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Worksheets

a320 el

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 61hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A fuel cross-feed valve is usually in

a)

Closed Position.

b)

Both Position

c)

Left Position.

d)

Right Position.

2.

The primary purpose of an aircraft's fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a

a)

Reduce Weight

b)

Weight Balance

c)

reduced fire hazard.

d)

To Landing

3.

Integral tanks are

a)

cavities within the aircraft's airframe itself.

b)

external tanks needs to be fabricated.

c)

external tanks required to put in the airframe.

d)

there is no such type of fuel tank.

4.

When refueling

a)

the fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full.

b)

the fuel nozzle will manually cut off by pilot.

c)

it is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.

d)

it is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.

5.

Microbial growth is

a)

red dots

b)

brown black slime

c)

green sludge

d)

yellow dots

6.

A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with

a)

tanks completely full.

b)

tanks with unusable fuel.

c)

tanks empty apart from unusable fuel.

d)

tanks completely empty.

7.

On large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using

a)

a parallel system.

b)

a series system.

c)

a separate system for each engine.

d)

the same system for each engine.

8.

In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place

a)

below the fungal colonies.

b)

the top of the tank.

c)

the bottom 2 inches of the tank.

d)

the side of the tank.

9.

Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from

a)

tank to tank.

b)

left tank to right tank.

c)

any tank to any engine.

d)

none all above.

10.

The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is

a)

to ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently.

b)

To prevent water flows to fuel tank

c)

to ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological contamination.

d)

to ensure that all available fuel can be used.

11.

To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal you would

a)

close the cross-bleed valve.

b)

close the HP fuel lock.

c)

Emergency shut off

d)

pull the fire handle.

12.

The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they

a)

are safer on fire hazard compare to others

b)

use the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.

c)

are easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.

d)

are cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain.

13.

In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates

a)

pump failure.

b)

the tank does not pressurized.

c)

Fuel is lower than normal level.

d)

ice blockage, filter popped or pump fail.

14.

A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated

a)

by internal cooling.

b)

by air.

c)

by the fuel.

d)

by lubricant.

15.

A fuel tank suction valve will open when

a)

the booster pump fails.

b)

either the engine driven pump fails or booster pump fails.

c)

the engine driven pump fails.

d)

both the engine driven and booster pump fails.

16.

A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on

a)

engine cross feed system

b)

fuel jettison system.

c)

fuel tank vent pipes.

d)

the APU fuel feed.

17.

A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to

a)

prevent the center from being defueled.

b)

prevent the dumping of the outer tanks.

c)

automatically stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time.

d)

prevent fuel back pressure

18.

The purpose of control cable regulators is to

a)

maintain flight level.

b)

maintain preset cable tensions during flight.

c)

compensate for low temperature only.

d)

compensate for high temperature only.

19.

A yaw damper gain could be fitted with

a)

decreases sensitivity for decreased speed.

b)

increased sensitivity for increased speed.

c)

decreases sensitivity for increased speed.

d)

increased sensitivity for decreased speed.

20.

With respect to flight spoilers, they

a)

can operate both on the ground and in flight.

b)

only emergency situation

c)

only operated on the ground

d)

only operated in flight

21.

In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?

a)

Flight control computer.

b)

Flight augmentation computer.

c)

Air data computer.

d)

Flight management computer.

22.

What is an aileron balance cable for?

a)

To allow the cable to be tensioned.

b)

To correct for wing heaviness.

c)

To allow aircraft to fly hands off.

d)

To correct for balancing aircraft.

23.

A horn balance on a control will

a)

increase degree of movement at high speed.

b)

decrease degree of movement at low speed.

c)

decrease degree of movement at high speed.

d)

increase degree of movement at low speed.

24.

Active load control uses

a)

elevator and aileron.

b)

slat and aileron.

c)

aileron and spoiler.

d)

elevator and stab.

25.

Differential aileron control will

a)

cause difficult to control

b)

cause a nose up moment.

c)

prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.

d)

cause a nose down moment.

26.

On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?

a)

SEC.

b)

ELAC and SEC.

c)

ELAC.

d)

LEC.

27.

How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?

a)

Mach/Speed Trim.

b)

Pitch Trim.

c)

Electric Trim.

d)

Hydraulic Trim.

28.

In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground locks between control surface and balance tabs

a)

would prevent the movement of the control column.

b)

is unnecessary since the system is irreversible.

c)

would not prevent the movement of the control column.

d)

none all above.

