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Final Exam Prep

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which list best represents the six components of health that make up overall wellness?

a)

Physical, nutritional, infectious, traumatic, environmental, behavioral

b)

Emotional, financial, spiritual, academic, occupational, legal

c)

Physical, mental, financial, academic, social, cultural

d)

Physical, emotional, social, intellectual, environmental, spiritual

2.

Health literacy most closely means what for a student managing personal health?

a)

Finding, understanding, and using health information

b)

Memorizing medical terms for class tests

c)

Avoiding news about diseases and treatments

d)

Following advice only from family members

3.

A community tracks rising depression rates without an increase in deaths. Which term best describes what is being measured?

a)

Optimal health indicators

b)

Life span of individuals

c)

Mortality across the population

d)

Morbidity within the population

4.

Which behavior is a realistic example of a behavioral risk factor that increases the chance of disease or injury?

a)

Skipping regular sleep on most nights

b)

Living in a cold regional climate

c)

Being born with a faulty gene

d)

Exposure to bacteria and viruses

5.

Which set lists simple carbohydrates commonly found in foods?

a)

Fructose, glucose, sucrose, lactose

b)

Starch, glycogen, cellulose, fiber

c)

Peptides, enzymes, hormones, hemoglobin

d)

Omega-3, omega-6, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated

6.

Which statement best describes complex carbohydrates?

a)

Fats formed by hydrogenation into single bonds

b)

Proteins that provide nine essential amino acids

c)

Sugars that dissolve quickly in water

d)

Chains of glucose linked together

7.

Which food choice is a complete protein?

a)

Peanut butter missing several essential amino acids

b)

Rice lacking essential amino acids for growth

c)

Almonds lacking one or more essential amino acids

d)

Eggs containing all nine essential amino acids

8.

Which vitamin property is correctly paired?

a)

Water soluble dissolves in water

b)

Fat soluble evaporates in air

c)

Water soluble stored mainly in body fat

d)

Fat soluble dissolves only in blood

9.

A nutrient-dense food is best defined as what?

a)

High-calorie and low in fiber and protein

b)

Low-calorie and rich in vitamins and minerals

c)

Low-sugar and high in saturated and trans fats

d)

High-sodium and low in water and electrolytes

10.

On a food label, what do Daily Values represent?

a)

Recommended amounts to consume each day

b)

Maximum calories allowed per serving

c)

Average metabolism rate for teenagers

d)

Required ingredient order by alphabet

11.

Which change happens first during the fight-or-flight response when facing a threat?

a)

Blood flow gently slows

b)

Pupils slowly constrict

c)

Heart rate rapidly increases

d)

Sweat production decreases

12.

Which stage of the stress response involves deciding to take action while adrenaline is pumping?

a)

Exhaustion stage

b)

Recovery stage

c)

Resistance stage

d)

Alarm stage

13.

A student has constant unrealistic worries about daily experiences. Which disorder best matches this description?

a)

Panic disorder

b)

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

c)

Post-traumatic stress disorder

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

14.

Which option lists a common treatment approach for depression that involves meeting with peers?

a)

Inpatient treatment

b)

Individual therapy

c)

Family therapy

d)

Support groups

15.

Which term describes the cell produced when a sperm and an ovum combine, restoring a full set of chromosomes?

a)

Fetus developed in the uterus

b)

Gamete created during ovulation

c)

Zygote formed at fertilization

d)

Embryo formed after implantation

16.

During the menstrual cycle, what typically happens at the midpoint if fertilization does not occur?

a)

Ovulation releases an ovum from follicles

b)

Progesterone increases throughout

c)

Implantation into the uterine lining

d)

Endometrium permanently thickens

17.

Which male reproductive structure stores immature sperm before they mature and mix with fluids to form semen?

a)

Flagellum of each sperm

b)

Seminal vesicles near bladder

c)

Epididymis behind the testes

d)

Prostate gland storing secretions

18.

Endometriosis is best described as which condition affecting reproductive health?

a)

Benign uterine muscle tumors

b)

Cancer of the endometrium

c)

Endometrial tissue in abnormal places

d)

Prostate gland enlargement

19.

Which statement best describes barrier methods of contraception?

a)

They physically block sperm from reaching the ovum

b)

They change monthly hormone cycles to stop ovulation

c)

They permanently prevent future pregnancies after surgery

d)

They rely on tracking body signs to time intercourse

20.

What is the primary action of oral contraceptives (the birth control pill)?

a)

Provide partial protection against all STIs

b)

Interfere with sperm movement after implantation

c)

Create a physical pouch inside the vagina

d)

Thicken cervical mucus and prevent ovulation

21.

A couple wants a long‑term, doctor‑inserted method and is considering an IUD. Which feature aligns with this choice?

a)

A permanent surgical procedure to end fertility

b)

A condom designed to fit over an erect penis

c)

Daily tablets taken at the same time

d)

A small T‑shaped device placed in the uterus

22.

Which statement best explains asymptomatic transmission of STIs?

a)

People without symptoms can still spread infections

b)

Only symptomatic people can pass infections to partners

c)

Transmission happens only after visible sores appear

d)

Infections cannot spread until lab tests confirm disease

23.

Which STI is caused by bacteria and can be cured in early stages with antibiotics?

a)

Herpes, a viral disease cured by antivirals

b)

Syphilis, a bacterial infection treatable early

c)

Pelvic inflammatory disease, a viral condition

d)

HPV, a viral infection cleared by antibiotics

24.

What distinguishes HIV infection from AIDS?

a)

HIV only causes flu; AIDS causes skin rashes

b)

HIV damages immune cells; AIDS is severe immune failure

c)

AIDS is a virus; HIV is an opportunistic infection

d)

AIDS occurs first; HIV develops later on

25.

Which scenario shows a realistic route of HIV transmission?

a)

Unprotected sex leading to infection

b)

Sharing school books causing infection

c)

Casual hugging transmitting infection

d)

Mosquito bites spreading infection

26.

Which statement best defines physical addiction?

a)

A temporary change in mood and perception

b)

The body requires the drug to function normally

c)

Using a drug regardless of harmful consequences

d)

Feeling an intense desire for the drug’s effects

27.

Opioids such as hydrocodone and oxycodone are classified primarily as what?

a)

Depressants that slow reflexes

b)

Hallucinogens that alter perception

c)

Stimulants that increase brain activity

d)

Synthetic opiates prescribed for pain relief

28.

A friend pressures you to try a stimulant at a party. Which response applies a refusal strategy effectively?

a)

Say no clearly and leave the situation if needed

b)

Debate the science of stimulant side effects

c)

Accept one dose to avoid social conflict

d)

Ignore them and continue standing nearby

29.

Which factor most directly determines a person’s Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC)?

a)

Whether the drink is beer or wine brand

b)

The percentage of alcohol present in the blood

c)

The color of the alcoholic beverage

d)

The time of day the alcohol was consumed

30.

A pregnant person drinks heavily for several months. What outcome is most associated with this behavior?

a)

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome with serious birth defects

b)

Temporary euphoria that improves fetal health

c)

Reduced BAC due to increased food intake

d)

Lower risk of anxiety for the newborn

31.

Which factor can increase a person's Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) most rapidly?

a)

Exercising after drinking

b)

Consuming alcohol with a meal

c)

Drinking water between alcoholic beverages

d)

Drinking alcohol on an empty stomach