wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

2205 Exam 1 pt.8

Total questions: 27

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Toxoplasmosis risk is associated with:

a)

Sharing razors

b)

Undercooked meat and cat feces exposure

c)

Mosquito bites only

d)

Drinking milk

2.

Toxoplasmosis medication options listed include:

a)

Sulfonamides and/or pyrimethamine + sulfonamides

b)

Risedronate

c)

Sertraline

d)

Penicillin G only

3.

Rubella prevention in TORCH context includes:

a)

Rubella vaccine (preventive strategy)

b)

Metronidazole

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Clomiphene

4.

Which STIs are listed as reportable to public health in the notes’ core list?

a)

Gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia, HIV

b)

BV, candidiasis, trichomoniasis, HSV

c)

PMS, PMDD, menopause, osteoporosis

d)

CMV, rubella, toxoplasmosis only

5.

Which infections are noted as sometimes reportable in some states depending on jurisdiction?

a)

BV and candidiasis

b)

HSV and genital warts

c)

CMV and rubella

d)

Trichomoniasis only

6.

The nurse is teaching STI transmission interruption. Which action best supports this goal?

a)

Encourage partner evaluation/treatment when indicated and reinforce barrier protection

b)

Advise stopping all hygiene measures

c)

Recommend estrogen-only therapy

d)

Teach that asymptomatic clients do not transmit STIs

7.

The nurse is counseling a client with PID. Which statement reflects the urgency described in the notes?

a)

PID has no long-term consequences

b)

PID can lead to adhesions, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy risk

c)

PID is viral and does not respond to antibiotics

d)

PID only affects postmenopausal clients

8.

PCOS is emphasized as:

a)

A leading cause of infertility and a common metabolic disorder in women

b)

A primary cause of syphilis

c)

Always self-resolving after one cycle

d)

A fungal infection

9.

Which diagnostic lab is specifically listed and must not be skipped in PCOS evaluation?

a)

Troponin

b)

17-hydroxyprogesterone

c)

BNP

d)

Lipase

10.

A client with PCOS asks why metformin is used. The most accurate statement is:

a)

It improves insulin sensitivity and can support ovulation/metabolic control

b)

It cures HPV

c)

It treats gonorrhea

d)

It dissolves fibroids immediately

11.

A client with PCOS needs cycle regulation and androgen symptom reduction. Which intervention category should be included?

a)

Antivirals

b)

Hormonal medications (e.g., combined OCPs)

c)

Antifungals

d)

Bisphosphonates

12.

The most common gynecologic cancer in postmenopausal clients in your notes set is:

a)

Cervical cancer

b)

Ovarian cancer

c)

Endometrial cancer

d)

Vaginal cancer

13.

A postmenopausal client reports vaginal bleeding. What is the nurse’s priority interpretation?

a)

Normal finding

b)

Consider endometrial cancer until ruled out and ensure evaluation

c)

Ovulation is occurring

d)

PMS flare

14.

Which gene mutations are emphasized for increased gynecologic cancer risk?

a)

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2

b)

HLA-B27 and HLA-DR4

c)

CFTR and FBN1

d)

APOE2 and APOE4

15.

Tamoxifen use is most relevant in women’s health notes because it:

a)

Treats BV

b)

Can affect uterine lining, increasing endometrial concerns

c)

Cures HPV

d)

Treats candidiasis

16.

Nulliparity means:

a)

Never given birth

b)

One birth

c)

Two or more births

d)

Current pregnancy

17.

A nurse teaches pelvic organ prolapse definitions using the notes’ exact meaning. Which is correct?

a)

Cystocele: rectum herniates into vagina

b)

Rectocele: rectum herniates into vagina

c)

Rectocele: bladder prolapses into vagina

d)

Cystocele: uterus descends into vagina

18.

Which definition is correct per the notes’ terminology?

a)

Cystocele: bladder prolapses into vagina

b)

Rectocele: bladder prolapses into vagina

c)

Cystocele: rectum herniates

d)

Rectocele: uterus descends

19.

A client has infertility and suspected endometriosis. Which risk factor association is most consistent with standard women’s health teaching?

a)

Early menarche and late menopause

b)

High HDL

c)

HPV vaccination

d)

Lactational amenorrhea only

20.

A nurse is teaching amenorrhea risk factors emphasized in women’s health content. Which is most consistent?

a)

Low BMI and weight loss

b)

High calcium intake

c)

Increased HDL

d)

Daily exercise always prevents amenorrhea

21.

Which initial test is priority in secondary amenorrhea evaluation?

a)

Pregnancy test (hCG)

b)

CA-125

c)

Pap test

d)

Mammogram

22.

Dysmenorrhea is best defined as:

a)

Painful menstruation

b)

Absence of menses

c)

Fishy odor discharge

d)

Pain with intercourse only

23.

Which mechanism contributes to dysmenorrhea in women’s health content?

a)

Prostaglandin secretion leading to uterine contractions

b)

Increased FSH

c)

Decreased LDL

d)

Viral latency

24.

A nurse is prioritizing postpartum contraception teaching. Which method is most effective at preventing pregnancy (as emphasized in your notes set)?

a)

IUD

b)

Spermicide alone

c)

Rhythm method

d)

Withdrawal

25.

A nurse is reinforcing STI screening and public health reporting. Which result must be reported per the core list?

a)

Positive chlamydia NAAT

b)

Positive candidiasis wet mount

c)

Positive BV clue cells

d)

Positive trichomoniasis

26.

A client has a history of cervical cancer and now has vaginal lesions. Which diagnosis approach is appropriate for vaginal/vulvar cancer workup per women’s health testing principles?

a)

Biopsy of suspicious lesion/tissue

b)

Treat empirically with antifungal only

c)

Reassure it will resolve after menses

d)

Check CA-125 only

27.

A nurse is verifying STI prevention counseling. Which statement is best?

a)

“Complete treatment, ensure partners are treated when indicated, use barrier protection, and return for follow-up—some infections are reportable for public health control.”

b)

“Stop antibiotics once you feel better.”

c)

“Partners never need evaluation.”

d)

“IUDs prevent STIs.”