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Introduction and Work-based Learning

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In integrating work-based learning, which activity most aligns with exploration?

a)

Entering a full-time apprenticeship

b)

Job shadowing at a local lab

c)

Sitting for end-of-course exams

d)

Completing a college application

2.

Which term describes the physical arrangement of bone and body tissue, including skeletal structure, muscling, fat balance, straightness of lines, and structural soundness?

a)

Finish of the animal

b)

Conformation of the animal

c)

Body capacity depth

d)

Breed character traits

3.

Well-muscled animals typically show fullness through which regions?

a)

Neck poll brisket

b)

Muzzle dewlap crest

c)

Hock pastern cannon

d)

Back loin rump

4.

Poorly muscled animals often exhibit which appearance?

a)

Flat defined outline

b)

Rounded soft finish

c)

Deep rib capacity

d)

Straight long legs

5.

Which factor refers to the amount of fat an animal has?

a)

Finish level

b)

Frame size

c)

Breed character

d)

Structural soundness

6.

Structural soundness focuses on the arrangement of bone and muscle tissue and requires what in the legs and feet?

a)

Short compact legs

b)

Excessive fat cover

c)

Soft cartilage joints

d)

Adequate bone foot

7.

Body capacity is typically analyzed from which view of the animal?

a)

Front view

b)

Top view

c)

Side view

d)

Rear view

8.

Frame size should be proportional to which other trait for balanced growth potential?

a)

Muscle development

b)

Head shape

c)

Coat color

d)

Horn length

9.

Animals should display appropriate breed character as defined by which source?

a)

Local market

b)

Veterinary clinic

c)

Feed company

d)

Breed association

10.

Which description best defines balance in animal evaluation?

a)

Prominent head features

b)

High fat over ribs

c)

Body parts blend attractively

d)

Large framed with milk

11.

Livestock are compared to similar breed, age, and sex to determine ability to produce high quality protein products. What is this process called?

a)

USDA grading

b)

Companion selection

c)

Culling decisions

d)

Food animal selection

12.

Breeding animals are selected based on conformation, breed character, structural soundness of feet and legs, and which capacity?

a)

Coat pattern

b)

Horn circumference

c)

Nervous response

d)

Body capacity

13.

Market animals are primarily selected based on muscle, frame size, body capacity, finish, and which trait?

a)

Age alone

b)

Pedigree length

c)

Color preference

d)

Structural soundness

14.

Which average market weight is typical for hogs?

a)

1300 pounds

b)

270 pounds

c)

125 pounds

d)

75 pounds

15.

Beef cattle have which average market weight in common industry practice?

a)

900 pounds

b)

125 pounds

c)

270 pounds

d)

1300 pounds

16.

Lambs often have an average market weight around which value?

a)

225 pounds

b)

125 pounds

c)

270 pounds

d)

1300 pounds

17.

Ethnic markets may prefer lighter lamb weights approximately how many pounds?

a)

50 pounds

b)

75 pounds

c)

150 pounds

d)

95 pounds

18.

Companion animal selection standards are not based on processed products. Which categories are typical purposes?

a)

Pets recreation entertainment

b)

Guarding herding racing

c)

Dairy fiber traction

d)

Research slaughter tanning

19.

Which is an additional criterion to consider when selecting animals, focusing on behavior?

a)

Attitude and docility

b)

Horn development

c)

Ear length

d)

Tail set

20.

Pedigree in animal selection refers to which concept?

a)

Ancestry of an animal

b)

Amount of finish

c)

Daily weight gain

d)

Market classification

21.

Average Daily Gain is identified by comparing which periods of growth?

a)

Gestation to birth

b)

Weaning to yearling

c)

Birth to weaning

d)

Market to slaughter

22.

Which exam assesses fertility and is recommended before breeding season?

a)

Breeding Soundness Exam

b)

Ultrasound Carcass Scan

c)

Complete Blood Count

d)

Respiratory Function Test

23.

Scrotal circumference measurement indicates fertility by placing a scrotal tape where?

a)

Across pelvic crest

b)

Along sheath midline

c)

Below tailhead joint

d)

Around scrotum widest point

24.

Sperm motility measures the percentage of sperm that do what?

a)

Attach to egg wall

b)

Rotate in place

c)

Change head shape

d)

Move forward direction

25.

