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APES exam Units 4 - 6

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 4hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A home is built with clear glass panels that allow sunlight to pass through. This is an example of

a)

Active solar

b)

Passive solar

c)

Parabolic collector

d)

Photovoltaic Cells

2.

What is given off as the major waste product in a hydrogen fueled car?

a)

H2

b)

O2

c)

H2O2

d)

H2O

3.

The following disadvantages are for which energy source?

· Unpopular, generates protests

· Plants are $$$ to build because of legal challenges

· Potential for catastrophic meltdowns and accidents

· Possible terrorist targets

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

4.

A wheel that changes the force of a moving gas or a liquid into energy

a)

Fossil Fuels

b)

Turbine

c)

Petroleum

d)

Oil Reserves

5.

Fuel cells that use a chemical reaction to generate electricity are using

a)

hydrogen gas

b)

methane gas

c)

water

d)

oil

6.

If a tractor trailer truck is 20% efficient, what happened to the other 80%

a)

energy is destroyed

b)

energy is lost as heat

c)

the 80% is still in the gas tank

d)

energy is converted into matter

7.
How does biomass reduce our carbon footprint by producing less CO2 than fossil fuels?
a)
Plants absorb the same amount of CO2 that is released when it is burned.
b)
Plants remove CO2 from the atmosphere and put it permanently into the ground.
c)
Biomass filters CO2 to make it more environmentally stable.
d)
Biomass doesn't release any CO2 when burned.
8.
Which of the following energy sources has the lowest negative environmental impacts?
a)
Biomass
b)
Nuclear
c)
Natural Gas
d)
Solar
9.
Heating and cooling buildings by exchange with shallow groundwater systems is considered a form of ___ energy.  
a)
geothermal
b)
solar
c)
kinetic
d)
potential
10.
All of the following renewable resources are derived from the sun in some way EXCEPT
a)
biomass
b)
wind
c)
hydroelectric
d)
geothermal
11.

What is an example of cogeneration?

a)
heat energy normally wasted is used to power a turbine
b)
a power plant that gets energy from both nuclear and hydroelectric
c)
a type of wind turbine that can be powered by wind or steam
d)
harvesting natural gas and petroleum from the same field
12.
Most of the developing countries in the world depend on _______ for their main source of energy.
a)
renewable sources
b)
nuclear
c)
biomass (including wood, manure, etc)
d)
coal
13.

Which renewable energy does not require spinning a turbine?

a)

hydroelectric

b)

wind

c)

tidal

d)

photovoltaic cells

14.

This fossil fuel is formed from the remains of small organisms that lived in the ocean AND is a thick, black liquid

a)

natural gas

b)

coal

c)

oil

d)

steam

15.
According to the second law of thermodynamics, whenever one form of energy is transformed into another,
a)
all of the energy is put to work
b)
all of the energy is converted into a less usable form, like heat
c)
some of the energy is converted to a less usable form, like heat
d)
50% of the energy is put to work, the rest is lost as heat
16.
The order of grades of coal from lowest energy content to highest energy content is
a)
anthacrite, lignite, bituminous.
b)
anthracite, bituminous, lignite.
c)
lignite, anthracite, bituminous.
d)
bituminous, lignite, anthracite.
e)
lignite, bituminous, anthracite.
17.

Which of the following is not a biofuel or a biomass?

