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Worksheets

Orion 26-42

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the benefit of the piperazine group at position?

a)

Increases drug resistance to β-lactamase and improves the oral bioavailability of the drug

b)

Increases lipophilicity and hence penetration of the bacterial cell wall

c)

Improves the spectrum of antibacterial activity (especially Gram-negative)

d)

Decreases toxicity while maintaining efficacy

2.

Which one of the following is the effect to alkaline buffers that have in commercial formulations of aspirin?

a)

They have one effect on the rate of absorption

b)

They increase the rate of its absorption by alkalinizing the pH of the stomach

c)

They reduce the rate of absorption of aspirin by converting it to the less readily absorbed ionic form

d)

They increase the rate of absorption by increasing the pH immediately around the disintegrating aspirin particles and accelerating their dissolution

3.

Examine the chemical structure of diclofenac (see image). Which of the following structures best represents a major active metabolite of diclofenac?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

4.

The presented structure belongs to the proton pump inhibitor tenatoprazol (see image). Which of the following metabolic reactions can occur at the pointed arrow on the structure?

a)

Sulfation

b)

Oxidation

c)

Demethylation

d)

Glucoronidation

5.

Which of the following medications contains triazole moiety? (see image)

a)

Fluconazole

b)

Anastrozole

c)

Ribavirin

d)

Rizatriptan

6.

Histamine (pKa= 9.49.4 ) is endogenous chemical release when allergic reaction happened. As a pharmacist you are responsible to understand the mechanism and the conformation of this chemical in the blood (see image). Which of the following is the least dominant tautomer of the histamine at the physiological pH?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

7.

D-Galactose and D-Mannose are monosaccharide sugar. They have the same number of carbons and the same functional group, but they differ in their configurations. This reflects their pharmaceutical uses (see image). Which of the following types of stereo-isomerization do these sugars represent?

a)

Isomers

b)

Epimers

c)

Anomers

d)

Diasteromers

8.

Ropivancain is an important local anesthetic. The figure shows the chemical structures of ropivacaine and 4 other local anesthetics (see image). Which of the following is the bioisoster for ropivacaine?

a)

Etidocaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Mepivacaine

d)

Levobupivacaine

9.

Amphotericin undergo which reaction?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Alkylation

c)

Reduction

d)

Oxidation

10.

Epimer of glucose?

a)

Ribose

b)

Galactose

c)

Deoxyribose

11.

Two chemical configurations for the same drug, one is R and the other is S. What is it called?

a)

Enantiomers

b)

Diastereomers

c)

Conformers

d)

Isotopes

12.

Morphine to heroine?

a)

Carboxylation

b)

Esterification

c)

Acetylation

13.

Morphine to heroine??

a)

Carboxylation

b)

Esterification

14.

Type of bond between amino acids?

a)

Amide bond

b)

Disulfide bond

c)

Ionic bond

d)

Van der Waals bond

15.

Aspirin metabolism?

a)

Methylation

b)

Hydroxylation

c)

Conjugation

16.

Bond between carboxyl and amine?

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

peptide bond = covalent chemical bond

c)

Van der Waals

17.

Benzimidazole and pyridine connected together with?

a)

Disulfide bond

b)

Ether linkage

c)

Methylene (−CH2−) linkage

d)

Amide bond

18.

Structures of zidovudine antivirals, marked 4 area on structure and asked about which part to remove that make the antiviral drug not effective?

a)

N3

b)

CH3

c)

C=O

d)

OH

19.

Which element is not involve in heterocyclic compounds?

a)

N

b)

H

c)

Se

d)

Fe

20.

Which the least dominant tautomerism of the histamine at the physiological pH?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

21.

Ephedrine phenylephrine additional of hydroxyl group what do to activity?

a)

Increase alpha 1

b)

Decrease alpha 1

c)

Increase alpha 2

d)

Decrease alpha 2

22.

Which of the following is the active metabolite of primidone?

a)

phenytoin

b)

dopamine

c)

phenobarbital

d)

methsuximide

23.

Which of the following is the therapeutic indication for methylphenidate?

a)

eczema

b)

insomnia

c)

anorexia nervous

d)

attention deficit disorder in children

24.

A 6-year-old boy is brought with complaint of uncontrollable spasm-like movements and excessive eye blinking for four months. Chronic motor disorder was diagnosed. Which of the following is the best management?

a)

pregabalin

b)

Haloperidol

c)

Methadone

d)

Chlorzoxazone

25.

Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

a)

Aspartate

b)

Serotonin

c)

Glutamate

d)

Gama aminobutyric acid (GABA)

26.

A 67-year-old man presents with complaints of tremors, trouble walking and masked face. Parkinson’s disease is suspected. Levodopa is prescribed along with a compound to lower required dose of levodopa and to achieve an effective brain dopamine concentration. Which of the following is that most likely compound?

a)

pergolide

b)

selegiline

c)

carbidopa

d)

entacapone

27.