Sperm morphology determines if sperm have abnormalities that would prevent which outcome?

a)

Milk letdown

b)

Hoof hardness

c)

Egg fertilization

d)

Muscle growth

26.

Expected Progeny Differences in cattle compare animals within a breed based on genetic potential for what?

a)

Specific trait

b)

Market price

c)

Disease risk

d)

Feed flavor

27.

Which EPD value corresponds to birth weight?

a)

ACC ratio

b)

WW index

c)

BW measure

d)

$B value

28.

Which EPD corresponds to weaning weight performance?

a)

WW measure

b)

BW index

c)

$M value

d)

ACC ratio

29.

Sow Productivity Index provides an indication of which performance?

a)

Hoof integrity

b)

Feed conversion

c)

Carcass marbling

d)

Sow reproductive

30.

Culling refers to which management action in herds?

a)

Expanding pasture size

b)

Increasing feed energy

c)

Adding new sires

d)

Removing poor traits

31.

Which is NOT a typical reason to cull animals?

a)

Undesirable temperament

b)

Superior genetics

c)

Reproductive inefficiency

d)

Long term disease issues

32.

Companion animals not meeting selection criteria can be castrated or spayed to prevent what?

a)

Traits carried to offspring

b)

Increased market weight

c)

Improved wool fineness

d)

Higher milk production

33.

Producers should keep records to identify which animals to do what?

a)

Retain for draft

b)

Market for fiber

c)

Select for show

d)

Cull from herd

34.

Quality features for meat animals are classified into grades determined by which agency?

a)

USDA authority

b)

EPA office

c)

FDA group

d)

NIH division

35.

Meat grades indicate quality rather than which aspect, which is determined by separate inspection?

a)

Color uniformity

b)

Market value

c)

Nutrient content

d)

Sanitation safety

36.

Beef quality grades are determined by age or maturity, muscling firmness, and amount of which distribution in lean meat?

a)

Marbling fat

b)

Protein fiber

c)

Water content

d)

Mineral ash

37.

Marbling is defined as which pattern of fat within the ribeye muscle?

a)

Thick layer under hide

b)

Deposits around joints

c)

Intermingling among muscle fiber

d)

Even coating across surface

38.

Which USDA Quality Grade is the highest for beef cattle?

a)

Prime grade

b)

Standard grade

c)

Choice grade

d)

Select grade

39.

Which USDA Quality Grade is below Prime and above Select for beef cattle?

a)

Choice grade

b)

Prime grade

c)

Standard grade

d)

Utility grade

40.

Which USDA Quality Grade listed is the lowest among Prime, Choice, and Select?

a)

Superior grade

b)

Prime grade

c)

Select grade

d)

Choice grade

41.

Which factor is part of pork quality grade "Acceptable" in retail cuts?

a)

Large loin eye area measurement

b)

High backfat thickness at 10th rib

c)

Thick muscling score over ribeye

d)

Firm lean meat with small marbling

42.

Yield grade in food animals primarily relates to which concept?

a)

Value from higher dressing percentage

b)

Tenderness from firm muscle

c)

Flavor from increased marbling

d)

Color from reddish-pink lean

43.

For market swine, what measurement is commonly taken at the 10th rib?

a)

Hot carcass weight value

b)

Muscling score category

c)

Loin eye area dimension

d)

Backfat thickness for finish

44.

Which trait is preferred when selecting beef cows?

a)

High backfat over ribeye

b)

Low carcass dressing percent

c)

Excessive milk production levels

d)

Medium to large frame size

45.

When selecting dairy cattle, which record helps identify maternal and paternal lines?

a)

Average daily gain logs

b)

Somatic cell score chart

c)

Feed conversion ratio sheet

d)

Pedigree documentation records

46.

Which statement best describes the mission of the National FFA Organization?

a)

Training adults for federal agricultural regulatory compliance

b)

Providing scholarships for collegiate agricultural researchers

c)

Educating students in advanced animal genetics and physiology

d)

Preparing members for premier leadership and personal growth

47.

What is the FFA motto?

a)

Learning to Do, Doing to Learn, Earning to Live, Living to Serve

b)

Lead to Inspire, Grow to Achieve, Serve to Succeed

c)

Practice to Perfect, Study to Excel, Work to Prosper

d)

Think to Plan, Act to Win, Share to Care

48.

Which symbol on the FFA emblem represents unity?

a)

The eagle carrying the flag

b)

The owl perched above the emblem

c)

The rising sun behind the plow

d)

The cross section of the ear of corn

49.

