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Physiology Mock Board Exam — Extraction

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following sources can produce the greatest amount of ATP per minute over a short period of time?

a)

Aerobic system

b)

Phosphagen system

c)

Glycogen-lactic acid system

d)

Phosphocreatine system

e)

Stored ATP

2.

Which of the following food substances requires chewing for digestion?

a)

Cheese

b)

Eggs

c)

Vegetables

d)

Meat

3.

Which of the following is the main digestible carbohydrate normally consumed in the human diet?

a)

Amylose

b)

Cellulose

c)

Maltose

d)

Starch

4.

Which of the following is not normally found in abundance in the portal blood?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Glucose

c)

Short-chain fatty acids

d)

Triglycerides

5.

The proenzyme pepsinogen is secreted mainly from which of the following structures?

a)

Acinar cells of the pancreas

b)

Ductal cells of the pancreas

c)

Epithelial cells of the duodenum

d)

Gastric glands of the stomach

6.

Compared to plasma, saliva has the highest relative concentration of which of the following ions under basal conditions?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

Chloride

c)

Potassium

d)

Sodium

7.

Biopsies are taken from the antral and duodenal mucosa of a 65-year-old woman. Which of the following hormones can be found in tissue homogenates from both locations?

a)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

b)

Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GLIP)

c)

Gastrin

d)

Motilin

e)

Secretin

8.

A 10 year-old boy consumes a cheeseburger, fries and chocolate shake. The meal stimulates the release of several GI hormones. The presence of fat, carbohydrate, or protein in the duodenum stimulates the release of which of the following hormones form the duodenal mucosa?

a)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

b)

Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GLIP)

c)

Gastrin

d)

Motilin

e)

Secretin

9.

Parasympathetic stimulation increases GI motility and sympathetic stimulation decreases motility. The autonomic nervous system controls gut motility by changing which of the following?

a)

Gastrin secretion

b)

Pacemaker discharge frequency

c)

Secretin secretion

d)

Slow wave frequency

e)

Spike potential frequency

10.

Sympathetic stimulation of the heart

a)

Releases acetylcholine at the sympathetic endings

b)

Decreases sinus nodal discharge rate

c)

Decreases excitability of the heart

d)

Releases norepinephrine at the sympathetic endings

e)

Decreases cardiac contractility

11.

A 53-year-old woman eats a healthy meal. Approximately 20 minutes later the woman feels the urge to defecate. Which of the following reflexes results in the urge to defecate when the stomach is stretched?

a)

Duodenocolic reflex

b)

Enterogastric reflex

c)

Gastrocolic reflex

d)

Intestino-intestinal reflex

e)

Retrosphincteric

12.

What causes the excess muscle mass in the average male compared to a female?

a)

Increased testosterone secreted in the male

b)

Increased estrogen secreted by the female

c)

Higher exercise levels in the male

d)

Greater glycogen deposition by males

13.

Olympic athletes who run marathons or perform crosscountry skiing have much higher maximum cardiac outputs than non-athletes. Which of the following statements about the hearts of these athletes compared to non-athletes is most accurate?

a)

Stroke volume in the Olympic athlete is about 5% greater at rest

b)

Percentage increase in heart rate during maximal exercise is much greater in the Olympic athletes

c)

Maximum cardiac output is only 3% to 4% greater in the Olympic athletes

d)

Resting heart rate in the Olympic athletes is significantly higher

14.

Which of the following statements about respiration in exercise is most accurate?

a)

Maximum oxygen consumption of a male marathon runner is less than that of an untrained average male

b)

Maximum oxygen consumption can be increased about 100% by training

c)

Maximum oxygen diffusing capacity of a male marathon runner is much greater than that of an untrained average male

d)

Blood levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide are abnormal during exercise

15.

Which of the following athletes is able to exercise the longest before exhaustion occurs?

a)

One on a high-fat diet

b)

One on a high-carbohydrate diet

c)

One on a mixed carbohydrate–fat diet

d)

One on a high-protein diet

e)

One on a mixed protein–fat diet

16.

Tobacco smoking causes which of the following effects on the pulmonary system?

a)

Dilation of terminal bronchioles

b)

Decreased airflow resistance

c)

Decreased fluid secretion in the bronchial tree

d)

Paralyzed cilia on the respiratory epithelial cells

17.

In athletes who use androgens to increase performance experience, which of the following would most likely occur?

a)

Decreased high-density blood lipoproteins

b)

Increased low-density blood lipoproteins

c)

Increased testicular function

d)

Decreased incidence of hypertension

18.