29.

What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an undesirable flight attitude?

a)

Trim tabs.

b)

Spring tabs.

c)

Balance tabs.

d)

Trim tabs and Spring tabs.

30.

In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to

a)

the pilots input.

b)

the hydraulic actuator.

c)

the electric system.

d)

the control system computer.

31.

A stick shaker is a device which

a)

gives a short period of landing.

b)

helps extricate an aircraft from soft ground.

c)

gives a short period of extra lift to assist take off.

d)

vibrates the control column near stalling speed.

32.

The purpose of the servo valve in a power operated control is

a)

to provide pressure to operate the control.

b)

to direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilot’s control in cockpit.

c)

to revert the system to manual operation.

d)

A and C is correct

33.

Differential aileron control will

a)

cause difficult to control

b)

cause a nose up moment.

c)

prevent yawing in conjunction with rudder input.

d)

cause a nose down moment.

34.

A servo tab is operated

a)

indirectly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.

b)

by a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.

c)

automatically, and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces.

d)

directly by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.

35.

What type of packing’s should be used in hydraulic components to be installed in a system containing Skydrol?

a)

AN packing’s made of natural rubber.

b)

Packing materials made for ester base fluids.

c)

AN packing’s made of neoprene.

d)

O-ring paking

36.

If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the system is

a)

mineral base oil.

b)

synthetic base oil.

c)

phosphate ester base oil.

d)

water base

37.

The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called

a)

Velocity

b)

viscosity.

c)

acidity.

d)

Vlotage

38.

What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?

a)

The increase in volume of a fluid due to temperature change.

b)

The fluid’s ability to resist oxidation and deterioration for long periods.

c)

The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing.

d)

The fluid ability to make pressure

39.

Which is a characteristic of petroleum base hydraulic fluid?

a)

Flammable under normal conditions.

b)

Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings.

c)

Nonflammable under all conditions.

d)

Fire resistance

40.

What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?

a)

Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.

b)

Prevent hydraulic fluid from foaming.

c)

Prevent tank collapse at altitude.

d)

Make up pressure

41.

Which is a characteristic of phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid?

a)

Low flash point.

b)

Low moisture retention.

c)

High flash point.

d)

High viscoscity

42.

Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil aircraft are

a)

Mineral base, and phosphate ester base.

b)

Mixed mineral base and phosphate ester base.

c)

Petroleum base and mixed mineral base.

d)

Plant base, and phosphate ester base.

43.

Which of the following lists only desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid that has chemical stability?

a)

High viscosity, low flash point, high fire point.

b)

High flash point, low viscosity, low fire point.

c)

Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point.

d)

High flash point, high viscosity, high fire point

44.

Characteristics of MIL-H-8446 (Skydrol 500 A & B) hydraulic fluid are

a)

blue color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

b)

light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

c)

light green color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

d)

black pink color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.

45.

Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to contamination from

a)

ethylene propylene elastomers.

b)

Teflon seal material.

c)

water in the atmosphere.

d)

rubber

46.

Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?

a)

Purple.

b)

Red.

c)

Blue.

d)

yellow

47.

In brake service work, the term “bleeding brake” is the process of

a)

replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.

b)

withdrawing air only from the system.

c)

withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system.

d)

replacing all fluid system

48.

When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications that the air has been purged from the system is

a)

full brake pedal travel.

b)

partial brake pedal travel.

c)

firm brake pedals.

d)

shiny brake pad

49.

Pressure source for power brake

a)

the main hydraulic system.

b)

a master cylinder.

c)

the power brake reservoir.

d)

oil pressure

50.

What should be check when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?

a)

Fluid level.

b)

Air pressure.

c)

Packing seals for correct installation.

d)

oil pressure

51.

Excluding line, which components are required to make up a simple hydraulic system?

a)

Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and shuttle valve.

b)

Actuator, pressure reservoir, accumulator, and selector valve.

c)

Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.

d)

Gen,Pump,FCU,PG

52.

The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to

a)

prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.

b)

reduce excessive wear and turbulence.

c)

distribute the aircraft weight properly.

d)

Airplane can take off faster

53.

What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?

a)

Limit compression stroke.

b)

Maintain correct wheel alignment.

c)

Hold the strut in place.

d)

Smoother landing

54.

The purpose of sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to

a)

prevent heavy landing gear from falling too rapidly upon extension.

b)

provide a means of disconnecting the normal source of hydraulic power and connecting the emergency source of power.

c)

ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.

d)

Faster retrack gear

55.