a)

wood

b)

ethanol from corn

c)

dung

d)

methane

18.
Which conventional fossil fuel resource is in largest supply worldwide?
a)
Biomass
b)
Natural gas
c)
Uranium
d)
Oil
e)
Coal
19.
The countries with the largest supplies of coal are
a)
China, Indonesia, the United States, India
b)
India, Brazil, Russia, China
c)
Russia, Indonesia, China, Brazil
d)
Canada, South Africa, Russia
e)
China, the United States, Russia, India
20.
Which type of electricity generating power plant regularly releases toxic metals such as mercury and lead into the atmosphere?
a)
Nuclear power plant
b)
Coal fired power plant
c)
Natural gas fired power plant
d)
Petroleum fired power plant
e)
Wind energy power plant
21.
Petroleum products are primarily used for
a)
production of kerosene as a fuel source.
b)
extraction of tar and asphalt.
c)
gasoline for transportation.
d)
production of petrochemicals needed for industry.
e)
production of plastics.
22.
The major petroleum producing countries of the world from the greatest amount produced to the least amount produced are
a)
Saudi Arabia, Canada, China
b)
Saudi Arabia, the United States, Mexico.
c)
the United States, Russia, Saudi Arabia.
d)
the United States, Canada, Saudi Arabia.
e)
Saudi Arabia, Russia, the United States.
23.

Which resource consists mostly of CH4 (methane)?

a)
Coal
b)
Natural gas
c)
Oil
d)
Uranium
e)
Biofuel
24.
Which is the cleanest burning fossil fuel?
a)
Coal
b)
Natural gas
c)
Oil
d)
Uranium
25.

Fossil Fuels are

a)

pieces of rock that have been compacted many times

b)

rock that contains 50% plant and animal remains

c)

metamorphic rock

d)

fuels that form from the remains of plant and other organisms that were buried and altered over million of years

26.
What is a possible downside to hydroelectric energy?
a)
generates high levels of pollution 
b)
high startup cost
c)
low functional lifespan
d)
high operation and maintenance cost 
27.

The following disadvantages are for which energy source?

· Mining alters landscapes and endangers humans

· Plants are slow to reach full operating capacity

· Large contributor to acid rain

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

28.

The ADVANTAGES of Fossil Fuels include: (Choose ALL that apply)

a)

low cost

b)

produce a lot of energy

c)

cause air pollution

d)

high cost

29.
One of the risks when fracking for natural gas is _________________________
a)
contamination of drinking water
b)
spills resulting in kerogen exposure in the ecosystem
c)
mine collapse
d)
flooding
30.
A resource that is used faster than we can replace it is known as a
a)
renewable resource
b)
non renewable resource
c)
natural resource
d)
income resource
31.

When lighter atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier element

a)

Nuclear Energy

b)

Nuclear Fission

c)

Nuclear Fusion

d)

Radioactive

32.

When the Nuclei of atoms split and release energy

a)

Nuclear Energy

b)

Nuclear Fission

c)

Nuclear Fusion

d)

Radioactive

33.

The energy within the nucleus of an atom

a)

Nuclear Energy

b)

Nuclear Fission

c)

Nuclear Fusion

d)

Radioactive

34.

The following advantages are for which energy source?

· Cogeneration power plants can have efficiencies up to 60%

· Efficient for cooking, heating, etc.

· Fewer impurities than coal or oil

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

35.

The following advantages are for which energy source?

· Energy-dense and abundant—will last up to 200 years

· No refining needed

· Easy, safe to transport

· Economic backbone of many small towns

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

36.

The following advantages are for which energy source?

· Ideal for mobile combustion engines

· Quick ignition/ turn-off capability

· Cleaner-burning than coal

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

37.

The following disadvantages are for which energy source?

· Risk of leaks/explosions

· 25x more effective as a greenhouse (warming) gas than CO2

· Low availability because pipelines are needed

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

38.

The following disadvantages are for which energy source?

· Significant refining required

· Potential for spills on wildlife habitats

· Significant dust and emissions during construction of rigs and refineries

· Human rights/ environmental justice issues in developing countries that export

Will decrease in availability greatly within 40 years

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

39.
The San Andrea's Fault in California is which type of boundary?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Subductive Zone
d)
Transform
40.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
41.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

42.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

43.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

44.

Mountains are created when....

a)

Two continental plates collide

b)

Two oceanic plates pull apart

c)

An Oceanic plate subducts under a Continental Plate

d)

Two continental plates pull apart

45.

