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8.1 Basic Types of Chemical Bonds

Total questions: 108

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes ionic bonding in sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a)

Electrons are shared equally between Na and Cl

b)

Protons move from Na to Cl to make neutrality

c)

Electrons are transferred from Na to Cl forming ions

d)

Metal atoms share a sea of delocalized electrons

2.

The reaction Na(s) + ½ Cl2(g) → NaCl(s) releases energy. What does this indicate about the process?

a)

It is endothermic and absorbs heat energy

b)

It is exothermic and releases heat energy

c)

It is photochemical requiring light energy

d)

It is isothermal with no heat change

3.

In a metallic bond, what holds the metal atoms together?

a)

Hydrogen bonds between nuclei

b)

Attraction to a sea of mobile electrons

c)

Shared pairs of localized electrons

d)

Attraction between oppositely charged ions

4.

Which scenario most likely forms a covalent bond?

a)

A noble gas attracting many electrons

b)

Two metal atoms transferring electrons

c)

Two nonmetal atoms sharing electrons

d)

A metal atom reacting with a nonmetal atom

5.

Breaking solid NaCl into Na+ gas and Cl− gas has ΔH = +788 kJ/mol. What does the positive sign indicate about this process?

a)

Energy is absorbed, endothermic process

b)

Energy is released, exothermic process

c)

No energy change, neutral process

d)

Energy is stored, spontaneous process

6.

Which statement best describes lattice energy for an ionic solid?

a)

Energy released when covalent bonds form

b)

Energy required to separate ions to gases

c)

Energy produced by electron excitation

d)

Energy needed to melt metallic crystals

7.

Using E_el = κ(Q1Q2)/d, which change increases lattice energy the most?

a)

Doubling charges and halving distance

b)

Reducing charges with same distance

c)

Halving charges and doubling distance

d)

Keeping charges and increasing distance

8.

For ions in an ionic compound, how does lattice energy vary with ion size?

a)

Smaller ions increase lattice energy

b)

Larger ions increase lattice energy

c)

Ion size has no effect

d)

Only cation size matters

9.

Which pair would have greater lattice energy: MgO or NaCl?

a)

NaCl, due to larger ion sizes

b)

Both equal, same crystal structure

c)

NaCl, due to lower ionic charges

d)

MgO, due to higher ionic charges

10.

According to the table, which compound likely has the largest lattice energy among alkali halides listed?

a)

KBr, moderate value among listed

b)

CsCl, mid-range among listed

c)

NaI, lowest value among listed

d)

LiF, highest value among listed

11.

If the distance d between ions decreases while charges remain the same, what happens to E_el?

a)

E_el increases because ions attract stronger

b)

E_el decreases because ions repel less

c)

E_el stays constant regardless of distance

d)

E_el becomes zero at small distances

12.

An ionic solid forms from gaseous ions. Which statement about energy is accurate?

a)

Energy remains unchanged during formation

b)

Energy is absorbed when lattice forms

c)

Energy only depends on ion masses

d)

Energy is released when lattice forms

13.

What is lattice energy in an ionic solid?

a)

Energy released when gaseous ions form a crystal

b)

Energy absorbed when atoms share electrons

c)

Energy absorbed when molecules condense

d)

Energy released when covalent bonds break

14.

Which pair of ions would generally produce the greatest lattice energy?

a)

Large ions with low charges

b)

Small ions with equal charges

c)

Small ions with high charges

d)

Large ions with opposite charges

15.

Coulomb's Law relates lattice energy mainly to which two factors?

a)

Ion charges and distance between ions

b)

Bond order and bond polarity

c)

Atomic mass and electron number

d)

Temperature and pressure of the solid

16.

When separating an ionic crystal into its gaseous ions, the process is best described as

a)

Endothermic because energy must be input

b)

Exothermic because heat is released

c)

Endothermic because heat is released

d)

Exothermic because energy must be input

17.

Two ionic compounds have the same charges on their ions. Compound A has shorter ion distances than Compound B. Predict which has higher lattice energy and why.

a)

Compound B, weaker attraction at longer distance

b)

Compound B, stronger attraction at longer distance

c)

Compound A, stronger attraction at shorter distance

d)

Compound A, weaker attraction at shorter distance

18.

