A person who gives evidence before a court and swears that testimony is true is a _____. (p. 281)

a)

Clerk of court

b)

Bailiff

c)

Sheriff

d)

Witness

128.

A _____ exists when a legal duty is owed another, that duty is breached, and harm results. (p. 280)

a)

Tort

b)

Lien

c)

Deposition

d)

Warrant

129.

A written order from a judge having authority in that jurisdiction for the arrest of a person is known as a _____. (p. 281)

a)

Tort

b)

Summons

c)

Warrant

d)

Directed verdict

130.

The concept, in both civil and criminal law, that the employer is responsible without the employee having to show employer fault, and that normally applies to an ultra-hazardous situation is _____. (p. 282)

a)

Scope of employment

b)

Respondeat superior

c)

Contractor

d)

Strict liability

131.

The range of employee activities held by the courts to be the legal responsibility of the employer, essentially any act performed in the process of carrying out one's duties, is known as _____. (p. 282)

a)

Scope of employment

b)

Range of job activities

c)

Employee job assignments

d)

Zone of employment

132.

Laws that generally establish employer responsibility without regard to fault or negligence for employees' illnesses or injuries that arise out of performance of the job are known as _____. (p. 282)

a)

Worker's Compensation Act

b)

Employer's Liability Act

c)

Worker Insurance Program

d)

Worker Protection Act

133.

Statutes in various states setting forth the extent to which employers are liable in regard to their employees are _____. (p. 282)

a)

Employer's Liability Acts

b)

Borrowed Servant Acts

c)

Contractor Acts

d)

Employee's Rights Laws

134.

Under the concept of respondeat superior, the administration of the facility is as _____ responsible for the acts of contracted services as for acts of full-time employees. (p. 282)

a)

Partially

b)

Legally

c)

All too often

d)

Too infrequently

135.

It normally falls to the _____ to ensure that contracted services are coordinated and supervised on an ongoing basis. (p. 295)

a)

Business office

b)

Corporate office

c)

Regional administrator

d)

Administrator