wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CHAP 10 - Variable Load & Environmental Engineering

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The maximum continuous power available from a hydro electric plant under the most adverse hydraulic conditions is called ______.

a)

base power

b)

firm power

c)

primary power

d)

secondary power

2.

The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents ______.

a)

load factor

b)

connected load

c)

average load

d)

diversity factor

3.

What is the reverse capacity of a plant?

a)

maximum demand – average demand

b)

plant capacity – maximum demand

c)

plant capacity – average demand

d)

plant capacity × (1 − load factor)

4.

Load curve refers to the plot of ______.

a)

load versus generating capacity

b)

load versus current

c)

load versus time

d)

load versus cost of power

5.

The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is called ______.

a)

load factor

b)

utilization factor

c)

maximum load factor

d)

capacity

6.

It is the combination of base load and peaking load.

a)

rated load

b)

intermediate load

c)

combine load

d)

over-all load

7.

Sum of the maximum demand over the simultaneous maximum demand.

a)

Use of factor

b)

Capacity factor

c)

Demand factor

d)

Diversity factor

8.

Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is ______.

a)

capacity factor

b)

demand factor

c)

utilization factor

d)

load factor

9.

The capacity factor of the plant is equal to ______.

a)

maximum load/average load

b)

average load/maximum load

c)

average load/plant capacity

d)

maximum load/plant capacity

10.

The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any circuit is known as the ______ of that circuit.

a)

measured power

b)

capacity

c)

power factor

d)

KVAR

11.

The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity.

a)

Load factor

b)

Utilization factor

c)

Maximum load factor

d)

Capacity factor

12.

The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time is called ______.

a)

load factor

b)

reactive factor

c)

diversity factor

d)

plant use factor

13.

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum demand of the whole system.

a)

Demand factor

b)

Diversity factor

c)

Power factor

d)

Utilization factor

14.

Load curve refers to the plot of ______.

a)

load versus generating capacity

b)

load versus current

c)

load versus time

d)

load versus cost of power

15.

Load curve refers to the plot of ______.

a)

load versus generating capacity

b)

load versus current

c)

load versus time

d)

load versus cost of power

16.

The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity.

a)

Load factor

b)

Utilization factor

c)

Maximum load factor

d)

Capacity factor

17.

The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time is called ______.

a)

load factor

b)

reactive factor

c)

diversity factor

d)

plant use factor

18.

Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is ______.

a)

capacity factor

b)

demand factor

c)

utilization factor

d)

load factor

19.

The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents ______.

a)

load factor

b)

connected load

c)

average load

d)

diversity factor

20.

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum demand of the whole system.

a)

Demand factor

b)

Diversity factor

c)

Power factor

d)

Utilization factor

21.

Diversity factor × maximum demand is ______.

a)

Average demand

b)

Installed capacity

c)

Sum of consumer's maximum demands

d)

Generated power

22.

The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any circuit is known as the ______ of that circuit.

a)

measured power

b)

capacity

c)

power factor

d)

KVAR

23.

Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to the equipment called ______.

a)

fermenters

b)

brew kettle

c)

cooler

d)

starting tube

24.

A major cause of air pollution resulting from the burning of fuel oil is ______.

a)

nitrous

b)

hydrogen

c)

sulfur dioxide

d)

silicon

25.

Heavy water is ______.

a)

B2O

b)

H2O

c)

W2O

d)

D2O

26.

Scintillation counter are used to detect ______.

a)

Beta rays

b)

X - ray

c)

Gamma rays

d)

All of the above

27.

All of the following are common types of chemical reactions except ______.

a)

direct combination

b)

fission

c)

decomposition

d)

double replacement

28.

Redox reactions can often be type of ______.

a)

direct combination

b)

fission

c)

decomposition

d)

double replacement

29.

The fact that the amount of slightly soluble gas absorbed in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas is known as ______.

a)

Dalton's law

b)

Henry's law

c)

Raoult's law

d)

Boyle's law

30.

All of the following pollutants are produced because of decaying organic matter except ______.

a)

ammonia

b)

sulfur dioxide

c)

methane

d)

hydrogen sulfide

31.