The process by which the ocean floor sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle is known as _______

a)

convection.

b)

continental drift.

c)

subduction.

d)

conduction.

46.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
47.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three components used to determine soil texture?

a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
mud
48.

_______ is the best type of soil to use with plants.

a)
loam
b)

clay

c)

silt

d)

sandy clay

49.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
50.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
51.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

52.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
53.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
54.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
55.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

convection currents in the sathenosphere

c)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

d)

the Moho discontinuity.

56.

The map in the picture shows tectonic plate boundaries. This map would be useful in predicting the location of future

a)

droughts

b)

hurricanes

c)

earthquakes

d)

tornadoes

57.
Which list is in the correct order of atmospheric layers starting from Earth's surface?
a)
troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, exosphere
b)
Thermosphere, stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, exosphere
c)
Exosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere
d)
mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, exosphere, troposphere
58.
Which of the following contributes to the unequal warming of earth?
I. variation in the angle of sunlight that reaches Earth
II. variation in the amount of surface area over which the Sun's rays are distributed
III. variation in the amount of sunlight reflected from clouds
a)
I only
b)
I and II only
c)
II and III only
d)
III only
59.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
60.

Sea surface temperature changes great than .5oC for greater than 5 months across the centeral ropical Pacific Ocean are known as

a)
the arctic effect
b)
the get stream 
c)
a typhoon
d)
El Nino-Southern Oscillation 
61.
The most common gas in the atmosphere (78%).
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Trace gases
62.

This phenomenon occurs when a coastal mountain range blocks the passage of precipitation to the leeward side of the mountains.

a)

thermal inversion

b)

Coriolis effect

c)

rain shadow effect

d)

urban heat island effect

e)

ENSO

63.

Which soil has 40% sand, 30% silt, and 30% clay?

a)

Loam

b)

Clay Loam

c)

Sandy Clay Loam

d)

Sandy Clay

64.

Larger pore spaces generally create soils with

a)

high permeability.

b)

low permeability.

65.

Soils that hold water well typically have a lot of

a)

clay.

b)

sand.

c)

silt.

d)

loam.

66.

When two plates collide, what geologic formations can occur?

a)

Volcanos

b)

Mountain Ranges

c)

Trenches

d)

All of These

67.

When two plates move parallel to each other, but in opposite directions, what can occur when the energy is released after built up tension?

a)

Landslides

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Avalanches

d)

Earthquakes

68.

Islands in the middle of a tectonic plate are usually associated with what phenomena?

a)

subduction zones

b)

hot spots

c)

divergent boundaries

d)

transform faults

69.

The primary cause of Earth's seasons is the

a)

constant tilt of Earth's rotational axis with respect to the plane of its orbit around the Sun

b)

changing distance of Earth from the Sun at different times of the year

c)

periodic wobbling of Earth on its axis of rotation

d)

changing relative positions of Earth, its Moon, and the Sun

70.

The Sun’s radiation provides the energy for all of the following EXCEPT

a)

plant growth

b)

ocean currents

c)

hurricanes

d)

plate tectonics

71.

The SECOND most common gas in our atmosphere is ____.

a)

N

b)

O

c)

Ne

d)

Ar

72.

In which atmospheric layer do all the pressure, wind and precipitation changes occur?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Stratosphere

73.

Which of the following does NOT exert a major influence on Earth's overall climate?

a)

The distribution of land masses and oceans, in combination with Earth's topography.

b)

The daily rotation of Earth on its axis, along with its annual revolution around the sun.

c)

The annual amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth's surface.

d)

All of these can exert a major influence.

74.

What layer of the atmosphere absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

75.

The Coriolis Effect is a result of the Earth's ____.

a)

rotation

b)

gravity

c)

curvature

d)

temperature

76.