On the FFA emblem, what does the owl symbolize?

a)

Knowledge and wisdom in agriculture

b)

Progress and the promise of a new day

c)

Strength and freedom in the nation

d)

Hard work and tillage of the soil

50.

Which officer is responsible for presiding over meetings and maintaining order?

a)

Treasurer with the bust of Washington symbol

b)

Reporter with the flag symbol

c)

Secretary with the ear of corn symbol

d)

President with the rising sun symbol

51.

What symbol is associated with the FFA Vice President?

a)

The plow representing labor and tillage

b)

The shield representing parliamentary law

c)

The flag representing national pride

d)

The key representing knowledge gained

52.

Which FFA officer keeps the financial records and is linked to the bust of Washington?

a)

Advisor guiding student learning

b)

Sentinel welcoming members

c)

Treasurer responsible for funds

d)

Reporter handling public relations

53.

What is the role associated with the FFA Secretary?

a)

Maintains minutes and attendance records

b)

Leads ceremonies and sets agendas

c)

Coordinates community service events

d)

Handles finances and receipts

54.

Which emblem element signifies the national scope of FFA?

a)

The plow crossing the rising sun

b)

The owl at the center of the shield

c)

The eagle perched atop the emblem

d)

The rope encircling the emblems

55.

What does the rising sun on the FFA emblem represent?

a)

Wisdom gained through experience

b)

Unity across states and chapters

c)

Progress and the promise of a new day

d)

Freedom and national leadership

56.

Which officer’s symbol is the shield or cross representing parliamentary law?

a)

Parliamentarian ensuring proper procedure

b)

Advisor providing guidance to members

c)

Historian preserving chapter records

d)

Chaplain leading reflections and invocations

57.

The plow on the FFA emblem most closely represents which concept?

a)

Knowledge, experience, and sound judgment

b)

Unity among members across the nation

c)

National pride, freedom, and opportunity

d)

Labor and the historic foundation of agriculture

58.

Which term refers to milk produced first after a mammal gives birth that contains antibodies for the offspring’s immunity?

a)

Parturition

b)

Lactation

c)

Colostrum

d)

Gestation

59.

What is the union of sperm and egg cells called?

a)

Ovulation

b)

Implantation

c)

Fertilization

d)

Oogenesis

60.

Which term describes the length of time during which a female is pregnant?

a)

Gestation

b)

Ovulation

c)

Lactation

d)

Puberty

61.

Which method allows a veterinarian to feel the fetus with the hand to detect pregnancy?

a)

Urine protein test

b)

Palpation exam

c)

Blood hormone test

d)

Ultrasound imaging

62.

What is the act of giving birth in cattle called?

a)

Kindling

b)

Queening

c)

Whelping

d)

Calving

63.

During gestation, where does the fetus develop?

a)

Cervix

b)

Oviduct

c)

Vagina

d)

Uterus

64.

Which is the normal position of the front feet of the fetus at birth to allow shoulders to pass?

a)

Crossed over each other

b)

Pointing backward toward hips

c)

Slightly offset from each other

d)

Tucked tightly together

65.

Which event begins the parturition process?

a)

Increase in estrogen causing uterine contraction

b)

Rupture of the second water bag

c)

Expulsion of the placenta

d)

Decrease in progesterone

66.

What female structure is the site of egg production (oogenesis)?

a)

Cervix

b)

Ovaries

c)

Uterus

d)

Vagina

67.

Which tube connects each infundibulum to the uterus and is the site of fertilization of the egg?

a)

Epididymis

b)

Urethra

c)

Oviduct (fallopian tube)

d)

Vas deferens

68.

What structure creates a barrier between the developing fetus and the exterior of the body?

a)

Cervix

b)

Placenta

c)

Sheath

d)

Vulva

69.

Which male structure is the site of sperm production (spermatogenesis)?

a)

Prostate gland

b)

Epididymis

c)

Testicles

d)

Seminal vesicles

70.

What is the function of the epididymis in the male reproductive system?

a)

Store and mature sperm cells

b)

Carry urine and semen

c)

Filter urethral fluids

d)

Produce testosterone

71.

Which gland mixes fluid with seminal fluids and acts as a filter near the urethra?

a)

Sigmoid flexure

b)

Seminal vesicles

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Cowper’s gland

72.

