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GERD, PUD Pt 2

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which symptom best differentiates GERD from occasional heartburn?

a)

Burning sensation after eating spicy food

b)

Heartburn occurring ≥2 days per week for ≥3 months

c)

Bitter taste in the mouth after meals

d)

Epigastric discomfort relieved by food

2.

Which non-pharmacologic intervention is MOST effective for nocturnal GERD?

a)

Using multiple pillows

b)

Sleeping on the right side

c)

Elevating the head of the bed with blocks or a wedge

d)

Drinking water before bedtime

3.

Which alarm symptom requires immediate referral to a physician?

a)

Postprandial heartburn

b)

Regurgitation after fatty meals

c)

Dysphagia

d)

Belching after meals

4.

Which medication provides the fastest onset of symptom relief?

a)

Antacid

b)

H2 Receptor Antagonist

c)

Proton Pump Inhibitors

d)

P-CAB

5.

Which antacid adverse effect is MOST associated with aluminum-containing products?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Hypercalcemia

d)

Sodium retention

6.

A patient with CrCl <30 mL/min should AVOID which antacid ingredient?

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Magnesium hydroxide

d)

Alginic acid

7.

Which statement about alginic acid is CORRECT?

a)

It neutralizes gastric acid

b)

It prevents acid production

c)

It forms a viscous barrier over gastric contents

d)

It is effective as monotherapy

8.

Which H₂-receptor antagonist has the HIGHEST potential for drug interactions?

a)

Famotidine

b)

Nizatidine

c)

Cimetidine

d)

All are equal

9.

Which statement about proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) is CORRECT?

a)

They provide immediate relief

b)

They reversibly inhibit acid secretion

c)

They inhibit only active proton pumps

d)

They increase LES tone

10.

Why must most PPIs be taken 30–60 minutes before meals?

a)

To prevent gastric irritation

b)

To coincide with food buffering

c)

To ensure proton pumps are active

d)

To increase bioavailability

11.

Which PPI formulation may be taken WITHOUT regard to meals?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Esomeprazole

c)

Dexlansoprazole

d)

Lansoprazole

12.

A patient with difficulty swallowing capsules may safely take which option?

a)

Crushing omeprazole tablets

b)

Chewing lansoprazole capsules

c)

Sprinkling lansoprazole granules on applesauce

d)

Dissolving pantoprazole tablets in water

13.

Which OTC PPI self-treatment regimen is CORRECT?

a)

Daily use indefinitely

b)

14-day course, repeat every 4 months if needed

c)

Use only when symptoms occur

d)

Twice-daily dosing for 14 days

14.

Which intestinal gas medication PREVENTS gas formation rather than treating it after formation?

a)

Simethicone

b)

Activated charcoal

c)

Alpha-galactosidase

d)

Bismuth subsalicylate

15.

When should alpha-galactosidase be taken?

a)

After meals

b)

At bedtime

c)

With the first bite of food

d)

When gas symptoms begin

16.

Which product is MOST appropriate for lactose-intolerant patients?

a)

Simethicone

b)

Alpha-galactosidase

c)

Lactase enzyme

d)

Activated charcoal

17.

Which statement about simethicone is CORRECT?

a)

Prevents gas formation

b)

Reduces gastric acid

c)

Reduce surface tension of gas bubbles

d)

Has significant drug interactions

18.

Which factor MOST contributes to nocturnal GERD severity?

a)

Increased gastric acid secretion at night

b)

Increased LES tone during sleep

c)

Decreased swallowing and salivation during sleep

d)

Increased gastric emptying during sleep

19.

Which prostaglandin effect helps PROTECT the gastric mucosa?

a)

Increased gastric emptying

b)

Increased acid secretion

c)

Increased mucus and bicarbonate secretion

d)

Reduced mucosal blood flow

20.

Which patient is NOT appropriate for OTC self-treatment of GERD?

a)

28-year-old with heartburn twice weekly for 1 month

b)

52-year-old with new-onset dyspepsia

c)

34-year-old with heartburn after spicy food

d)

40-year-old with episodic reflux relieved by antacids

21.

Which diagnostic test is the GOLD STANDARD for diagnosing Barrett’s esophagus?

a)

Barium esophagram

b)

PillCam ESO

c)

Endoscopy with biopsy

d)

PPI trial

22.

Which drug interaction requires separation by AT LEAST 4 HOURS from antacids?

a)

Iron

b)

Quinolones

c)

Levothyroxine

d)

Ketoconazole

23.

Which PPI contains sodium bicarbonate and allows rapid absorption?

a)

Dexilant

b)

Nexium

c)

Zegerid

d)

Protonix

24.

Which mechanism explains why antacids reduce pepsin activity?

a)

They inhibit pepsin production

b)

They increase LES tone

c)

They raise gastric pH above 4

d)

They block histamine receptors

25.

Which patient characteristic MOST increases risk of GERD?

a)

Sleeping on the left side

b)

High-protein meals

c)

Obesity

d)

Upright posture after meals

26.

Which atypical GERD symptom requires referral because cardiac causes cannot be ruled out?

a)

Hoarseness

b)

Chronic cough

c)

Chest pain

d)

Dental erosions

27.

Which diagnostic test allows visualization of the esophagus but CANNOT obtain biopsies?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Barium swallow

c)

PillCam ESO

d)

PPI test

28.

Which patient should NOT use bismuth subsalicylate?

a)

Adult with traveler’s diarrhea

b)

Adult with black stools after use

c)

Teen recovering from influenza

d)

Adult with mild nausea

29.

Which GERD medication is recommended ONLY during pregnancy when necessary?

a)

PPI

b)

H₂-receptor antagonist

c)

Sucralfate

d)

Metoclopramide

30.