Which change typically increases lattice energy in an ionic compound?

a)

Adding more covalent character

b)

Increasing ionic charge magnitudes

c)

Forming molecules instead of ions

d)

Increasing ionic radii for both ions

e)

Decreasing crystal coordination number

19.

For ions with the same charges, how does lattice energy change as ionic radius changes?

a)

Radius has no effect on energy

b)

Larger radii increase lattice energy

c)

Only cation radius matters

d)

Smaller radii increase lattice energy

e)

Only anion radius matters

20.

Which pair would have the greatest lattice energy based on charge and size?

a)

K+ and I− with larger radii

b)

Ca2+ and Br− with very large radii

c)

Na+ and Cl− with large radii

d)

Mg2+ and O2− with small radii

e)

Li+ and F− with very large radii

21.

Two compounds have ions of similar size. One has charges +1 and −1, the other +2 and −2. Which has higher lattice energy and why?

a)

Neither forms a lattice at all

b)

They are equal because sizes match

c)

The +1/−1 compound because smaller charge

d)

The +1/−1 compound because fewer ions

e)

The +2/−2 compound because greater charge

22.

Arrange these ionic compounds from highest to lowest lattice energy: LiF, NaCl, KI.

a)

NaCl > KI > LiF

b)

KI > LiF > NaCl

c)

LiF > NaCl > KI

d)

KI > NaCl > LiF

e)

NaCl > LiF > KI

23.

A scientist replaces Cl− with Br− in an ionic crystal while keeping the cation the same. Predict the change in lattice energy.

a)

It becomes zero due to neutrality

b)

It fluctuates unpredictably

c)

It decreases because Br− is larger

d)

It stays the same regardless of size

e)

It increases because Br− is larger

24.

Which ionic compound is predicted to have the greatest lattice energy based on ion charge and size?

a)

CaS, +2 and −2 larger ions

b)

KBr, +1 and −1 larger ions

c)

MgO, +2 and −2 small ions

d)

NaCl, +1 and −1 small ions

25.

Arrange these ionic compounds from highest to lowest lattice energy: LiF, NaCl, KBr.

a)

LiF > NaCl > KBr

b)

KBr > NaCl > LiF

c)

NaCl > LiF > KBr

d)

NaCl > KBr > LiF

26.

Which electrons are removed first when forming a transition metal cation from a neutral atom?

a)

Core s-electrons are removed first

b)

Valence s-electrons are removed first

c)

Valence p-electrons are removed first

d)

Inner d-electrons are removed first

27.

A neutral Fe atom has electron configuration [Ar] 4s2 3d6. What is the electron configuration of Fe2+?

a)

[Ar] 3d6 after losing two 4s

b)

[Ar] 4s1 3d5 after losing one 4s

c)

[Ar] 3d4 after losing two 3d

d)

[Ar] 4s2 3d4 after losing two 3d

28.

A neutral Cu atom is [Ar] 4s1 3d10. What is Cu+ after losing electrons?

a)

[Ar] 3d9 after losing one 4s and one d

b)

[Ar] 4s0 3d8 after losing two d

c)

[Ar] 3d10 after losing the 4s

d)

[Ar] 4s1 3d9 after losing one d

29.

Which statement best explains why transition metals often form multiple cations like Fe2+ and Fe3+?

a)

Large energy gap forces only s loss always

b)

p-orbitals dominate cation formation completely

c)

Core electrons are easily removed in metals

d)

Similar energy of 4s and 3d allows variable loss

30.

A neutral Ti atom is [Ar] 4s2 3d2. Predict Ti3+ configuration using the rule for cations.

a)

[Ar] 3d2 after losing only 4s

b)

[Ar] 4s1 3d2 after losing one 4s

c)

[Ar] 3d1 after losing two 4s and one d

d)

[Ar] 4s0 3d0 after losing all valence

31.

In a Lewis dot structure, what does a single line between two element symbols represent?

a)

No bonding interaction

b)

One shared electron pair

c)

Two shared electron pairs

d)

A lone electron pair

32.

Which statement best describes a single bond in covalent bonding?

a)

Three shared pairs of electrons

b)

Shared core electrons only

c)

One shared pair of electrons

d)

Two shared pairs of electrons

33.

Hydrogen and chlorine form H–Cl. What is shared to make this bond?

a)

Two electron pairs

b)

Protons from nuclei

c)

One electron pair

d)

Entire valence shells

34.