Swimming pool water needs ______.

a)

pre - chlorination

b)

super - chlorination

c)

dual - chlorination

d)

de - chlorination

32.

Aeration of water is done for all of the following purposes except for

a)

removal of CO2

b)

removal of bad taste

c)

increasing the amount of oxygen in water

d)

removal of temporary hardness

33.

Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by

a)

bacteria

b)

molds

c)

virus

d)

algae

34.

Turbidity in water is due to

a)

algae

b)

fungi

c)

organic salts

d)

finely divided particles of clay, silt and organic matter

35.

Per capita consumption of water is generally taken as

a)

50–100 liters

b)

150–300 liters

c)

400–500 liters

d)

750–1000 liters

36.

Which of the following industries have the highest consumption of water for processing?

a)

Foundry

b)

Automobile industry

c)

Paper mill

d)

Aluminum industry

37.

Chemical used for checking the growth of algae in reservoirs is

a)

copper sulphate

b)

alum

c)

bleaching powder

d)

brine

38.

Which of the following is not the pollutant from a sulfuric acid plants?

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Sulfur trioxide

c)

Acid moist

d)

Hydrogen sulfide

39.

Which of the following is a cold cathode lamp?

a)

Sodium vapor lamp

b)

High pressure mercury vapor lamp

c)

Low pressure mercury vapor lamp

d)

Neon lamp

40.

Which has an octane rating of more than 100?

a)

Gobar gas

b)

Methyl alcohol

c)

Benzol

d)

Ethyl alcohol

41.

The part per million is identical to

a)

Grains per gallon

b)

Pounds per cubic foot

c)

Milligrams per kg

d)

Tones per acre foot

42.

In power plant an electrostatic precipitators is installed between

a)

forced draft fan and induced draft fan

b)

furnace and chimney

c)

primary air and secondary air

d)

furnace and forced draft fan

43.

At present, the number of true elementary particles, which include leptons and quarks, is thought to be

a)

4

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

44.

The effective size of a target atom that interacts with a moving particle is called its

a)

length

b)

width

c)

cross section

d)

pseudo-area

45.

Most nuclear particles can react with atoms in several different ways including

a)

absorption

b)

scattering

c)

absorption and scattering

d)

reflection and absorption

46.

The operation that produces highest noise level is

a)

welding

b)

riveting

c)

machining

d)

pressing

47.

The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to the original incident energy striking the collector

a)

Shading factor

b)

Collector efficiency

c)

Betz coefficient

d)

Transmittance

48.

A swinging support constructed as part of the vessel and that supports the manway cover when it is unbolted and moved aside

a)

Davit

b)

Handhole

c)

Nozzle neck

d)

Manway arm

49.

Is the subjective method in which the smoke density is visually compared to five standardized white-black grids

a)

Ringelman scale

b)

Dalton scale

c)

Smoke spot scale

d)

Dew point scale

50.

The ratio of fugacity at actual conditions to the fugacity at some reference state is known as

a)

compressibility

b)

activity

c)

gravimetric coefficient

d)

saturation

51.

A type of polymer used for detergents, milk bottles, oil containers and toys

a)

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

b)

Polystyrene (PS)

c)

High density polyethylene (HDPE)

d)

Polypropylene (PP)

52.

A type of polymer used for grocery bags and food wraps

a)

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

b)

Polystyrene (PS)

c)

Low density polythelene (LDPE)

d)

Polypropylene (PP)

53.

A radioactive gas produced from the decay of radium within the rocks beneath a building

a)

Spills

b)

Radon

c)

Smoke

d)

Smog

54.

Consists of ground-level ozone and peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN)

a)

Smog

b)

Spills

c)

Sulfur oxide

d)

Smoke

55.

A term used to mean the corrective steps taken to return the environment to its original condition

a)

Stabilization

b)

Remediation

c)

Greenhouse effect

d)

Opacity

56.

The burning of low-sulfur fuel is known as

a)

fuel switching

b)

fuel adding

c)

fuel binding

d)

fuel swapping

57.

The removal of particulate matter from a gas flow by exposing the flow to a liquid or slurry is known as

a)

stripping

b)

spraying

c)

scrubbing

d)

absorption

58.

