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Administration Abbreviations

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which abbreviation indicates a medication should be given intradermally?

a)

PO

b)

IV

c)

IM

d)

ID

2.

A prescription reads PO. What is the correct route of administration?

a)

Into the skin

b)

By mouth, orally

c)

Into a muscle

d)

Into a vein

3.

Which abbreviation correctly matches rectal administration?

a)

PO

b)

PR

c)

IM

d)

ID

4.

A provider orders an antibiotic q4h. How often should it be administered?

a)

Twice a day

b)

Four times per day

c)

Every morning

d)

Every 4 hours

5.

You have a PRN pain medication. When should you give it?

a)

At nighttime

b)

Whenever necessary

c)

Before meals

d)

Immediately

6.

A patient with nausea is prescribed ondansetron ac. When should it be taken?

a)

Before meals

b)

After meals

c)

Every morning

d)

With meals

7.

Which medication form is specifically designed for transdermal delivery through the skin over time?

a)

Creams spread over affected areas

b)

Ointments applied to intact skin surfaces

c)

Patches placed on the skin surface

d)

Lotions rubbed onto localized skin

8.

A patient needs rapid systemic effect without swallowing. Which route best matches this need for a tablet?

a)

Topical applied to forearm

b)

Buccal placed in cheek pouch

c)

Oral swallowed with water

d)

Vaginal inserted with applicator

9.

Which pairing correctly matches the medication form with its primary route of administration?

a)

Suppositories — nasal administration

b)

Aerosols — rectal administration

c)

Elixirs — oral administration

d)

Drops — subcutaneous administration

10.

A provider orders a powdered antibiotic that must be mixed before injection. Which product description should the nurse select from the pharmacy label?

a)

Powders for reconstitution for IV, IM, subcut, ID

b)

Suspensions labeled for oral administration

c)

Topical powders for application to skin

d)

Dry powder for inhalation via breath-actuated device

11.

Which injection route is CCMA permitted to administer in clinical practice?

a)

Intra-arterial route within arteries

b)

Intrathecal route into subarachnoid space

c)

Intrapleural route into pleural cavity

d)

Intramuscular route into deltoid muscle

12.

What needle angle is appropriate for a subcutaneous injection using standard technique?

a)

90 degrees into muscle tissue

b)

60 degrees into dermis layer

c)

45 degrees into subcutaneous tissue

d)

10 to 15 degrees into epidermis

13.

Where are common anatomical sites for intradermal injections?

a)

Peritoneal cavity in abdomen

b)

Upper chest, forearms, upper back

c)

Deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventrogluteal

d)

Major veins of arms and hands

14.

A patient requires medication into bone marrow. Which parenteral route is indicated and is it permitted for CCMA?

a)

Intramuscular route and CCMA: Yes

b)

Intraosseous route and CCMA: No

c)

Intravenous route and CCMA: Yes

d)

Intra-articular route and CCMA: Yes

15.

Which combination correctly pairs route with location for intramuscular injections?

a)

Upper outer arm, upper back under shoulder

b)

Epidural space along the spine

c)

Deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventrogluteal muscles

d)

Subarachnoid space within the brain

16.

Which statement best distinguishes buccal from sublingual medication placement?

a)

Buccal under tongue; sublingual against the cheek

b)

Buccal is against the cheek; sublingual under tongue

c)

Buccal placed on gums; sublingual between teeth

d)

Buccal swallowed into stomach; sublingual chewed

17.

A CCMA is preparing to give nitroglycerin as a rapidly absorbed enteral dose. Which route should be used to maximize mucosal absorption and avoid swallowing?

a)

Sublingual tablet under the tongue

b)

Oral syrup mixed with food

c)

Oral capsule swallowed with water

d)

Buccal tablet chewed and swallowed

18.

Which list correctly identifies common oral formulations that may be swallowed for enteral administration?

a)

Suspensions, rectal suppositories, sprays

b)

Elixirs, inhalers, ophthalmic drops

c)

Lozenges, ointments, transdermal patches

d)

Tablets, capsules, syrups, solutions

19.

Which route delivers medication to the eye using drops or ointment?

a)

Otic administration to the ear canal

b)

Nasal administration to the nose

c)

Ophthalmic administration to the eye

d)

Respiratory administration to the airways

20.

A patch applied to intact skin for systemic effect best illustrates which route?

a)

Transdermal delivery through the skin

b)

Rectal administration using suppositories

c)

Topical application for local effect

d)

Otic delivery using ear drops

21.

Which formulation is most appropriate for the urethral route listed?

a)

Aerosols for inhalation therapy

b)

Solutions for urethral instillation

c)

Gels for nasal application

d)

Tablets for vaginal placement

22.

Which abbreviation on a prescription indicates the patient should receive the exact brand specified by the prescriber?

a)

rf: allow multiple refills

b)

OTC: obtain over-the-counter product

c)

DAW: dispense as written only

d)

gen: substitute any generic version

23.

A chart note reads "NPO until 0800." What does NPO mean in patient care?

a)

Nothing by mouth for a period

b)

No known allergies to medications

c)

Nausea and vomiting present

d)

Nebulizer ordered immediately

24.

A patient with asthma is instructed to use an MDI twice daily. Which device is being referenced?

a)

Metered-dose inhaler for lungs

b)

Verbal order from provider

c)

Mineral oil oral laxative

d)

Nebulizer for continuous mist

25.

Which stage of pharmacokinetics describes how a medication enters the bloodstream from its site of administration?

a)

Distribution throughout body tissues

b)

Absorption into the circulation

c)

Metabolism by hepatic enzymes

d)

Excretion via renal pathways

26.

What physiological feature can limit a drug’s movement into the central nervous system during distribution?

a)

Enterohepatic recirculation

b)

Hepatic first-pass metabolism

c)

Glomerular filtration rate

d)

Blood-brain barrier integrity

27.

A medication is converted by liver enzymes and later removed in urine. Which ADME sequence best matches these events?

a)

Metabolism then excretion

b)

Excretion then metabolism

c)

Distribution then absorption

d)

Absorption then distribution

28.

Which organ is the primary site where medications are converted into inactive metabolites before elimination?

a)

Skin releases drugs through sweat

b)

Lungs exhale volatile medications

c)

Liver performs most drug metabolism

d)

Kidneys filter and secrete metabolites

29.

A patient has reduced kidney function. Which elimination route is most likely decreased, potentially increasing drug levels?

a)

Urine formation and excretion

b)

Bile flowing into the intestine

c)

Saliva secretion into the mouth

d)

Exhaled air through the lungs

30.

A medication is metabolized in the liver and its metabolites are secreted into bile. What is the most likely final route out of the body?

a)

Released in sweat from skin

b)

Eliminated as stool via intestines

c)

Reabsorbed and stored in tissues

d)

Excreted as urine by kidneys