Which of the following is inconsistent with the diagnosis of Graves’ disease?

a)

Increased heart rate

b)

Exophthalmos

c)

Increased plasma levels of triiodothyronine (T3)

d)

Increased plasma levels of thyroxine (T4)

e)

Increased plasma levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone

19.

Which of the following statements about antidiuretic hormone is true?

a)

It is synthesized in the posterior pituitary gland

b)

It increases salt and water reabsorption in the collecting tubules and ducts

c)

It stimulates thirst

20.

After menopause, hormone replacement therapy with estrogen-like compounds is effective in preventing the progression of osteoporosis. What is the mechanism of their protective effect?

a)

They stimulate the activity of osteoblasts

b)

They increase absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract

c)

They stimulate calcium reabsorption by the renal tubules

d)

They stimulate parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroid gland

21.

One treatment for erectile dysfunction involves the injection of a substance into the corpora cavernosa of the penis. The injection of which of the following causes an erection?

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

A substance that inhibits formation of nitric oxide

c)

Thromboxane A2, which is a vasoconstrictor prostaglandin

d)

Angiotensin I

e)

None of the above

22.

Exposure to UV light directly facilitates which of the following?

a)

Conversion of cholesterol to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol

b)

Conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

c)

Transport of calcium into the extracellular fluid

d)

Formation of calcium binding protein

e)

Storage of vitamin D3 in the liver

23.

Spermatogenesis is regulated by a negative feedback control system in which follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the steps in sperm cell formation. What is the negative feedback signal associated with sperm cell production that inhibits pituitary formation of FSH?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Inhibin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Luteinizing hormone

24.

Estrogen is required for normal reproductive function in the male. Where is the principal site of estrogen synthesis in the male?

a)

Leydig cells

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Liver cells

d)

Prostate cells

25.

In the circulatory system of a fetus, which of the following is greater before birth than after birth?

a)

Arterial Po2

b)

Right atrial pressure

c)

Aortic pressure

d)

Left ventricular pressure

26.

Parathyroid hormone directly

a)

controls the rate of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol formation

b)

controls the rate of calcium transport in the mucosa of the small intestine

c)

controls the rate of formation of calcium binding protein

d)

controls the rate of formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

e)

stimulates renal tubular phosphate reabsorption

27.

Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones plays a major role in the regulation of a nonendocrine target gland?

a)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

b)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

c)

Prolactin

d)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

e)

Luteinizing hormone

28.

A patient has a goiter associated with high plasma levels of both thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Her heart rate is elevated. This patient most likely has which of the following?

a)

Endemic goiter

b)

Hypothalamic tumor secreting large amounts of TRH

c)

Pituitary tumor secreting large amounts of TSH

d)

Graves’ disease

29.

Which of the following pairs of hormones and the corresponding action is incorrect?

a)

Glucagon—increased glycogenolysis in liver

b)

Glucagon—increased glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle

c)

Glucagon—increased gluconeogenesis

d)

Cortisol—increased gluconeogenesis

e)

Cortisol—decreased glucose uptake in muscle

30.

Which of the following structures will have the slowest rate of conduction of the cardiac action potential?

a)

Atrial muscle

b)

Anterior internodal pathway

c)

A-V bundle fibers

d)

Purkinje fibers

e)

Ventricular muscle

31.

Very early in embryonic development, testosterone is formed within the male embryo. What is the function of this hormone at this stage of development?

a)

Stimulation of bone growth

b)

Stimulation of development of male sex organs

c)

Stimulation of development of skeletal muscle

d)

Inhibition of luteinizing hormone secretion

32.

Following ejaculation, arterial blood flow into the corpora cavernosa decreases back to the normal resting level resulting in the flaccid state. What is the best explanation for this decrease in blood flow?

a)

Systemic arterial pressure decreases due to absence of sexual stimulation

b)

The level of sympathetic stimulation to the arterioles supplying the corpora cavernosa decreases

c)

Resistance of the arterioles supplying the corpora cavernosa increases

d)

Formation of nitric oxide in the endothelial cells of the arterioles supplying the corpora cavernosa is stimulated by the increase in parasympathetic nervous system activity

e)

Resistance of the venules draining the sinuses of the corpora cavernosa increases

33.

Which of the following decreases the rate of urinary excretion of calcium ions by the kidney?

a)

Increase in calcitonin concentration in the plasma

b)

Decrease in phosphate ion concentration in the plasma

c)

Increase in the plasma level of parathyroid hormone

d)

Metabolic acidosis

e)

Increase in calcium ion activity in the plasma

34.

