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TWR (PERF.Check 2026)

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 3hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1-2.

Situation

  • Aerodrome with rwy 27 in use

  • Weather: VMC, wind 090/05

Traffic (at the same time)

  1. PK-LHS (B737) – Holding on taxiway C, ready for departure to WIII

  2. PK-LAI (A320) – Final RWY 27, 10 NM

  3. PK-TJB (AJ27) – Holding point Alpha, request line up for Departure to WAMM

  4. PK-BVK (C208) - position 15 NM R175

1.
  1. Determine the priority order of the traffic.?

4 lines
2.
  1. What instructions will you issue to each aircraft?

4 lines
3-5.

Situation

  • RWY 27 in use

  • Weather: Visibility 6 km, wind 270/08

  • Several large birds are observed on the runway as an aircraft is on short final.

Traffic

  1. PK-BKL(A320) – Final RWY 27, 2 NM

  2. PK-GFI (B738) – Holding short RWY 27

  3. PK-LAO (B738) - Holding PIPOK A060

3.
  1. What immediate action should you take?

4 lines
4.
  1. What instruction will you give to each aircraft ?

4 lines
5.
  1. Should the runway be temporarily closed? Explain your reason.

4 lines
6-8.

Situation

  • You are on duty as Tower Controller

  • PK-VVK (C208 Caravan) reports engine roughness and requests priority landing

  • Aircraft position: Downwind RWY 27 (8 NM)

Other Traffic

  1. PK-LUU (A320) – Short Final RWY 27

  2. PK-GNS (B737) – Holding on Taxiway C

6.
  1. What type of emergency is this?

4 lines
7.
  1. What instructions will you issue to each aircraft?

4 lines
8.
  1. What coordination actions must the Tower perform?

4 lines
9.

Explain the actions that must be taken by ATC personnel after receiving information about wildlife animal hazards, bird strikes, laser attacks, kites, or Foreign Object Debris (FOD) from pilots or based on direct observation.

4 lines
10.

Explain the immediate actions that ATC personnel shall take if a fire occurs inside the tower while providing air traffic services

4 lines
11.

Which ATC position is responsible for ensuring runway separation between a departing and a landing aircraft?

a)

Ground Controller

b)

Clearance Delivery Position

c)

Aerodrome Controller

d)

Approach Controller

12.

……………… refers to a runway that is unavailable for use due to the presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or object, whether authorized or unauthorized.

a)

Stopway

b)

Closed Runway

c)

Blocked Runway

d)

Runway Occupancy

13.

……………… is the portion of the aerodrome intended for the take-off, landing, and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons, and requires ATC clearance for entry.

a)

Movement Area

b)

Runway Strip

c)

Manoeuvring Area

d)

Taxiway

14.

The apron B area at Djalaluddin Airport is designed with which of the following dimensions?

a)

230 m x 80 m

b)

130 m x 291 m

c)

230 m x 291 m

d)

130 x 80 m

15.

Which airspace classification provides ATC service to IFR flights and separation between IFR and VFR flights?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

16.

In which airspace are VFR flights not provided separation, but IFR flights receive ATC service and separation?

a)

Class B

b)

Class D

c)

Class E

d)

Class G

17.

Which of the following is NOT a type of Air Traffic Service as defined by ICAO?

a)

Air Traffic Control Service

b)

Flight Information Service

c)

Alerting Service

d)

Aerodrome Engineering Service

18.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of elements in a standard departure clearance?

a)

Cleared level – aircraft identification – SID – SSR code – clearance limit

b)

SID – aircraft identification – cleared level – SSR code – clearance limit

c)

Clearance limit – SID – SSR code – cleared level – aircraft identification

d)

Aircraft identification – clearance limit – SID – cleared level – SSR code

19.

An IFR aircraft conducting which type of approach may be cleared below the appropriate minimum altitude without additional conditions?

a)

Instrument approach

b)

Visual approach

c)

Surveillance approach

d)

Precision approach

20.

Aerodrome control towers are responsible for alerting the rescue and fire fighting services (RFFS) whenever:

a)

An aircraft requests start-up clearance

b)

A flight plan is delayed

c)

Weather conditions deteriorate below VMC

d)

An aircraft accident has occurred on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome

21.

Which altimeter setting shall be provided to an aircraft prior to taxiing for take-off?

a)

QFE only

b)

QNH only

c)

QNH, and QFE either regularly or upon request

d)

Standard pressure setting only

22.

Visibility information shall be provided prior to taxiing for take-off when:

a)

Visibility is more than 10 km

b)

RVR is always available

c)

Visibility is less than 10 km

d)

Visibility is less than 5 km

23.

When radio communication with an aircraft on the ground has failed, ATC may use a signal lamp (gun light) to convey instructions. Which signal indicates “Cleared for take-off”?

a)

Steady red light

b)

Flashing red light

c)

Steady green light

d)

Flashing white light

24.

An aircraft is taxiing on the manoeuvring area and experiences a radio failure. ATC wants the aircraft to stop immediately. Which light signal should be used?

a)

Flashing green

b)

Steady green

c)

Flashing red

d)

Steady red

25.

Special VFR flights may be authorized only when ground visibility is not less than:

a)

800 m

b)

1 000 m

c)

1 500 m

d)

5 km

26.