Which counseling point is CORRECT for alpha-galactosidase?

a)

Can be cooked into foods

b)

Take after meals

c)

Avoid if mold allergy

d)

Safe in galactosemia

31.

The most common sites of peptic ulcer disease are the:

a)

Esophagus and jejunum

b)

Stomach and colon

c)

Duodenum and stomach

d)

Ileum and cecum

32.

Which patient population is most commonly associated with stress-related mucosal damage?

a)

Ambulatory patients with H. pylori

b)

Ambulatory patients taking NSAIDs

c)

Critically ill hospitalized patients

d)

Pediatric patients

33.

Which receptors stimulate gastric acid secretion by parietal cells?

a)

Dopamine, serotonin, prostaglandins

b)

Histamine, gastrin, acetylcholine

c)

Cholecystokinin, somatostatin, insulin

d)

Norepinephrine, epinephrine, cortisol

34.

Prostaglandins protect the gastric mucosa by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Increasing mucus secretion

b)

Increasing bicarbonate secretion

c)

Maintaining mucosal blood flow

d)

Increasing gastric acid secretion

35.

Which factor contributes to ulcer recurrence?

a)

Eradicated H. pylori

b)

Smoking cessation

c)

NSAID use

d)

Medication adherence

36.

Helicobacter pylori is best described as:

a)

Gram-positive cocci

b)

Gram-negative spiral-shaped bacterium

c)

Acid-resistant virus

d)

Anaerobic protozoan

37.

H. pylori survives in the acidic stomach primarily by producing:

a)

Protease

b)

Lipase

c)

Urease

d)

Pepsin

38.

Urease produced by H. pylori leads to the formation of:

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Bicarbonate and carbon dioxide

c)

Ammonia and carbon dioxide

d)

Nitric oxide

39.

Which mode of transmission is associated with H. pylori?

a)

Airborne

b)

Vector-borne

c)

Fecal-oral

d)

Sexual contact

40.

NSAID-induced ulcers most commonly occur in the:

a)

Esophagus

b)

Duodenum

c)

Stomach

d)

Colon

41.

NSAIDs cause mucosal damage primarily by inhibiting:

a)

Histamine receptors

b)

Proton pumps

c)

Prostaglandin synthesis

d)

Bicarbonate secretion

42.

Which complication is associated with peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Pancreatitis

b)

Upper GI bleeding

c)

Hepatitis

d)

Appendicitis

43.

Which symptom is characteristic of duodenal ulcer pain?

a)

Pain worsens with food

b)

Pain relieved by food

c)

Pain only occurs in the morning

d)

Pain absent at night

44.

Which H. pylori test is the most accurate noninvasive method for initial diagnosis and confirmation of eradication?

a)

Antibody serology

b)

Stool antigen

c)

Urea breath test

d)

Rapid urease test

45.

Which medication must be withheld for at least 2 weeks prior to urea breath testing?

a)

Antibiotics

b)

Bismuth

c)

Proton pump inhibitors

d)

Antacids

46.

In NSAID-induced ulcers where NSAID therapy cannot be discontinued, the preferred treatment is:

a)

H2RA monotherapy

b)

Sucralfate

c)

Proton pump inhibitor

d)

Antacid therapy

47.

Which statement best explains why NSAID-induced ulcers may go unrecognized?

a)

NSAIDs increase gastric acid secretion

b)

NSAIDs mask pain due to their analgesic effect

c)

NSAIDs only cause asymptomatic ulcers

d)

NSAIDs only affect the duodenum

48.

Which NSAID combination significantly increases the risk of upper GI bleeding?

a)

NSAID + acetaminophen

b)

NSAID + SSRI

c)

NSAID + calcium supplement

d)

NSAID + proton pump inhibitor

49.

Which patient characteristic increases the risk of NSAID-induced ulcers?

a)

Age < 40 years

b)

Absence of comorbidities

c)

Concurrent corticosteroid use

d)

Short-term NSAID use

50.

Which patient should be tested and treated for H. pylori?

a)

Asymptomatic adult with no risk factors

b)

Patient with history of peptic ulcer disease

c)

Patient with controlled GERD

d)

Patient taking short-term NSAIDs

51.

Which medication can cause false-negative results in rapid urease testing?

a)

Antacids

b)

Proton pump inhibitors

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Iron supplements

52.

Which noninvasive H. pylori test remains positive long after eradication?

a)

Urea breath test

b)

Stool antigen test

c)

Antibody serology

d)

Gastric biopsy

53.

Eradication of H. pylori is defined as:

a)

Absence of symptoms after therapy

b)

Negative test immediately after therapy

c)

No organism detected ≥4 weeks after treatment

d)

Completion of antibiotic regimen

54.

Which medication should be avoided in patients consuming alcohol during H. pylori treatment?

a)

Clarithromycin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Metronidazole

d)

Tetracycline

55.

Optimized bismuth quadruple therapy should be administered for how long?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

14 days

d)

28 days

56.

Which patient is an appropriate candidate for rifabutin triple therapy?

a)

Penicillin-allergic patient

b)

Treatment-naïve patient without penicillin allergy

c)

Patient with macrolide allergy

d)

Patient who refuses PPIs

57.

Which medication is classified as a potassium-competitive acid blocker?

a)

Pantoprazole

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Vonoprazan

d)

Famotidine

58.

Which medication is contraindicated with vonoprazan due to reduced absorption?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Rilpivirine

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Aspirin

59.

Vonoprazan may reduce the effectiveness of which antiplatelet agent?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ticagrelor

c)

Clopidogrel

d)

Prasugrel

60.

The most common adverse effect of misoprostol is:

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Nausea

d)

Hypertension