The drop in a solvent's vapor pressure and the increase in mole fraction as solute is added is described by

a)

Dalton's law

b)

Henry's law

c)

Raoult's law

d)

Boyle's law

59.

All of the following statements are characteristics of bases except

a)

they conduct electricity in aqueous solutions

b)

they turn red litmus paper blue

c)

they have a pH between 0 and 7

d)

they neutralize acids forming salts and water

60.

All of the following statements about conjugate acids and bases are true except

a)

a conjugate acids results when a base accept a proton

b)

a conjugate base results when a base accepts a proton

c)

strong acids tend to give weak conjugate bases

d)

the Bronsted-Lowry theory defines bases as proton accepters

61.

Are any solid particulate matter that becomes airborne, with the exception of particulate matter emitted from the exhaust stack of a combustion process

a)

Dusts or fugitive dusts

b)

Dioxins

c)

Fugitive emissions

d)

CFCs

62.

Equipment leaks from plant equipments are known as

a)

fugitive leaks

b)

fugitive dusts

c)

fugitive exhausts

d)

fugitive emissions

63.

What is a substance that absorbs or retains moisture?

a)

Surface acting agent

b)

Dry ultra-fine coal

c)

Fossil fuel

d)

Humectant

64.

Is a soluble compound that reduces a liquid's surface tension or reduces the interfacial tension between a liquid and a solid

a)

Surface-acting agent or surfactant

b)

Humectant

c)

Oxygenated fuel

d)

CFC

65.

A material or substance that is accidentally or intentionally introduced to the environment in a quantity that exceeds what occurs naturally

a)

Waste

b)

Sludge

c)

Pollutant

d)

Biosolids

66.

Refers to organic waste produced from biological waterwaste treatment processes

a)

Toxic waste

b)

Biosolids

c)

Extrinsic waste

d)

Process waste

67.

A rule which states that any solid waste mixed with hazardous waste becomes hazardous

a)

Mixture rule

b)

Derived-from rule

c)

Universal waste rule

d)

Household waste exclusion

68.

A rule which states that any waste derived from the treatment of a hazardous waste remains a hazardous waste.

a)

The mixture rule

b)

The treatment rule

c)

The derived from rule

d)

The hazard rule

69.

Generally refers to sulfur trioxide in the flue gas.

a)

Acid rain

b)

Acid gas

c)

Hydrochloric acids

d)

Stack gas

70.

What consists of weak solutions of sulfuric, hydrochloric, and to a lesser extent, nitric acids?

a)

Stack gas

b)

Acid rain

c)

Acid compound

d)

Pollutant

71.

A fibrous silicate mineral material that is inert, strong and incombustible.

a)

Fiberglass

b)

Plastic

c)

Rubber

d)

Asbestos

72.

An insulator with superior tensile strength but low heat resistance.

a)

Rubber

b)

Plastic

c)

Fiberglass

d)

Asbestos

73.

Are highly concentrated liquid wastes produced in landfills.

a)

Aerosols

b)

Leachates

c)

Nitrogen dioxide

d)

Urea

74.

What is the primary cause of smog formation?

a)

Toxins

b)

Dioxins

c)

Oxidants

d)

Nitrogen oxides

75.

Is a water soluble organic compound prepared from ammonia. It has significant biological and industrial usefulness.

a)

Urea or carbamide urea

b)

Nitrite

c)

Chlorinated organics

d)

Oxidants

76.

Are by products of reaction between combustion products.

a)

Photochemicals

b)

Oxidants

c)

Organics

d)

Sediments

77.

"Particulate matter" is defined as all particles that are emitted by a combustion source. What is another term for particulate matter?

a)

Dust

b)

Aerosol

c)

Biosolids

d)

Sediments

78.

Are organic compounds manufactured in oily liquid and solid forms through the late 1970s and subsequently prohibited.

a)

Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)

b)

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

c)

Trihalomethanes

d)

Plastic

79.

A type of polymer used for Styrofoam cups and "clam shell" food containers.

a)

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

b)

Polystyrene (PS)

c)

Low density polyethylene (LDPE)

d)

Polypropylene (PP)

80.

A type of polymer used for labels, bottles and housewares.

a)

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

b)

Polystyrene (PS)

c)

Low density polyethylene (LDPE)

d)

Polypropylene (PP)

81.