Which external male structure protects the penis?

a)

Vas deferens

b)

Sigmoid flexure

c)

Sheath

d)

Scrotum

73.

Which goal best matches an informative speech?

a)

Influence attitudes toward a policy

b)

Teach new facts and concepts

c)

Call listeners to immediate action

d)

Refute an opponent's claims

74.

Which goal best matches a persuasive speech?

a)

Explain a process step by step

b)

Define technical vocabulary clearly

c)

Summarize neutral background

d)

Change beliefs or behaviors

75.

What is the primary purpose of a speech introduction?

a)

Deliver final takeaways

b)

Provide complete references

c)

Establish credibility and preview

d)

Present detailed evidence

76.

Which element most effectively gains attention at the start?

a)

Extended acknowledgments

b)

Dense statistical tables

c)

A relevant story or question

d)

Long biography of the speaker

77.

Which statement best describes a clear thesis in a speech?

a)

A single, specific central claim

b)

A list of unrelated facts

c)

A series of rhetorical questions

d)

A quotation without explanation

78.

What should a conclusion primarily do?

a)

Repeat the full introduction

b)

Recap key points and close

c)

Provide lengthy citations

d)

Introduce new subtopics

79.

Which technique strengthens a conclusion?

a)

Add unvetted statistics

b)

End with a memorable clincher

c)

Open a new debate topic

d)

Shift to a different audience

80.

Audience analysis primarily helps a speaker to do what?

a)

Avoid organizing content

b)

Tailor message to listeners

c)

Ignore cultural context

d)

Eliminate all emotion

81.

Which factor is most relevant in demographic audience analysis?

a)

Room temperature readings

b)

Seating row letter codes

c)

Age, education, and size

d)

Microphone brand and color

82.

Which adaptation suits a specialized expert audience?

a)

Use advanced terminology briefly

b)

Eliminate all technical terms

c)

Avoid definitions completely

d)

Rely only on anecdotes

83.

Which strategy best supports an informative speech’s neutrality?

a)

Ad hominem critiques

b)

Calls to vote immediately

c)

Loaded language and moralizing

d)

Balanced sources and explanations

84.

Which manual is the most widely used guide for conducting formal meetings in the United States?

a)

Jefferson's Parliamentary Notes

b)

Cannon's Guide to Meetings

c)

Mason's Manual of Practice

d)

Robert's Rules of Order

85.

What is the usual sequence called that outlines the agenda items in a formal meeting?

a)

Chain of Command

b)

Order of Business

c)

Schedule of Motions

d)

Program of Debate

86.

In parliamentary procedure, what is the primary purpose of rules during meetings?

a)

Guarantee unanimous votes

b)

Limit member participation

c)

Ensure fairness and efficiency

d)

Prevent all debate entirely

87.

Which term refers to a formal suggestion brought before the group for consideration?

a)

A ballot

b)

A minute

c)

A motion

d)

A quorum

88.

What does quorum mean in the context of meetings?

a)

Number of officers present at the table

b)

Exact number of votes to pass a motion

c)

Minimum members required to conduct business

d)

Maximum speakers allowed during debate

89.

Which voting method involves members verbally saying “aye” or “no”?

a)

Voice vote

b)

Show of hands

c)

Roll-call

d)

Ballot vote

90.

Which voting method best preserves member anonymity on controversial issues?

a)

Show of hands

b)

Voice vote

c)

Division of the house

d)

Ballot vote

91.

What is typically the first item in the standard order of business?

a)

Call to order

b)

New business

c)

Unfinished business

d)

Program announcements

92.

During debate, what is the chair’s role regarding recognition?

a)

Choose only officers to speak

b)

Prevent members from making motions

c)

Allow simultaneous speaking by multiple members

d)

Grant the floor to one speaker at a time

93.

Which action is used to end debate and proceed to an immediate vote?

a)

Move the previous question

b)

Refer the motion to a committee

c)

Lay the motion on the table

d)

Postpone the motion indefinitely

94.

What report summarizes actions taken and decisions made at a meeting?

a)

Minutes

b)

Agenda

c)

Bylaws

d)

Ballots

95.

Which item in the order of business usually follows approval of minutes?

a)

Program and refreshments

b)

Reports of officers and committees

c)

Adjournment of the meeting

d)

Election of new officers

96.