Which of the following changes in eastern Pacific Ocean food webs is typically associated with La Niña events?

a)

Decreased populations of squid

b)

Decreased populations of anchovies

c)

Increased phytoplankton concentrations

d)

Increased famine among sea lions and seals

77.

The graph shows the altitude and temperature for different layers of Earth’s atmosphere. Based on the diagram, which of the following identifies a characteristic of the atmosphere between the stratopause and the tropopause?

a)

Cloud formation occurs in the stratosphere.

b)

The warmest air is found in the mesosphere.

c)

The ozone layer is in the stratosphere.

d)

The troposphere is the closest layer to the sun.

78.

Which of the following correctly characterizes one of Earth’s atmospheric layers?

a)

Layer A is the stratosphere, where meteors are found.

b)

Layer B is the troposphere, where weather occurs.

c)

Layer C is the stratosphere, where the ozone layer is found.

d)

Layer D is the thermosphere, where auroras are found.

79.

The diagram is an illustration of global atmospheric circulation. Which of the following is the source of energy driving the circulation pattern labeled C in the diagram?

a)

The Coriolis effect

b)

Solar radiation

c)

Earth's magnetic field

d)

The spinning core of Earth

80.

The diagram is an illustration of global atmospheric circulation. Which of the following causes the air to rise high into the atmosphere in the areas labeled A, B, and C on the diagram?

a)

El Niño circulation patterns

b)

The rotation of Earth shifting the direction of the air upward

c)

Warm, moist air that is less dense than the surrounding air

d)

Rain shadows over mountain ridges

81.

In the desert regions of the southwestern United States, daily high and low temperatures will frequently fluctuate by 40°F (33°C) or more. Which statement below best explains the large variation in temperature?

a)

There are no bordering oceans or large bodies of water to provide a stabilizing humidity to the air.

b)

The nearby Rocky Mountain range provides a rain shadow effect in the evenings to the west.

c)

The flat, light-colored sand formations typical in deserts reflect light from the Sun during the day, but not at night.

d)

Desert plants have long tap roots that pull water from deep in the soil, cooling the desert at night.

82.

The axis of Earth in relation to the Sun is tilted at a 23.5 degree slant, as illustrated in the diagram. If the diagram illustrates Earth’s relative position on December 21 of a given year, which of the following statements would be correct?

a)

The Tropic of Cancer has a shorter day and higher solar radiation intensity because there is an inverse relationship between length of day and radiation intensity.

b)

The Tropic of Capricorn has a shorter day and higher solar radiation intensity because there is a direct relationship between length of day and radiation intensity.

c)

The equator has twelve hours of daylight and the greatest solar radiation intensity because there is no direct relationship between day length and radiation intensity.

d)

The Tropic of Cancer has a shorter day and lower solar radiation intensity because there is a direct relationship between day length and radiation intensity.

83.

At which of the following sites is an earthquake most likely to occur as two plates slide sideways past each other?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

84.

At which of the following sites would activity result in volcanoes, island arcs, and mountains?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

85.

At which of the following sites does seafloor spreading result in rifts and possible volcanoes?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

86.

Which of the following best explains why City B regularly receives less precipitation than City A?

a)

As air rises up the side of the mountain near City B, the temperature and the relative humidity increase, causing increased precipitation on the other side of the mountain over City A.

b)

Air that is forced upward on the side of the mountain near City B leads to the formation of stratospheric clouds.

c)

The urban heat island from City B causes a warmer climate that leads to reduced cloud formation.

d)

The rain shadow effect causes City B to be drier because the mountain blocks precipitation from reaching the city.

87.

Which of the following would be an environmental impact of high density animal farming?

a)

bad smells

b)

livestock can escape

c)

water pollution due to runoff

d)

improvement of feeding efficiency

88.

Because global fisheries have dramatically seen a reduction in fish numbers, this technique has been used recently to supplement that loss.

a)

monocropping

b)

IPM

c)

contour farming

d)

aquaculture

89.