What type of valve use brake actuating line to isolate emergency brake system

a)

A shuttle valve.

b)

A bypass valve.

c)

An orifice check valve.

d)

check valve

56.

Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main system pump. This fluid is retained to

a)

supply fluid to the auxiliary pump.

b)

prime the main system.

c)

supply fluid to the pressure accumulator.

d)

reservoir

57.

A strip or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending on to sidewall of tube type tire is

a)

wheel weight reference mark.

b)

wheel-to-tire balance mark.

c)

slippage mark.

d)

red dot

58.

A hydraulic accumulator is charged of 1,000 psi. When a hydraulic system pressure of 2,800 psi is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will be

a)

4,000 PSI.

b)

3,000 PSI.

c)

2,800 PSI.

d)

1,000 PSI.

59.

Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid?

a)

Silicone rubber.

b)

Neoprene rubber.

c)

Butyl rubber.

d)

Plastic ribber

60.

A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is

a)

restricted orifices.

b)

internal leakage in the actuating unit.

c)

cold fluid.

d)

high viscosity.

61.

The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to

a)

prevent the tire from skidding.

b)

reduce pressure for brake application.

c)

compensated for thermal expansion.

d)

to prevent excess pressure

62.

Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is an indication of

a)

excessive toe in.

b)

underinflation.

c)

overinflation.

d)

Hard landing

63.

What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?

a)

Provides steering of aircraft during ground operation.

b)

Straightens the nosewheel.

c)

Provides an internal shimmy damper.

d)

all correct

64.

Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause

a)

the pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied.

b)

fading brakes.

c)

slow release of brakes.

d)

brake lock

65.

How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?

a)

By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.

b)

By noting the amount of fluid return to the master cylinder upon brake release.

c)

By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the system pressure gauge for smooth, full-scale deflection.

d)

All correct

66.

A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is

a)

advanced and gear is down and locked.

b)

advanced and gear is down and unlocked.

c)

retarded and gear is down and locked.

d)

retarded and gear is not down and locked.

67.

Select the three pressurization terms used in aircraft pressurization systems.

a)

Cabin altitude

b)

Cabin differential pressure

c)

Cabin rate of climb

d)

Outside air temperature

e)

Bleed air temperature

68.

Usually there are three cockpit indications for pressurization systems. Which instruments provide these indications? Select all that apply.

a)

The cabin altimeter

b)

Cabin rate of climb or vertical speed indicator

c)

Cabin differential pressure indicator

d)

Outside air temperature gauge

e)

Fuel flow indicator

69.

Which of these is not a consequence of cross-contamination of vapor cycle refrigerants?

a)

Reduced performance

b)

Increased operating costs due to separation and purification

c)

Fines from the EPA

d)

Lubrication problems

70.

A system incorporating a compressor/expansion turbine unit is called a/an

a)

Bootstrap system

b)

Closed air-cycle system

c)

Heat exchanger system

d)

Open air-cycle system

71.

Which of these cabin pressurization system checks tests the structural integrity of the fuselage?

a)

Cabin static pressure test

b)

Cabin pressure dynamic pressure test

c)

Low-stage bleed port test

d)

Pressure regulator operation test

72.

Preventing over-pressurization and subsequent damage to the aircraft structure is the job of the

a)

Pressurization safety valve

b)

Cabin pressure dump valve

c)

Air exchanger

d)

Outflow valve

73.

A negative pressure relief valve is included on pressurized aircraft to ensure

a)

that air pressure outside the aircraft does not exceed cabin air pressure.

b)

that cabin differential pressure is maintained at all times.

c)

that cabin rate of climb is limited during descent.

d)

that outflow valves remain closed during rapid descents.

74.

A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by

a)

expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.

b)

directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.

c)

air supply to the cabin.

d)

using cold coil

75.

The purpose of mixing bleed air is to provide

a)

humidity control for the cabin.

b)

increased manifold pressure for the engine.

c)

regulated temperature.

d)

improved fuel economy.

76.

In a Freon system, the component where refrigerant gives up heat and changes from vapor to liquid is the

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Receiver

d)

Compressor

77.

A malfunction in a Freon system called slugging occurs when

a)

The thermostatic expansion valve does not have enough refrigerant

b)

The thermostatic expansion valve has too much refrigerant

c)

Liquid refrigerant enters the compressor

d)

Heat is removed from the Freon in the condenser, condensing it to a liquid

78.