Which of the following is a potential side effect of using chlorpromazine in an elderly person?

a)

dyskinesia

b)

constipation

c)

urinary retention

d)

tardive dyskinesia

28.

A 14 years-old man expressed withdrawal symptoms from using benzodiazepine drug which included irritability and aggression. Which of the following types of benzodiazepines is more likely associated with these symptoms?

a)

long-acting benzodiazepines

b)

ultra-short acting benzodiazepines

c)

benzodiazepines WITH ACTIVE METABOLITES

d)

benzodiazepines with high plasma protein binding

29.

A 38-year-old man is using citalopram 20 mg po daily for depression which he has been taking for 1 year. A week ago, he had an infection and was prescribed linezolid 600 mg po q12h for a total of 14 days. The patient began to get confused and easily agitated like he was breathing rapidly and started to sweat and develop tremor. Which of the following is name of this drug-drug interact happened to this patient?

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Seizure activity

c)

Serotonin syndrome

d)

Stevens Johnson syndrome

30.

An elderly man presented to the emergency room with dizziness, consciousness loss, and respiratory depression. He was recently on medication for inability to sleep. Which of the following medications is the most likely drug involve toxicity?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Naproxen

c)

Diazepam

d)

Acetaminophen

31.

An 18-year-old boy with a history of illicit drug use is suspected to have an overdose of benzodiazepines and is experiencing ataxia, drowsiness and nystagmus. Which of the following would be the best antidote?

a)

Activated charcoal 50 grams

b)

Flumazenil 300 mcg intravenously

c)

Naloxone 400 mcg intramuscularly

d)

Haloperidol 10 mg intramuscularly

32.

Which of the following is considered first line therapy for the management of partial seizures?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Phenobarbital

c)

Gabapentin

d)

Primidone

33.

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances predispose to lithium toxicity?

a)

magnesium

b)

potassium

c)

calcium

d)

sodium

34.

Which of the following anticonvulsants needs serum level monitoring for optimize safety and efficacy?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Lacosamide

35.

Which of the following dosage regimen is approved for severe Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Donepezil 23 mg daily

b)

Memantine 5 mg daily

c)

Rivastigmine 6 mg twice daily

d)

Galantamine 12 mg twice daily

36.

Which of the following counseling points is most important to discuss with a patient who is taking carbidopa/levodopa?

a)

Should be taken on an empty stomach

b)

High-fat meal may increase the absorption

c)

Should not be taken with calcium supplements

d)

High-protein meal may decrease the absorption

37.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for increased risk of falls in geriatric patients using tricyclic antidepressants?

a)

palpitations

b)

weak muscles

c)

orthostatic hypotension

d)

difficulty in concentration

38.

Which of the following medications is the most appropriate for nausea induced by the anti-Parkinson’s drug bromocriptine?

a)

itopride

b)

Domperidone

c)

Metoclopramide

d)

Chlorpheniramine

39.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of entacapone?

a)

Inhibition of nicotinic receptors

b)

Inhibition on dopamine-D2 receptors

c)

Inhibition of monoamine oxidases (MAO)

d)

Inhibition of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

40.

Which of the following drugs causes oligohydrosis?

a)

Phenytoin

b)

Topiramate

c)

Zonisamide

d)

Oxcarbazepine

41.

Which of the following does mechanisms Carbidopa act as an anti-parkinsonian agent?

a)

Blocking dopamine receptors

b)

Activating serotonin reuptake

c)

Binding to alpha-7 nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

d)

Decreasing the decarboxylation of levodopa in peripheral tissues

42.

Which of the following is the therapeutic use of the dietary supplement Valerian?

a)

Improve urinary flow

b)

Reduce severity of a cold or virus infection

c)

Improve memory

d)

Mild sedative

43.

A 61-year-old man was recently diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. He was prescribed an anti-Parkinson medication. Later, he was presented to the clinic with mydriasis and narrow angle glaucoma. Which of the following medication was prescribed?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Bromocriptine

c)

Trihexyphenidyl

d)

Levodopa (L-DOPA)

44.

Which of the following is the active metabolite of primidone?

a)

phenytoin

b)

dopamine

c)

phenobarbital

d)

methsuximide

45.

A 45-year-old woman was prescribed a sedative for anxiety to be taken at night. Three days later, she presented complaining of drowsiness, dysphoria and motor depression every morning. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed?

a)

zolpidem

b)

diazepam

c)

ramelteon

d)

midazolam

46.

Which of the following medications is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

donepezil

b)

amantadine

c)

trihexyphenidyl

d)

carbidopa-levodopa

47.

Which of the following receptors is the target for morphine action?

a)

glutamate receptor

b)

interleukin-2 receptor

c)

mu (μ) opioid receptor

d)

acetylcholine receptor

48.

Which of the following side effects is common with short half-life hypnotics?

a)

rebound insomnia

b)

development of tolerance

c)

induction of liver metabolic enzymes

d)

retrograde amnesia during the next day

49.