Which of the following is NOT a problem with suburban sprawl?

a)

destruction of habitats

b)

loss of wetlands

c)

noise pollution

d)

air and water pollution

90.

When roots become saturated with water due to over-irrigation, it causes death in plant roots. This is called:

a)

salinization

b)

desertification

c)

agroforestry

d)

waterlogging

91.

The systematic removal of rock or other substance for financial gain.

a)

smelting

b)

mining

c)

urban farming

d)

forestry

92.

One of the advantages to using genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is

a)

reduce the need for pesticides

b)

they are not regulated by the government

c)

the concern about safety to consume

d)

they can cause food allergies

93.

When irrigation water evaporates, salts are left behind on the soil surface and can cause plant death or lead to

a)

soil salinization

b)

desertification

c)

waterlogging

d)

monocropping

94.

What is a natural part of a forest ecosystem and may be required for seed germination?

a)

floods

b)

tornadoes

c)

fire

d)

polar vortex

95.

Use of this method of control requires concentrations to be increased often because pest develop resistance

a)

GMOs

b)

Pestsides

c)

plant removal

d)

control burning

96.

The Green Revolution was

a)

a dramatic increase in crop yields in developing countries

b)

change to more sustainable agriculture

c)

way of fighting soil erosion

d)

power grab by the Green party in the 1980s

97.

What is the problem with timber plantations?

a)

low biodiversity

b)

prone to forest fires

c)

cause soil erosion

d)

absorb excess CO2 from atmosphere

98.

IPM is likely to use all of the following techniques EXCEPT

a)

intercropping.

b)

habitat creation for pest predators.

c)

planting herbicide-resistant crops.

d)

increased use of traditional pesticides.

99.

Overgrazing of grasslands can lead to reduced range quality. Two of the major effects of overgrazing are

a)

erosion and desertification

b)

eutrophication and increased methane production

c)

higher fire potential and increased productivity

d)

higher primary productivity and ammonification

100.

Which of the following is an example of a solution to the tragedy of the commons?

a)

Improving literacy among urban populations

b)

Raising tax rates for large corporations

c)

Inventing stronger antibiotics

d)

Passing a law to set limits for fishermen

101.

Externality

a)

The cost or benefit of a good or service that is not included in the purchase price of that good or service

b)

Land that a community shares

c)

The maximum number of plants that one can harvest

d)

Resources managed by the government or an organization

102.

Emphasis on use of pesticides, herbicides, and monoculture

a)

green revolution

b)

agricultural revolution

c)

industrial revolution

d)

subsistence agriculture

103.

Which of the following is a positive outcome of tilling?

a)

reduced soil drainage

b)

increased soil erosion

c)

increased aeration

d)

decreased crop production

104.

Which of the following type of tree harvesting is the most detrimental to the environment?

a)

Strip Cutting

b)

Selective Cutting

c)

Clear Cutting

d)

Partial Harvest

105.

Minerals are

a)

nonrenewable

b)

renewable

c)

pretty

d)

scarce and expensive

106.

Monocropping has a number of disadvantages. These include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Erosion due to exposure of large areas of soil during planting.

b)

Nutrition and pesticide needs should be similar throughout a single crop.

c)

Pests are likely to attack a monocrop due to the high concentration.

d)

Loss of habitat for natural pest predators.

107.
Industrial Agriculture has many benefits.  Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with industrial agriculture?
a)
The ratio of energy input to calorie output is low.
b)
Larger food production per hectare.
c)
Monoculture can be more efficient.
d)
Economy of scale can make the food less expensive.
108.
Typically, most of the energy subsidies in modern agriculture are in the form of
a)
solar power.
b)
hydroelectric power.
c)
nuclear power.
d)
fossil fuels.
109.
CAFOs make meat more economical, but may have some negative environmental impacts.  These include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
high concentrations of animal waste.
b)
increase in nutrients in stormwater runoff.
c)
increase in sediments in stormwater runoff.
d)
increased use of land area over other types of animal farming.
110.