In Lewis structures, how are unshared electron pairs shown around an atom?

a)

As pairs of dots

b)

As double lines

c)

As charges symbols

d)

As triangles

35.

Which molecule is correctly described as having a double bond between its atoms?

a)

H2 with two shared pairs

b)

H2S with two shared pairs

c)

O2 with two shared pairs

d)

Cl2 with two shared pairs

36.

What term is used when more than one pair of electrons is shared between two atoms?

a)

Multiple bonding

b)

Ionic bonding

c)

Hydrogen bonding

d)

Metallic bonding

37.

For hydrogen with electron configuration 1s1, how many electrons fill its valence shell when bonded?

a)

Two electrons

b)

Eight electrons

c)

One electron

d)

Four electrons

38.

Which statement about Lewis dot symbols is accurate for covalent molecules like Cl2?

a)

Shared pairs shown as crosses

b)

Shared pairs shown as triangles

c)

Shared pairs shown as lines

d)

Shared pairs shown as charges

39.

Which statement best describes the octet rule for main-group atoms?

a)

Atoms gain or lose electrons to reach eight valence

b)

Atoms arrange into eight bonds around each atom

c)

Atoms share protons to reach eight in the nucleus

d)

Atoms double their total electrons to become stable

40.

In a Lewis structure, what do dots and lines represent?

a)

Dots are protons, lines are electron paths

b)

Dots are charges, lines are ionic attractions

c)

Dots are lone pairs, lines are shared pairs

d)

Dots are nuclei, lines are atomic radii

41.

Nitrogen in N2 achieves stability by forming which type of covalent bond shown in the diagram?

a)

A triple bond with three shared pairs

b)

A single bond with one shared pair

c)

A quadruple bond with four shared pairs

d)

A double bond with two shared pairs

42.

Which comparison of bond length and strength is correct?

a)

Triple bonds are longer and weaker than single

b)

Triple bonds are shorter and stronger than double

c)

Double bonds are longer and weaker than single

d)

Single bonds are shorter and stronger than triple

43.

What is bond length defined as in molecular structures?

a)

Distance between nuclei of bonded atoms

b)

Distance between valence shells in a bond

c)

Distance from nucleus to outermost electron

d)

Distance between atoms and their lone pairs

44.

Which statement best describes a single covalent bond between two atoms?

a)

It transfers one electron to another

b)

It transfers two electrons between atoms

c)

It shares one pair of electrons

d)

It shares two pairs of electrons

45.

How is a double covalent bond typically represented in a structural formula?

a)

By one dash between atoms

b)

By three dots near atoms

c)

By brackets around atoms

d)

By two dashes between atoms

46.

Which bond type involves three shared pairs of electrons between the same two atoms?

a)

Single covalent bond

b)

Ionic bond

c)

Triple covalent bond

d)

Double covalent bond

47.

If a molecule has a triple bond, how many electrons are shared in that bond?

a)

Six electrons shared

b)

Eight electrons shared

c)

Two electrons shared

d)

Four electrons shared

48.

Which comparison correctly matches bond types with relative bond strength and length?

a)

Single: medium strength and length

b)

Triple: strongest and shortest

c)

Double: weakest and longest

d)

Single: strongest and shortest

49.

A student draws CO2 as O=C=O. What feature of this drawing indicates the type of bonding between C and O?

a)

Dots show nuclear positions

b)

Single dash shows one shared pair

c)

Two dashes show two shared pairs

d)

Brackets show charge separation

50.

Which situation would most likely change a single bond into a double bond during a chemical reaction?

a)

Decreasing the temperature of the system

b)

Increasing the atomic mass of the atoms

c)

Removing a lone pair to form another shared pair

d)

Adding electrons to both nuclei

51.

In nitrogen gas (N≡N), why is the bond considered a triple covalent bond?

a)

It forms three ionic interactions

b)

It transfers three electrons to nitrogen

c)

It shows three shared pairs of electrons

d)

It contains three nuclei in one bond

52.

Which statement best describes the relationship between bond order and bond length in covalent bonds?

a)

Higher bond order leads to longer bond length

b)

Higher bond order leads to shorter bond length

c)

Bond order does not affect bond length

d)

Lower bond order leads to shorter bond length

53.