Before the preovulatory surge in luteinizing hormone, granulosa cells of the follicle secrete which of the following?

a)

Testosterone

b)

Progesterone

c)

Estrogen

d)

Inhibin

35.

Which of the following findings is most likely in a patient who has myxedema?

a)

Somnolence

b)

Palpitations

c)

Increased respiratory rate

d)

Increased cardiac output

e)

Weight loss

36.

Which of the following stimulates the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

a)

Increase in extracellular calcium ion activity above the normal value

b)

Increase in calcitonin concentration

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Increased secretion of PTH-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus

e)

None of the above

37.

Which of the following characteristics of a biological membrane is most influenced by its cholesterol content?

a)

Thickness

b)

Ion permeability

c)

Fluidity

d)

Glycosylation

e)

Hydrophobicity

38.

Which of the following phases of the cardiac cycle follows immediately after the beginning of the QRS wave?

a)

Isovolumic relaxation

b)

Ventricular ejection

c)

Atrial systole

d)

Diastasis

e)

Isovolumic contraction

39.

Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion share which of the following characteristics?

a)

Both are passive processes that do not require metabolic energy

b)

Both can be blocked by specific inhibitors

c)

Both require carrier proteins

d)

Both exhibit saturable kinetics at high solute concentrations

e)

Both transport only lipid-soluble substances

40.

Excitation–contraction coupling in skeletal muscle involves all of the following events EXCEPT one. Which one is this exception?

a)

ATP hydrolysis

b)

Binding of Calcium to Calmodulin

c)

Conformational change in dihydropyridine receptor

d)

Depolarization of the transverse tubule (T Tubule) membrane

e)

Increased Na+ conductance of sarcolemma

41.

A single contraction of skeletal muscle is most likely to be terminated by which of the following actions?

a)

Closure of the postsynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

b)

Removal of acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction

c)

Removal of calcium from the terminal of the motor neuron

d)

Removal of sarcoplasmic calcium

e)

Return of the dihydropyridine receptor to its resting conformation

42.

Which of the following statements about smooth muscle contraction is most accurate?

a)

Calcium independent

b)

Does not require an action potential

c)

Requires more energy compared to skeletal muscle

d)

Shorter in duration compared to skeletal muscle

43.

Which of the following best describes attribute of visceral smooth muscle not shared by skeletal muscle?

a)

Contraction is ATP dependent

b)

Contracts in response to stretch

c)

Does not contain actin filaments

d)

High rate of cross‑bridge cycling

e)

Low maximal force of contraction

44.

The resting potential of a myelinated nerve fiber is primarily dependent on the concentration gradient of which of the following ions?

a)

Calcium

b)

Chloride

c)

HCO3−

d)

Potassium

e)

Sodium

45.

Calmodulin is most likely related, both structurally and functionally, to which of the following proteins?

a)

G‑actin

b)

Myosin light chain

c)

Tropomyosin

d)

Troponin C

46.

Calmodulin is most closely related, both structurally and functionally, to which of the following proteins?

a)

G‑actin

b)

Myosin light chain

c)

Tropomyosin

d)

Troponin C

47.

Similarities between smooth and cardiac muscle include which of the following?

a)

Ability to contract in the absence of an action potential

b)

Dependence of contraction on Ca++ ions

c)

Presence of a T tubule network

d)

Role of myosin kinase in muscle contraction

e)

Striated arrangement of the actin and myosin filaments

48.

Weightlifting can result in a dramatic increase in skeletal muscle mass. This increase in muscle mass is primarily attributable to which of the following?

a)

Fusion of sarcomeres between adjacent myofibrils

b)

Hypertrophy of individual muscle fibers

c)

Increase in skeletal muscle blood supply

d)

Increase in the number of motor neurons

e)

Increase in the number of neuromuscular junctions

49.

Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is most accurate?

a)

The T‑tubules of cardiac muscle can store much less calcium than T‑tubules in skeletal muscle

b)

The strength and contraction of cardiac muscle depends on the amount of calcium surrounding cardiac myocytes

c)

In cardiac muscle the initiation of the action potential causes an immediate opening of slow calcium channels

d)

Cardiac muscle repolarization is caused by opening of sodium channels

e)

Mucopolysaccharides inside the T‑tubules bind chloride ions

50.

Which of the following events occurs at the end of the period of ventricular ejection?

a)

A‑V valves close

b)

Aortic valve opens

c)

Aortic valve remains open

d)

A‑V valves open

e)

Pulmonary valve closes