One way a local community might regulate a shared and limited resource and reduce the tragedy of the commons is to ....

a)

eliminate ownership of the resources and make them available to all

b)

divide the resources into parcels and assign them to individuals

c)

offer subsides to users of the resources in the form of tax breaks

d)

reduce the cost of access to the resources

111.
Marine fisheries are particularly susceptible to the tragedy of the commons because
a)
fish are r-selected species that experience boom and bust cycles.
b)
fish are highly migratory, so they don't belong to any one nation.
c)
pollution is highest in areas with high fish populations.
d)
international waters are governed by antiquated nautical law.
112.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of urban sprawl?

a)

automobile and highway construction

b)

mixed land use

c)

living costs

d)

urban blight

113.

Urban sprawl has caused people in urban areas to drive and own twice as much land

a)

True

b)

False

114.

What is the difference between aquaculture and fisheries?

a)

Aquaculture raises ocean species, while fisheries raises freshwater species

b)

Aquaculture requires feeding fish other fish, while fish in fisheries can eat soybean and corn

c)

Aquaculture involves raising aquatic species, while fisheries are natural resources harvested without direct human input

d)

Fisheries involves raising aquatic species for feeding to aquaculture species

115.

Which of the following environmental effects would most likely result from the clear-cutting of boreal forests by industrial logging operations?

a)

There will be an increase in atmospheric oxygen concentration, which will improve air quality.

b)

There will be an increase in farming on the cleared areas of land, which will reduce incidences of flooding.

c)

There will be an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration, which will contribute to climate change.

d)

There will be a decrease in the temperature of soil and nearby bodies of water, which will increase biodiversity.

116.

Which of the following would decrease with the manufacture, application, and use of synthetic fertilizers rather than organic fertilizers?

a)

Recycling of organic matter

b)

Groundwater pollution

c)

Cultural eutrophication

d)

Use of fossil fuels

117.

Which of the following describes an unintended consequence that results from large-scale agricultural use of water from an aquifer?

a)

The water table level rises too high, leading to excessive flooding.

b)

Much of the water becomes too salty for human consumption because of saltwater intrusion.

c)

Agricultural areas contribute to increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, leading to global climate change.

d)

The rate of water use likely exceeds the rate of recharge, leading to lowering the water table.

118.

Which of the following best describes the advantages and disadvantages of drip irrigation?

a)

This method most efficiently delivers water directly to plant roots compared with other methods, and wastes less water, but it may be too costly for farmers in developing countries to use.

b)

This method is suitable for a range of topographies and is easy to operate, but it requires a high initial investment in machinery.

c)

This method delivers water to the field by pipes and water flows directly over the soil, but there is a large amount of runoff.

d)

This method applies water directly to trenches dug in soil and is cost effective, but water is often lost to evaporation.

119.

A sustainable society would emphasize…

a)

maintaining the current rates of energy flow and resource use

b)

using energy efficiently and reusing and recycling matter

c)

recycling both matter and high-quality energy

d)

converting the world’s high-quality energy resources to low-quality heat

120.

Which of the following methods of meat production would provide the most likely explanation for the information represented in the graph above?

a)

Individual transferable quotas

b)

Concentrated animal feeding operations

c)

Free-range grazing

d)

Organic meat production

121.

A cost-benefit analysis done to investigate a proposed mine site would likely take which of the following into account?


I. The medical costs of mine worker injuries II. The cost of environmental restoration of the site when it is shut down III.The value of the ore to be extracted from the mine

a)

II only

b)

I, II, and III

c)

I and II only

d)

I and III only

122.

An insect population in an agricultural field is affected by monthly applications of a pesticide, as shown in the graph below. A likely cause of the overall increase in the insect population over time is...

a)

a decrease in the moisture content of the soil

b)

an increase in soil salinity

c)

the survival of increasing numbers of resistant insects

d)

an increase in the population of insect predators

123.