Compare single, double, and triple bonds in terms of bond strength. Which is correct?

a)

Single bonds are strongest among the three

b)

Double bonds are stronger than triple bonds

c)

Triple bonds are strongest among the three

d)

Strength is the same for all three

54.

A molecule has a very short bond length between two atoms. What does this most likely indicate about the bond?

a)

It has high bond order but low strength

b)

It has low bond order but high strength

c)

It has high bond order and high strength

d)

It has low bond order and weak strength

55.

Two similar molecules differ only by having a single bond in one and a double bond in the other. Which property will most likely be greater for the double-bonded molecule?

a)

Bond length between the atoms

b)

Bond strength between the atoms

c)

Number of atoms in the molecule

d)

Electronegativity of the atoms

56.

Which Lewis symbol correctly shows nitrogen’s valence electrons?

a)

N with two dots around

b)

N with five dots around

c)

N with three dots around

d)

N with seven dots around

57.

Fluorine forms a polar bond with hydrogen. In a Lewis symbol, how many valence electrons are shown around a single fluorine atom?

a)

Seven electrons around F

b)

Eight electrons around F

c)

Six electrons around F

d)

Five electrons around F

58.

Which statement best defines electronegativity?

a)

Atom’s ability to increase atomic radius

b)

Atom’s capacity to emit light photons

c)

Atom’s tendency to lose outer electrons

d)

Atom’s ability to attract shared electrons

59.

Based on the table, which HF property most explains its largest dipole moment among HX molecules?

a)

Largest molecular volume value

b)

Highest atomic number value

c)

Shortest bond length value

d)

Greatest electronegativity difference value

60.

Arrange HCl, HBr, and HI from most polar to least polar using the diagram and table.

a)

HCl > HI > HBr

b)

HBr > HCl > HI

c)

HI > HBr > HCl

d)

HCl > HBr > HI

61.

If an unknown HX has an electronegativity difference of 1.5, what is the best prediction about its bond polarity compared with HCl?

a)

Less polar than HCl overall

b)

More polar than HCl overall

c)

Equal polarity to HCl overall

d)

Unrelated to electronegativity

62.

Which trend across the series HF → HCl → HBr → HI is correctly supported by both numbers and shapes?

a)

Dipole moment decreases steadily

b)

Bond length decreases steadily

c)

Electronegativity difference increases steadily

d)

Electron density becomes perfectly uniform

63.

Which statement best describes bond polarity in a covalent bond?

a)

Electrons transfer completely between atoms

b)

Protons move to balance electron sharing

c)

Equal electron sharing creates full charges

d)

Unequal electron sharing creates partial charges

64.

What electronegativity difference (ΔEN) most likely indicates a non‑polar covalent bond between two identical atoms?

a)

ΔEN ≈ 2 for identical atoms

b)

ΔEN ≈ 1 for identical atoms

c)

ΔEN ≈ 3 for identical atoms

d)

ΔEN ≈ 0 for identical atoms

65.

Two atoms form a bond with ΔEN = 0.4. How is this bond classified?

a)

Slightly polar covalent bond

b)

Perfectly non‑polar bond

c)

Metallic lattice bond

d)

Strongly ionic bond

66.

A bond has ΔEN = 1.8. What is the most appropriate classification at the grade‑level boundary?

a)

Ionic character likely dominates

b)

Covalent character strictly dominates

c)

Non‑polar character dominates

d)

Metallic character dominates

67.

Which pair is most likely to form an ionic bond based on electronegativity?

a)

Nitrogen and oxygen in NO

b)

Carbon and hydrogen in CH4

c)

Sodium and chlorine in NaCl

d)

Chlorine and chlorine in Cl2

68.

Which statement compares polar and non‑polar covalent bonds correctly?

a)

Polar bonds occur only in metals; non‑polar in nonmetals

b)

Polar bonds have equal sharing; non‑polar have unequal

c)

Polar bonds have unequal sharing; non‑polar have equal

d)

Polar bonds transfer electrons; non‑polar share them

69.

Calculate ΔEN for a bond between phosphorus (EN = 2.1) and chlorine (EN = 3.0). Classify the bond.

a)

ΔEN = 0.9, polar covalent

b)

ΔEN = 0.9, non‑polar covalent

c)

ΔEN = 1.9, ionic

d)

ΔEN = 0.3, non‑polar covalent

70.

