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2205 Exam 1 pt.9

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is teaching fetal circulation. Which statement correctly describes the ductus venosus?

a)

It shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium

b)

It carries blood from the fetal pulmonary artery to the aorta

c)

It carries deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta

d)

It shunts blood from the umbilical vein past the liver into the IVC

2.

A nurse is reviewing embryonic respiratory development (weeks 4–7). Which structure is forming during this stage?

a)

Alveoli for gas exchange

b)

Primary bronchi budding from the developing airway

c)

Surfactant-secreting mature type II pneumocytes

d)

Terminal sacs (primitive alveoli)

3.

A nurse is teaching fetal circulation. Which vessel carries the most oxygenated fetal blood?

a)

Umbilical vein

b)

Umbilical artery

c)

Ductus arteriosus

d)

Superior vena cava

4.

A nurse is teaching fetal circulation. Which structure directly allows blood flow from right atrium → left atrium?

a)

Ductus venosus

b)

Ductus arteriosus

c)

Foramen ovale

d)

Umbilical arteries

5.

A nurse is reinforcing umbilical cord anatomy. Which statement is correct?

a)

The cord contains 2 veins and 1 artery

b)

The cord contains 1 artery and 1 vein

c)

The cord contains 4 vessels total

d)

The cord contains 2 arteries and 1 vein

6.

A nurse is teaching fetal circulation. Which statement is correct?

a)

Umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood to the fetus

b)

Umbilical vein carries deoxygenated blood to placenta

c)

Umbilical arteries carry blood away from fetus to placenta (waste)

d)

Umbilical vein carries the least oxygenated blood

7.

A nurse is teaching fetal circulation. Which shunt connects pulmonary artery → aorta?

a)

Foramen ovale

b)

Ductus arteriosus

c)

Ductus venosus

d)

Ligamentum teres

8.

A nurse is assessing fetal perfusion priorities. Which fetal organs are prioritized for oxygen delivery?

a)

Heart and brain

b)

Liver and kidneys

c)

Stomach and intestines

d)

Skin and skeletal muscle

9.

A client asks what amniotic fluid does. Which response is best?

a)

“It prevents implantation from occurring.”

b)

“It cushions the fetus and helps protect the umbilical cord from compression.”

c)

“It is only produced during labor.”

d)

“It is made only from fetal blood.”

10.

A client asks what forms amniotic fluid over pregnancy. Which statement is most accurate?

a)

Only fetal blood contributes to it

b)

Only the placenta produces it

c)

Only maternal RBCs form it

d)

Early: maternal plasma/serum, later: includes fetal urine

11.

A nurse is teaching placenta function. Which statement is correct?

a)

Placenta stores fetal urine until delivery

b)

Placenta prevents all medications from reaching fetus

c)

Placenta’s main job is to inflate fetal lungs

d)

Placenta provides oxygen/nutrients and removes waste

12.

A nurse is teaching placental circulation. Which statement is correct?

a)

Maternal and fetal blood normally mix freely in the placenta

b)

Placenta only provides waste removal, not oxygen

c)

Placenta is the lifeline exchanging gases/nutrients/waste

d)

Placenta prevents any antibody transfer to fetus

13.

A nurse is teaching a client about gravidity. Which definition is correct?

a)

Number of pregnancies

b)

Number of births after 37 weeks

c)

Number of pregnancies reaching 20 weeks

d)

Number of living children

14.

A nurse is teaching a client about parity. Which definition is correct?

a)

Number of living children only

b)

Number of pregnancies

c)

Number of miscarriages only

d)

Number of pregnancies that reached 20 weeks (viability threshold)

15.

A nurse is documenting a pregnancy history. Which term means never been pregnant?

a)

Nulligravida

b)

Primigravida

c)

Multigravida

d)

Multipara

16.

A nurse is teaching viability. Which is the best description?

a)

The point when fetal heartbeat is detected

b)

The point when pregnancy test turns positive

c)

The point when fetus can live outside uterus (with support)

d)

The point when fetal movement is first felt

17.

A nurse is reviewing a client’s complaint of whitish/gray mucous discharge with a musty odor that serves to protect the vagina. Which term matches?

a)

Leukorrhea

b)

Operculum

c)

Amniotic fluid leakage

d)

Bloody show

18.

A nurse is assessing fetal heart rate (FHR). Which range is normal?

a)

80–100/min

b)

120–160/min

c)

160–190/min

d)

60–80/min

19.

A nurse measures fundal height. What is the correct technique?

a)

Measure from umbilicus to xiphoid

b)

Measure from cervix to umbilicus

c)

Measure from iliac crest to iliac crest

d)

Measure from symphysis pubis to fundus

20.