Combustion heater control by thermostat circuit is accomplished with a

a)

Thermostat cycling switch

b)

Thermal fuse

c)

Pressure regulator

d)

Outflow valve

79.

Ventilating air for a combustion heater is supplied on the ground by

a)

a ram-air scoop only.

b)

an electrically driven blower.

c)

the fuel pump.

d)

an exhaust ejector.

80.

Negative relief valves

a)

open to prevent negative differential pressure when outside pressure exceeds that inside the aircraft by a predetermined amount.

b)

close to maintain maximum cabin pressure during climb.

c)

vent fuel vapors from the combustion heater.

d)

are used only on unpressurized aircraft.

81.

A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a

a)

device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent to be released.

b)

pressure relief valve for fire bottles.

c)

manual discharge handle.

d)

temperature-sensing element.

82.

On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed?

a)

Replace the extinguisher container.

b)

Recharge it to the nominal pressure regardless of limits.

c)

Leave it in service if temperature is normal.

d)

Purge the system and reinstall the same container.

83.

What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built-in fire-extinguisher system?

a)

A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line

b)

A pressure switch in the cockpit

c)

A change in cabin differential pressure

d)

A signal from the thermostat cycling switch

84.

A thermal switch fire-detection system uses

a)

a bimetallic thermostat switch.

b)

a thermocouple loop.

c)

a pressure sensor.

d)

an optical detector.

85.

A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by

a)

weighing the container and its contents.

b)

inspecting the red plastic disk.

c)

reading the cockpit pressure gauge.

d)

listening for gas flow when actuated.

86.

Which fire extinguisher is best for use in occupied personnel areas?

a)

CO2

b)

Halon 1301

c)

Halon 1011

d)

Dry powder

87.

Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with

a)

halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen.

b)

compressed air only.

c)

CO2 and oxygen.

d)

argon and helium.

88.

A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because

a)

it generates a small current when heated.

b)

it closes a mechanical switch when cooled.

c)

it senses differential pressure in the loop.

d)

it emits light when energized.

89.

The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection systems is

a)

dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections.

b)

electrical shorts in cockpit wiring.

c)

empty fire-extinguisher bottles.

d)

blocked outflow valves.

90.

Which of these can happen if an oxygen cylinder valve is opened too quickly?

a)

The oxygen cylinder can become a projectile

b)

The regulator diaphragm can rupture allowing high pressure gas to escape

c)

The cylinder is rendered useless

d)

The valve is destroyed and must be replaced before using the cylinder

91.

Which of these components of a Freon system is supported by all of the other components in the system, and is where the actual cooling is done?

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Receiver

d)

Compressor

92.

Which of these components of a Freon system senses evaporator conditions and meters refrigerant to satisfy them?

a)

Receiver

b)

Evaporator

c)

Expansion valve

d)

Surge valve and temperature controls

93.

Which of these maintains the cabin pressure in a pressurized fuselage?

a)

Cabin pressure dump valve

b)

Pressurization safety valve

c)

Outflow valve

d)

Air exchanger

94.

Oxygen content and atmospheric pressure remain high enough to maintain almost full saturation of the blood with oxygen, ensuring normal body and mental functions, up to what altitude?

a)

10,000 feet above sea level

b)

7,000 feet above sea level

c)

15,000 feet above sea level

d)

One mile above sea level

95.

In the event of failure of the fixed oxygen systems, portable oxygen systems are used primarily to maintain:

a)

Cabin pressure

b)

Passenger comfort and safety

c)

Crew functions

d)

Cabin oxygen levels

96.

At what altitude will unconsciousness likely occur without an oxygen supply and where blood oxygen saturation is down to 50–55 percent?

a)

25,000 feet above sea level

b)

15,000 feet above sea level

c)

Two miles above sea level

d)

10,000 feet above sea level

97.

Regarding the marking on an oxygen cylinder after manufacture, the plus-rating indicates that the cylinder

a)

Meets the requirements for a 10-year retest

b)

Has been hydrostatically tested

c)

Must be retired after 4,380 fillings

d)

Qualifies for a 10% overfill rating

98.

Regarding oxygen breathing regulators, A&P technicians are responsible for

a)

Remove and installation

b)

Component maintenance

c)

Training on pressure-demand regulators

d)

Adjusting the pressure as the altitude changes

99.

The success or failure of high-altitude flight depends primarily on the proper functioning of which component, referred to as the heart of the oxygen system?

a)

Oxygen mask

b)

Distribution line

c)

Oxygen system check valve

d)

Oxygen breathing regulator

100.