A molecule has several polar bonds but is overall non‑polar. Which explanation fits best?

a)

Metallic bonding averages electron sea

b)

Electrons transfer making full charges

c)

Atoms have identical electronegativities

d)

Symmetrical shape cancels bond dipoles

71.

Which single bond in the PCl3 structure shown is more polar due to greater electronegativity difference?

a)

P–P bond is more polar than P–Cl

b)

P–Cl bond is more polar than Cl–Cl

c)

Cl–Cl bond is more polar than P–Cl

d)

P–Cl bond is more polar than P–P

72.

Using electronegativity trends, which atom is least electronegative and therefore the central atom in the displayed molecule?

a)

Both chlorine and phosphorus are equally least

b)

Hydrogen would be least if present

c)

Phosphorus is least electronegative and central

d)

Chlorine is least electronegative and central

73.

Which statement best describes a dipole moment in a molecule?

a)

Total number of shared electrons

b)

Quantitative measure of bond polarity

c)

Speed of electron movement in bonds

d)

Overall molecular mass in grams

74.

What symbol is commonly used to represent dipole moment in equations?

a)

mu (μ) symbol

b)

lambda (λ) symbol

c)

delta (Δ) symbol

d)

sigma (σ) symbol

75.

Which unit is typically used to express molecular dipole moments?

a)

Debye (D) units

b)

Newton (N) units

c)

Mole (mol) units

d)

Kelvin (K) units

76.

If a bond has greater charge separation, what happens to its dipole moment value?

a)

It stays constant

b)

It becomes larger

c)

It becomes negative

d)

It becomes smaller

77.

Which pair of words best completes the idea: Dipole moment depends on ______ and ______ between charges?

a)

magnitude, distance

b)

mass, volume

c)

pressure, temperature

d)

speed, acceleration

78.

A molecule shows zero net dipole moment. Which conclusion fits best?

a)

Electrons stop moving entirely

b)

Molecule contains no polar bonds

c)

All bonds are ionic only

d)

Bond dipoles cancel by symmetry

79.

Which choice is the clearest example of a polar bond creating charge separation?

a)

One atom pulls electrons more strongly

b)

Both atoms share electrons equally

c)

Atoms have identical electronegativities

d)

Bonding involves only metallic atoms

80.

Which statement about Debye units is most accurate for grade 8 science?

a)

They track reaction rate changes

b)

They count valence electron totals

c)

They measure atomic radius lengths

d)

They quantify molecular polarity size

81.

Which equation defines formal charge on an atom in a Lewis structure?

a)

Valence electrons minus lone pairs and half bonds

b)

Valence electrons plus lone pairs minus full bonds

c)

Valence electrons minus bonding electrons minus charge

d)

Valence electrons plus bonding pairs minus lone pairs

82.

In drawing HCN, why is a triple bond formed between C and N?

a)

To convert the molecule into a charged species

b)

To complete carbon’s octet when electrons run out

c)

To reduce hydrogen’s valence shell to zero

d)

To give nitrogen five shared electron pairs

83.

Which step comes first when calculating a molecule’s dipole moment from its partial charges?

a)

Determine partial charges using electronegativity

b)

Identify bond length and charge separation

c)

Convert units to Debye after computing

d)

Sum vector components of individual bond dipoles

84.

A bond shows a partial negative charge on the more electronegative atom. What does this imply about the dipole direction?

a)

Points from atom with more formal charge

b)

Points from atom with fewer valence electrons

c)

Points from negative to positive end

d)

Points from positive to negative end

85.

Which statement best describes how electronegativity (EN) difference relates to bond polarity?

a)

Greater EN difference means more polar bond

b)

Smaller EN difference means more polar bond

c)

EN difference has no effect on bond polarity

d)

Bond polarity depends only on bond length

86.

A bond shows an EN difference of about 0.0. What type of bond is most likely?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bond

b)

Polar covalent bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Metallic bond

87.

On an electrostatic potential map, which region indicates where electrons are most concentrated?

a)

Red or negative potential regions

b)

Blue or positive potential regions

c)

Green or neutral potential regions

d)

Yellow or slightly positive regions

88.

Which pair of atoms is most likely to form an ionic bond based on EN difference?

a)

Chlorine and bromine

b)

Carbon and hydrogen

c)

Sodium and chlorine

d)

Nitrogen and oxygen

89.