A client is 26 weeks pregnant. Which finding best fits expected fundal height?

a)

Approximately equals weeks gestation in cm (around 26 cm)

b)

Must be exactly 40 cm in all clients

c)

Should be below the symphysis pubis

d)

Should not be used after 20 weeks

21.

A nurse is teaching “factors affecting pregnancy.” Which is a psychosocial factor?

a)

Lead exposure

b)

Genetics

c)

Mental health/stress

d)

Chronic illness

22.

Which is an environmental factor affecting pregnancy?

a)

Lead exposure/toxins

b)

Parity

c)

OB disorders

d)

Gravidity

23.

Which is a sociodemographic factor affecting pregnancy?

a)

Access to care / socioeconomic barriers

b)

Fetal sex assignment

c)

Placental implantation site

d)

Uterine tone

24.

Which is a biophysical factor affecting pregnancy?

a)

Cultural beliefs

b)

Race/ethnicity

c)

Chronic illness (e.g., diabetes, HTN)

d)

Education level

25.

A client has decreased fetal movement. Which assessment is the best initial nursing action?

a)

Begin CST immediately

b)

Perform digital vaginal exam immediately

c)

Start oxytocin infusion to “wake baby up”

d)

Initiate fetal assessment (kick counts/NST as ordered)

26.

A provider orders NST [nonstress test]. What does NST primarily assess?

a)

Fetal lung maturity

b)

Fetal acid–base status directly

c)

Placental location

d)

Fetal autonomic/CNS integrity via FHR accelerations

27.

Which NST result is reactive at ≥32 weeks?

a)

1 acceleration in 10 minutes

b)

No accelerations in 20 minutes

c)

2 accelerations ≥15 bpm lasting ≥15 sec in 20 minutes

d)

Late decelerations with 50% of contractions

28.

A 30-week NST shows 2 accelerations lasting 10 seconds. Interpretation?

a)

Reactive for <32 weeks (10 × 10)

b)

Nonreactive because must be 15 seconds at all gestations

c)

Positive CST

d)

Abnormal BPP

29.

A 34-week NST shows 2 accelerations lasting 10 seconds. Interpretation?

a)

Reactive

b)

Nonreactive because ≥32 weeks requires 15 × 15

c)

Normal BPP automatically

d)

Positive CST

30.

A nurse explains a BPP [biophysical profile] includes:

a)

Ultrasound + NST

b)

CBC + CMP

c)

Coagulation panel + LFTs

d)

Pelvic exam + ultrasound

31.

Which is one of the ultrasound components of BPP?

a)

Maternal BP trend

b)

Maternal glucose level

c)

Fetal breathing movements

d)

Placental swab culture

32.

In a BPP, each normal parameter receives how many points?

a)

1 point

b)

2 points

c)

3 points

d)

4 points

33.

A BPP score of 8–10 is interpreted as:

a)

Strongly suspect fetal asphyxia

b)

Suspect fetal asphyxia

c)

Equivocal

d)

Normal/low risk of fetal asphyxia

34.

A BPP score of 4 is interpreted as:

a)

Abnormal; concern for fetal compromise/asphyxia

b)

Normal

c)

Reassuring if NST is reactive

d)

Normal if fluid is normal

35.

A nurse explains CST [contraction stress test] is positive when:

a)

At least 3 contractions occur with no late decelerations

b)

2 accelerations occur in 20 minutes

c)

Late decelerations occur with ≥50% of contractions

d)

Variable decelerations occur once

36.

A nurse explains CST [contraction stress test] is negative when:

a)

Late decelerations occur with 50% of contractions

b)

No contractions occur

c)

At least 3 contractions occur with no late decelerations

d)

NST is nonreactive

37.

Which client should NOT receive CST due to risk?

a)

Client with placenta previa and bleeding

b)

Client at 41 weeks with decreased fetal movement

c)

Client with no bleeding and reactive NST

d)

Client with normal ultrasound

38.

A provider orders CST for a client with multiple gestation and preterm labor risk. Best nurse action?

a)

Prepare oxytocin and proceed

b)

Hold CST and notify provider (risk of inducing labor)

c)

Perform digital exam first

d)

Start magnesium sulfate to stimulate contractions

39.

A nurse is teaching quad screen timing. Which is best?

a)

10–13 weeks

b)

14–22 weeks

c)

16–18 weeks (commonly taught window)

d)

After 28 weeks

40.

Quad screen analytes include:

a)

AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol, inhibin A

b)

TSH, T3, T4, cortisol

c)

BUN, creatinine, sodium, potassium

d)

Troponin, BNP, CK-MB, D-dimer

41.

 

  1. A client becomes pale/dizzy when lying flat at 30 weeks. What is the priority action?

a)

Place supine with legs elevated

b)

Encourage Valsalva maneuver

c)

Turn to left lateral position

d)

Give rapid oral glucose

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