The pneumatic system pump is a

a)

Centrifugal type

b)

Rotor valve type

c)

Piston type

d)

Gear pump

101.

Two compressors driven by separate engines use

a)

Interconnected to share loads

b)

NRVs to prevent compressors driving each other

c)

PRVs

d)

LPG and NGV

102.

Not interface of pneumatic system?

a)

APU

b)

Wing, tail, anti-icing

c)

Engine, APU extinguisher

d)

Brake

103.

Type detector, fixable metallic use?

a)

Leak by thermal switch

b)

Leak by failure loop

c)

Leak by pressure switch

d)

Leak by bimetallic switch

104.

Low stage pressure 3636 psi, what component actuate?

a)

PRV

b)

OPV

c)

HPV

d)

TLT

105.

Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by

a)

Installation of neoprene foam insulation

b)

Wrapping the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons

c)

Placing the pipes adjacent to hot water piping

d)

placing pipe in side bleed air

106.

A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.

a)

Close toilet until landing

b)

You can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet

c)

It can be overcome by thermal compensating device

d)

All correct

107.

Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by

a)

Thermal protection

b)

Water cooling

c)

Cooling fan on timer switch

d)

Ram air

108.

How is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?

a)

By a pressure sensitive switch that causes the pressurization pump to turn on or off as required

b)

By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set

c)

By a pressure sensitive valve that controls the output pressure of the pressurization pump

109.

The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurized aircraft is to relieve

a)

All positive pressure from the cabin

b)

A negative pressure differential

c)

Pressure in excess of the maximum differential

d)

Decrease pressure from cabin

110.

Which of these types of damage to a combustion heater can be repaired?

a)

Deformation due to overheating

b)

Small fatigue cracks

c)

Soft and spongy metal due to overheating

d)

Deformation due to backfiring, but causing less than a 10 percent drop in ventilating air pressure

111.

When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in

a)

Parallel with each other and in series with the light

b)

Series with each other and in parallel with the light

c)

Parallel with each other and in parallel with the light

d)

Series with each other and in series with the light

112.

A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because

a)

It generates a small current when heated

b)

It changes resistance sharply when heated

c)

It opens the circuit when heated

d)

It closes the circuit mechanically when heated

113.

According to the module overview on ice and rain protection, which media are used for de-icing systems in aircraft?

a)

Electrical

b)

Hot air

c)

Pneumatic

d)

Chemical

114.

The cabin air pressure regulator maintains cabin altitude at a selected level in which range?

a)

Isobaric range

b)

Adiabatic range

c)

Supersonic range

d)

Hydrostatic range

115.

To limit cabin pressure to a preset differential, the regulator controls the position of which valve?

a)

Cabin outflow valve

b)

Intake valve

c)

Pressure relief valve

d)

Fuel vent valve

116.

Normal operation of the cabin air pressure regulator requires which operator inputs?

a)

Selection of the desired cabin altitude

b)

Adjustment of the barometric scale

c)

Selection of the cabin rate of climb

d)

Selection of wing anti-ice temperature

117.

The position of the outflow valve directly controls the amount of what, thereby determining cabin pressure?

a)

Cabin air allowed to leave the pressure vessel

b)

Oxygen flow to passenger masks

c)

Engine bleed air temperature

d)

Hydraulic fluid return to reservoir

118.

Pressurized aircraft require a negative pressure relief valve that opens under which condition?

a)

Outside air pressure is greater than cabin pressure

b)

Cabin pressure is greater than outside air pressure

c)

Cabin temperature exceeds outside temperature

d)

Outside humidity drops below cabin humidity

119.

The vacuum relief valve described for pressurized aircraft is best characterized as what type of mechanism?

a)

A flapper valve hinged to its seat

b)

A variable-orifice needle valve

c)

A gear-driven poppet valve

d)

An electrically actuated solenoid valve

120.

What are stated reasons for providing emergency oxygen to passengers via the passenger oxygen system?

a)

Rapid cabin decompression due to a failure in the pressurization system

b)

Insufficient cabin air inflow

c)

Routine altitude changes during normal climb

d)

Engine thrust limiting activation

121.

Aircraft pneumatic systems may interface with which other aircraft systems, as listed?

a)

Air conditioning system

b)

Auxiliary power unit (APU)

c)

Wing and tail anti-ice system

d)

Engine and APU fire extinguishing system

e)

Engine thrust control and limiting system