This below is Point Of VFR Route when an Aircraft Flying from WAMG to WAFY Except...

a)

Pontolo

b)

loyo

c)

matua

d)

paleleh

27.

Prior to taxiing for take-off, aircraft shall be advised of the following elemnts of information, in the order listed, with the exception of such elements which it is known the aircraft has already received, unless:


a)

The runway to be used

b)

Temperature

c)


Cloud base

d)

Surface wind and condition

28.

An aircraft experiences an engine failure at decision speed during take-off. Which declared distance is critical for determining whether the aircraft can safely stop?

a)

TORA

b)

TODA

c)

ASDA

d)

LDA

29.

If a runway has a clearway but no stopway, which declared distances will be greater than TORA?

a)

ASDA only

b)

TODA only

c)

LDA only

d)

ASDA and LDA

30.

Frequency ILS of Djalaluddin Airport is

a)

110.1 MHz

b)

110.3 MHz

c)

111.0 MHz

d)

101.1 MHz

31.

Frequency of VOR/DME Djalaluddin Airport is

a)

135.0 Mhz

b)

112.8 Mhz

c)

113.5 Mhz

d)

110.1 Mhz

32.

For ATC purposes, monitoring the localizer is important primarily to:

a)

Determine aircraft altitude

b)

Ensure lateral track alignment during precision approaches

c)

Provide distance to threshold

d)

Assign cruising levels

33.

The primary function of a localizer (LOC) is to provide:

a)

Vertical guidance during an instrument approach

b)

Distance information to the runway threshold

c)

Glide slope angle information

d)

Horizontal lateral guidance to the runway centerline

34.

Based on quadrantal rules, Traffic from WAMG to WAMI using Altitude…

a)

7000 ft

b)

7500 ft

c)

6500 ft

d)


6000 ft

35.

Dimension of TORA RWY 27/09 Djalaluddin Airport is.....

a)

2560 m

b)

2710 m

c)

2800 m

d)

2500 m

36.

Elevation of THR RWY 27 is

a)

88 ft

b)

98 ft

c)

122 ft

d)

125 ft

37.

In aviation meteorological reports, the abbreviation FBL RA indicates:

a)

Moderate rain

b)

Heavy rain

c)

Light rain

d)

Freezing rain

38.

What does the term CAVOK indicate?

a)

Visibility ≥ 10 km, no significant cloud below 5 000 ft, no significant weather

b)

Ceiling and visibility are below minima

c)

Visibility is less than 5 km

d)

Heavy precipitation in the aerodrome area

39.

When surface wind direction varies significantly, ATC shall report:

a)

Only the mean wind

b)

Only the maximum gust

c)

Directional variations and gusts

d)

Wind at 2 000 ft

40.

Which weather condition may require suspension of ground operations at an aerodrome?

a)

Light rain

b)

Temperature above ISA

c)

Fog reducing visibility below minima

d)

Broken cloud at 2 000 ft

41.

Which weather report provides actual observed conditions at the aerodrome?

a)

TAF

b)

SIGMET

c)

AIRMET

d)

METAR

42.

The aerodrome is experiencing heavy rain and gusty winds. Which information must be promptly passed to arriving and departing aircraft?

a)

Aerodrome elevation and QNH only

b)

Runway length and declared distances

c)

Surface wind, gusts, and significant weather

d)

Runway condition report only

43.

Transponder Code for President is

a)

A4502

b)

A5502

c)

A4501

d)

A5501

44.

Take off RWY 27, Maintain RWY Heading until 3000ft turn LEFT dct to GTL VOR/DME to intercept R072 GTL to Gonta Join W51 is name of SID

a)

WMB ONE BRAVO DEPARTURE

b)

WMB ONE DELTA DEPARTURE

c)

WMB ONE ALPHA DEPARTURE

d)

WMB ONE CHARLIE DEPARTURE

45.

Take off RWY 09, maintain RWY heading until 1500 ft turn RIGHT track 218 to intercept RDL175 GTLto OLSAG proceed to ENTEG join W32.

a)

ENTEG ONE ALPHA DEP

b)

ENTEG ONE BRAVO DEP

c)

ENTEG ONE CHARLIE DEP

d)

ENTEG ONE DELTA DEP

46.

Take off RWY 27, Maintain RWY heading until 3000 ft turn LEFT track 2400 to intercept RDL 256 GTL to OBDEX join T14 is SID

a)

OBDEX ONE CHARLIE DEP

b)

OBDEX ONE ALPHA DEP

c)


OBDEX ONE BRAVO DEP

d)

OBDEX ONE DELTA DEP

47.

Which of the following sequences correctly represents the order of emergency phases?

a)

ALERFA – INCERFA – DETRESFA

b)

INCERFA – DETRESFA – ALERFA

c)

DETRESFA – ALERFA – INCERFA

d)

INCERFA – ALERFA – DETRESFA

48.

Which of the following messages requires a mandatory readback?

a)

Wind information

b)

Traffic information

c)

Take-off clearance

d)

Weather advisory

49.

Which phrase shall be used to indicate that a clearance or instruction is not complied with?

a)

Unable

b)

Standby

c)

Negative

d)

Cancel

50.

In a GNSS approach, LNAV/VNAV provides:

a)

Lateral guidance only

b)

Precision guidance equivalent to ILS CAT II

c)

Vertical guidance only

d)

Both lateral and vertical guidance