A type of polymer used for clear bottles.

a)

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

b)

Polystyrene (PS)

c)

Low density polyethylene (LDPE)

d)

Polypropylene (PP)

82.

Refers to the high-temperature removal of tarry substances from the interior of the carbon granule, leaving a highly porous structure.

a)

Absorbent

b)

Activated

c)

Breakthrough

d)

Adsorbent

83.

A substance with high surface area per unit weight, and intricate pore structure, and a hydrophobic surface.

a)

Adsorbent substance

b)

Absorbent substance

c)

Homogeneous substance

d)

Activated substance

84.

Is a high-temperature process that turns incinerator ash into a safe, glass-like material.

a)

Advance oxidation

b)

Biofiltration

c)

Vitrification

d)

Bioventing

85.

Refers to the use of composting and soil beds.

a)

Biofiltration

b)

Bioremediation

c)

Bioventing

d)

Bioreactors

86.

Are open or closed tanks containing dozens or hundreds of slowly rotating disks covered with a biological film of microorganisms.

a)

Biofilter

b)

Bioreactor

c)

Biomediator

d)

Bioinventor

87.

Refers to the treatment of contaminated soil in a large plastic-covered tank.

a)

Bioventing

b)

Biological recycling

c)

Biocycle

d)

Bioremediation

88.

All of the following occur during oxidation of a substance except _____.

a)

oxidation state increases

b)

loss of electrons

c)

the substance becomes less negative

d)

oxidation of the oxidizing agent

89.

All of the following occur during reduction of a substance except _____.

a)

an increase in negative charge

b)

loss of electrons

c)

an oxidation state decrease

d)

reduction of the oxidizing agent

90.

All of the following are units of energy except:

a)

Calories

b)

Joules

c)

Pascals

d)

MeV

91.

What do you call the mixture if the solute particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are larger than molecules?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Hydration

d)

Saturated solution

92.

What do you call the mixture when a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it can?

a)

Solution

b)

Mild solution

c)

Hydration

d)

Saturated solution

93.

The equilibrium constant for weak solution is known as _____.

a)

Ionization constant

b)

Arrhenius exponent

c)

Solubility product

d)

La Chatelier's constant

94.

What do you call the mixture if the solute particles of solid suspended in a liquid are larger than the molecules?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Hydration

d)

Saturated solution

95.

When a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it can, the mixture is called _____.

a)

solution

b)

suspension

c)

hydration

d)

saturated solution

96.

When excess solute in a solution settles to the bottom of the container, the process is called _____.

a)

salvation

b)

demulsification

c)

precipitation

d)

equation

97.

The amount of energy absorbed when a substance enters a solution is called the _____.

a)

heat of fusion

b)

heat of sublimation

c)

endothermic heat of solution

d)

exothermic heat of solution

98.

The absorption of water by a desiccant often demonstrates:

a)

heat of fusion

b)

heat of vaporization

c)

endothermic heat of solution

d)

exothermic heat of solution

99.

A substance that absorbs moisture from the air is _____.

a)

deliquescent

b)

effervescent

c)

efflorescent

d)

a precipitant

100.

The removal of a dissolved gas or other volatile component from liquid by exposing the liquid to air or steam is known as:

a)

stripping

b)

spraying

c)

gas absorption

d)

scrubbing

101.

Which of the following contribute to the deterioration of the Earth's ozone layer?

a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Chlorofluorocarbons

d)

Refrigerants

102.

Ozone filters out what type of radiation that damages crops and causes skin cancer?

a)

Tropospheric radiation

b)

Atmospheric radiation

c)

X-rays

d)

Ultraviolet radiation

103.

The color of water is measured _____.

a)

in terms of pH value

b)

in terms of degree of hardness

c)

in terms of platinum cobalt scale

d)

ppm of dissolved solids

104.

What turbidimeter that gives direct readings in ppm?

a)

Jackson turbidimeter

b)

Hellige turbidimeter

c)

Baylis turbidimeter

d)

All of the above

105.

Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material?

a)

Rugs

b)

Carpets

c)

Mirrors

d)

Heavy drapes