What does the chair ask to begin voting by voice?

a)

All in favor say aye

b)

Members, mark your ballots

c)

Secretary, call the roll

d)

Hands up for approval

97.

If the voice vote is unclear, which follow-up method verifies the count?

a)

Division of the house

b)

Secret ballot

c)

Roll-call vote

d)

Consent calendar

98.

Which statement best defines a main motion in a meeting?

a)

Temporarily sets aside pending business

b)

Modifies the wording of another motion

c)

Requests correction of procedural errors

d)

Introduces new business for group action

99.

What is the primary purpose of an amendment?

a)

End discussion and force a vote

b)

Introduce a brand-new topic

c)

Change a motion’s wording or meaning

d)

Refer the motion to a committee

100.

Which phrase correctly states how to make a main motion?

a)

Rise, obtain floor, say, “I move that…”, second

b)

Rise, call for orders, say, “I propose…”, vote

c)

Remain seated, say, “I suggest…”, no second

d)

Submit written note, chair reads, automatic vote

101.

Which step happens immediately after a motion is seconded?

a)

Secretary records the result of the vote

b)

Members immediately vote without debate

c)

Maker withdraws the motion if desired

d)

Chair states the question to the assembly

102.

What is required for a point of order to be raised?

a)

Member interrupts to cite a rule breach

b)

Member waits for recognition to speak

c)

Two members stand and demand a vote

d)

Chair invites questions after debate ends

103.

Which action is appropriate when you believe procedure is being violated?

a)

Move to postpone the motion

b)

Make a privileged motion to adjourn

c)

Request unanimous consent to proceed

d)

Call out, “Point of order!” immediately

104.

Which statement describes the chair’s role when a point of order is made?

a)

Poll the assembly for majority opinion

b)

Rule promptly on the point and guide process

c)

Table the point until the next meeting

d)

Refer the point to a standing committee

105.

Which gavel signal usually means the meeting is called to order?

a)

Two slow taps spaced several seconds

b)

A continuous series of light taps

c)

One sharp tap by the presiding officer

d)

Three rapid taps in succession

106.

What does two gavel taps commonly signal?

a)

Open the floor exclusively for debate

b)

Approval of the previous minutes

c)

Immediate adjournment of the meeting

d)

Members should rise or be seated

107.

What does three gavel taps typically indicate?

a)

All members should stand

b)

A vote is about to be taken

c)

A motion has been adopted

d)

Silence and attention required

108.

Which gavel use is appropriate to restore order during noise?

a)

One ceremonial tap to adjourn

b)

Two taps to open new business

c)

A series of firm taps for attention

d)

Three taps to recognize a speaker

109.

Which phrase correctly initiates an amendment during debate?

a)

“I call the previous question now”

b)

“I demand division of the house”

c)

“I move to lay the motion on the table”

d)

“I move to amend by…” stating change

110.

What is typically required for a motion to be considered by the assembly?

a)

A written statement to the clerk

b)

Prior notice at last meeting

c)

Unanimous consent of officers

d)

A second from another member

111.

Which motion is used to correct an error in procedure immediately?

a)

Point of order

b)

Refer to committee

c)

Main motion

d)

Amendment

112.

What should the chair say to place a motion before the assembly?

a)

“All in favor rise and be counted”

b)

“New business is automatically adopted”

c)

“Debate is now closed for voting”

d)

“The question is on the motion…”

113.

Which action is out of order when a point of order is pending?

a)

State the rule that was violated

b)

Listen to the chair’s ruling

c)

Allow the chair to decide promptly

d)

Continue debate on the main motion

114.

Which best describes the symbolism of a single gavel tap after a vote?

a)

Invites informal discussion without record

b)

Declares the meeting permanently adjourned

c)

Signals members to stand in silence

d)

Announces the result and brings order

115.

Which statement explains why amendments are debated before the main motion?

a)

Debate is limited only to procedural points

b)

Voting first prevents unnecessary discussion

c)

Changes must be settled to clarify the question

d)

The chair cannot state the original motion

116.

Which document lists the order of business for a meeting?

a)

Bylaws

b)

Motion form

c)

Minutes

d)

Agenda

117.

What are minutes primarily used to record?

a)

Future goals

b)

Treasury forecasts

c)

Actions taken

d)

Member opinions

118.

Which item is typically included in an agenda?

a)

Call to order

b)

Attendance jokes

c)

Fundraising ads

d)

Personal bios

119.