Which step comes first when drawing a Lewis structure for a molecule like CO2?

a)

Check octet or duet rules

b)

Count total valence electrons

c)

Choose the central atom carefully

d)

Place lone pairs on outer atoms

90.

What is typically chosen as the central atom in a covalent molecule?

a)

The most electronegative atom

b)

The atom with fewest valence electrons

c)

The least electronegative atom

d)

The smallest atomic radius

91.

How do you calculate total valence electrons for H2O?

a)

Multiply atoms then divide by two

b)

Add bonds then subtract lone pairs

c)

Add each atom’s valence electrons

d)

Use atomic numbers then subtract two

92.

Why is hydrogen never the central atom in Lewis structures?

a)

Hydrogen forms three bonds

b)

Hydrogen always carries negative charge

c)

Hydrogen prefers high electronegativity

d)

Hydrogen achieves a duet only

93.

Which choice shows a correct skeleton structure for NH3 before adding lone pairs?

a)

H–N–H–H linear chain

b)

N double bonded to three hydrogens

c)

N center with three H single bonds

d)

H center with three N single bonds

94.

You are drawing SO2. After counting valence electrons, which atom should be placed in the center?

a)

Sulfur because highest valence

b)

Sulfur because less electronegative

c)

Oxygen because it has lone pairs

d)

Oxygen because smaller radius

95.

A student sums valence electrons for COCl2. Which method is correct?

a)

Use group numbers for each atom

b)

Use atomic masses for each atom

c)

Use core electrons only for each

d)

Use ionic charges for the atoms

96.

When making the initial skeleton structure, what should you do with the outer atoms first?

a)

Remove extra electrons early

b)

Place them around the center

c)

Assign formal charges quickly

d)

Add double bonds immediately

97.

You select the central atom incorrectly as oxygen in H2SO4. What issue might this cause later?

a)

Impossible bond angles everywhere

b)

Too few valence electrons counted

c)

Difficulty satisfying outer octets

d)

Duet rule violation for sulfur

98.

Which is the best immediate next step after choosing a central atom for CH4?

a)

Place triple bonds to each hydrogen

b)

Assign formal charges to atoms

c)

Distribute lone pairs to the center

d)

Arrange hydrogens around the center

99.

When completing a Lewis structure, which atoms should have their octets filled first?

a)

Atoms with the lowest electronegativity

b)

Outer atoms before central atoms

c)

Central atoms before outer atoms

d)

Atoms that form multiple bonds first

100.

After the outer atoms reach octets, what is the next step for the central atom?

a)

Create coordinate covalent bonds

b)

Remove electrons from outer atoms

c)

Check and fill the central atom octet

d)

Add lone pairs to central atom

101.

Which situation most often requires forming double or triple bonds in a Lewis structure?

a)

The central atom has fewer than eight electrons

b)

Too many electrons remain after octets

c)

Odd-electron molecules always need multiple bonds

d)

Outer atoms exceed eight electrons

102.

In PCl5, phosphorus is surrounded by 10 electrons. What rule does this illustrate?

a)

Resonance stabilization

b)

Odd-electron exception

c)

Expanded octet exception

d)

Incomplete octet exception

103.

Elements that can have expanded octets are typically found in which part of the periodic table?

a)

Noble gases only

b)

Transition metals only

c)

Period 3 or below

d)

Period 2 only

104.

Which molecule is an example of having fewer than eight electrons around the central atom?

a)

NO

b)

PF5

c)

BF3

d)

SF6

105.

Which molecule is an example of an expanded octet?

a)

PF5

b)

AlCl3

c)

NO

d)

BCl3

106.

What is the best approach when the central atom has fewer than eight electrons after distributing lone pairs?

a)

Remove lone pairs from central atom

b)

Switch to ionic bonding model

c)

Form multiple bonds with outer atoms

d)

Add electrons to outer atoms

107.

Which species is an example of an odd-electron molecule?

a)

PF5

b)

NO

c)

BF3

d)

SF6

108.

When completing Lewis structures, which statement is true about outer atom octets?

a)

They must always become expanded beyond eight

b)

They are ignored for third-period elements

c)

They should be completed before adjusting the central atom

d)

They may be left incomplete if central atom needs electrons