Which of the following best describes an environmental advantage of urbanization?

a)

Individuals living in cities usually have a lower transportation carbon footprint than individuals living in rural areas

b)

Individuals living in cities usually have greater access to fresh, local agricultural products than individuals living in rural areas.

c)

Individuals living in cities have more varied employment opportunities than individuals living in rural areas.

d)

Individuals living in cities have greater access to health care than individuals living in rural areas.

124.

Compared with people in developing countries, people in industrialized countries are more likely to eat…

a)

Beef

b)

Corn

c)

Rice

d)

Beans

125.

Which of the following methods should the farmers choose to minimize the cost for efficient pest removal while still reaching their goal of reducing the amount of pollution in the river?

a)

Planting genetically modified crops

b)

Applying a single dose of pesticides

c)

Introducing a natural predator to feed on the pests

d)

Using physical traps

126.

What causes an urban heat island?

a)

large forested areas

b)

pavement and concrete

c)

climate change

d)

mass transit

127.

A tool that developers use to classify land areas for development and land use

a)

smart growth

b)

zoning

c)

new urbanism

d)

REDD

128.

A sustainable solution to urban growth

a)

suburban growth

b)

stopping growth

c)

building up

d)

urban heat island

129.

A mineral or group of minerals from which we extract metal.

a)

metal

b)

ore

c)

magma

d)

overburden

130.

Ore leftovers after valuable minerals have been removed

a)

tailings

b)

smelting piles

c)

extraction heap

d)

gravel

131.

Surface Mining and Control Reclamation Act

a)

mandates that miners give half of what they find to the government

b)

allows miners to place a stake on public land for $5 per acre

c)

mandates reclamation

d)

is meant to bankrupt mining companies

132.

Why mine tailings can be dangerous

a)

can cause miners to trip

b)

can be full of sharp objects

c)

can cause acid leaching into water bodies

d)

are full of conflict minerals

133.

The National Forest Management Act

a)

prevents further building of roads in national forests

b)

was repealed by the Clinton administration

c)

requires national forests to have a management plan

d)

allows mining in national forests

134.

Has the most restrictive land use

a)

national park

b)

wilderness area

c)

national forest

d)

national monument

135.

Lands managed by agencies of the government

a)

National Parks

b)

National Rivers

c)

Public Lands

d)

Restricted-use Lands

136.

This agency manages fish, wildlife, and habitats.

a)

US Forest Service

b)

US Fish and Wildlife Service

c)

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

d)

Bureau of Reclamation

137.

This agency manages about 253 million acres of America's public lands as well as 700 million acres of subsurface mineral estate.

a)

U.S. Department of Agriculture

b)

Bureau of Land Management

c)

National Park Service

d)

US Department of the Interior

138.

The Endangered Species Act was a law designed to:

a)

Stop species from overpopulating

b)

Help hunting increase

c)

Protect species from extinction

d)

None of the above

139.

This agency is managed by the US Department of Agriculture and manages the 155 National forests and 20 National grasslands.

a)

US Forest Service

b)

US Fish and Wildlife Service

c)

National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

d)

Bureau of Reclamation

140.

This agency manages all national parks, many monuments, and other conservation and historic properties.

a)

U.S. Department of Agriculture

b)

Bureau of Land Management

c)

National Park Service

d)

US Department of the Interior

141.

What are considered "the commons"

a)

Common house hold items like knifes, spoons, and forks.

b)

A resource owned by no one and available for use by anyone at little or no charge

c)

A field where college students can sit outside in between classes

142.

Public lands are classified according to:_________________

a)

Their color

b)

their percentage of acid to soil

c)

their use

d)

Their temperature

143.

Removes single trees or a relatively small number of trees from the larger forest

a)

Tree specialization

b)

Selective cutting

c)

Forest consumption

d)

Selective trees