Who approves minutes at the next meeting?

a)

The treasurer

b)

The chair only

c)

The secretary alone

d)

The assembly

120.

What is the correct motion to end a meeting?

a)

I call the question

b)

I move to adjourn

c)

I move to postpone

d)

I move to recess

121.

When is a motion to adjourn not in order?

a)

During a vote count

b)

During debate

c)

After new business

d)

At the set time

122.

Which vote requirement is typical for ordinary main motions?

a)

Three-fourths vote

b)

Two-thirds vote

c)

Majority vote

d)

Unanimous consent

123.

Which action generally requires a two-thirds vote?

a)

Electing officers

b)

Limiting debate

c)

Adopting minutes

d)

Approving agenda

124.

What is the minimum majority in a body of 21 voters?

a)

11 votes

b)

10 votes

c)

12 votes

d)

13 votes

125.

What does unanimous consent allow the chair to do?

a)

Silence debate

b)

Skip the agenda

c)

Override bylaws

d)

Proceed without objection

126.

Which part of minutes should include motions and their disposition?

a)

Adjournment line

b)

Heading line

c)

Body of minutes

d)

Attendance list

127.

Which statement best describes the chair’s role with the agenda?

a)

Approves minutes alone

b)

Presides and follows

c)

Votes on all items

d)

Writes treasury notes

128.

What is the purpose of a consent agenda?

a)

Elect officers more quickly

b)

Extend debate for reports

c)

Delay controversial motions

d)

Adopt routine items together

129.

Which motion is used to end debate immediately?

a)

Division of assembly

b)

Point of order

c)

Lay on the table

d)

Previous question

130.

If an agenda lists a fixed adjournment time, what happens then?

a)

Meeting ends automatically

b)

Chair must move adjourn

c)

Members must vote adjourn

d)

Secretary declares adjourn

131.

Which vote threshold is required to suspend rules for a special case?

a)

Two-thirds vote

b)

Majority vote

c)

Plurality vote

d)

Presiding approval

132.

Which role primarily focuses on diagnosing and treating animal diseases using medical science?

a)

Animal educator teaching husbandry to handlers

b)

Feed technician formulating ration ingredients

c)

Animal production specialist managing herds daily

d)

Veterinary scientist providing clinical care and research

133.

Which occupation is most likely to design vaccination protocols and analyze disease outbreaks in livestock?

a)

Veterinary epidemiologist in herd health

b)

Animal trainer for police dogs

c)

Genetic counselor for companion animals

d)

Wildlife nutrition assistant

134.

Which career works with reproductive technologies such as artificial insemination in cattle?

a)

Animal behavior consultant for shelters

b)

Livestock reproduction technologist

c)

Veterinary pathologist studying tissues

d)

Companion bird caretaker

135.

Who is primarily responsible for daily feeding, breeding, and health monitoring in a swine operation?

a)

Scientific researcher in pharmacology

b)

Animal production manager on-farm

c)

Public outreach educator at a zoo

d)

Laboratory technician in diagnostics

136.

Which specialist would formulate species-specific rations and balance protein, fats, and minerals?

a)

Animal welfare inspector

b)

Genomics data analyst

c)

Wildlife rehabilitator

d)

Animal nutritionist for livestock

137.

Which role focuses on training animals through reinforcement to create desired behaviors?

a)

Aquaculture systems engineer

b)

Veterinary radiographer

c)

Animal trainer and behaviorist

d)

Meat processing supervisor

138.

Which occupation typically requires a Doctor of Veterinary Medicine (DVM) degree?

a)

Ranch hand performing husbandry

b)

Feed mill operations assistant

c)

Veterinarian providing medical services

d)

Livestock auction coordinator

139.

Which career commonly requires a bachelor’s degree in animal science or a related field?

a)

Entry-level kennel attendant

b)

Veterinary surgeon specialist

c)

Meat packing line worker

d)

Livestock production manager

140.

Which scientific specialist studies animal tissues and organs to diagnose disease at a microscopic level?

a)

Veterinary pathologist analyzing biopsies

b)

Animal ethologist observing play

c)

Ration technologist mixing feed

d)

Aquaculture harvester netting fish

141.

Which job oversees herd genetics, selection, and breeding plans to improve productivity?

a)

Genetic improvement coordinator

b)

Veterinary receptionist

c)

Animal facility custodian

d)

Wildlife tour interpreter