A 67-year-old man presents with tremors, trouble walking, and a masked face. Parkinson’s disease is suspected. Levodopa is prescribed along with a compound to lower the required dose of levodopa and to achieve an effective brain–dopamine concentration. Which of the following is the most likely compound?

a)

pergolide

b)

selegiline

c)

carbidopa

d)

entacapone

50.

Which anxiolytic drug has a slow onset of action?

a)

diazepam

b)

buspirone

c)

alprazolam

d)

phenobarbital

51.

Which of the following is the therapeutic use of the dietary supplement valerian?

a)

improve urinary flow

b)

reduce severity of a cold or virus infection

c)

improve memory

d)

mild sedative

52.

Which of the following statements best describes L-DOPA?

a)

it is absorbed and converted to carbidopa

b)

it activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

c)

it is the drug of choice in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

d)

it crosses the blood–brain barrier and is converted to dopamine

53.

Which of the following adverse effects is associated with the use of barbiturates in elderly?

a)

Ataxia

b)

Agitation

c)

Dementia

d)

Hypotension

54.

Which of the following mechanism of actions most appropriately describes benzodiazepines?

a)

Inhibit GABA’s actions at the GABA receptor

b)

Potentiate 5-HT’s actions at the 5-HT receptor

c)

Potentiate GABA’s actions at the GABA receptor

d)

Potentiate glutamate’s actions at the NMDA receptor

55.

Which of the following is a therapeutic use of lorazepam?

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Analgesic

c)

Hypnotic

d)

Diuretic

56.

Epilepsy patient with positive HLA-B 1502: Which antiepileptic can be used?

a)

levetiracetam

b)

lamotrigine

c)

phenytoin

d)

carbamazepine

57.

Drug of choice for a patient with focal seizure and positive HLA-B 1502: Which agent should be selected?

a)

levetiracetam

b)

carbamazepine

c)

lamotrigine

d)

phenobarbital

58.

Which of the following is the first-line drug for Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

amantadine

b)

donepezil

c)

levodopa

d)

dopamine

59.

Which of the following is the active metabolite of primidone?

a)

phenytoin

b)

dopamine

c)

phenobarbital

d)

methsuximide

60.

Which of the following drugs causes oligohydrosis? Select all that apply.

a)

phenytoin

b)

topiramate

c)

zonisamide

d)

oxcarbazepine

61.

Patient with diabetes mellitus, neuropathy, and depression: Which single medication is appropriate to use?

a)

duloxetine

b)

pregabalin

c)

amitriptyline

d)

tramadol

62.

Memantine mechanism of action in Alzheimer’s disease: Which statement is correct?

a)

Affinity uncompetitive N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonism

b)

Memantine blocks the 5-hydroxytryptamine-3 receptor with potency similar to the NMDA receptor

c)

And thus preventing loss of neurons

63.

Which mood stabilizer would be most appropriate in a patient with liver disease?

a)

lithium

b)

valproic acid

c)

carbamazepine

d)

none of the above

64.

Which of the following medications would be first-line monotherapy for an acute episode of mania?

a)

gabapentin

b)

lithium

c)

lamotrigine

d)

haloperidol

65.

Pregnant patient with tonic–clonic seizure: Which treatment is most appropriate?

a)

valproic acid plus folic acid

b)

lamotrigine

c)

cyclizine

d)

metformin

66.

Side effect characteristic of short half-life hypnotics: Which is most typical?

a)

Rebound insomnia

b)

Development of tolerance

67.

Which drug is associated with Stevens–Johnson syndrome?

a)

valproic acid

b)

quinidine

c)

isoniazid

d)

ethosuximide

68.

Common side effect of chlorpromazine: Which is most characteristic?

a)

Headache

b)

Dry cough

c)

Akathisia or tardive dyskinesia

69.

Breastfeeding with epilepsy: Which antiepileptic is suitable?

a)

levetiracetam (Keppra)

b)

phenytoin

c)

carbamazepine

d)

topiramate

70.

Phenytoin metabolism reaction: Which transformation is correct?

a)

Oxidation

b)

Decarboxylation

c)

4-hydroxyphenyl formation by hydroxylation

d)

Methylation

71.

A Parkinson’s patient has a dry cough and had been using selegiline (an MAOI) but stopped it 3 weeks ago. What should be done now?

a)

It is reasonable to give cough medicine

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Give guaifenesin

d)

Don’t give

72.

Which of the following increases lithium concentration?

a)

caffeine

b)

thiazide diuretics

c)

NSAIDs

d)

fluid intake

73.

A 45-year-old man injured in a car accident is admitted with a blood alcohol level of 275 mg/dL. Hospital records show prior hospitalization for alcohol-related seizures and heavy drinking for weeks. Which treatment should be provided to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures?

a)

lorazepam

b)

pentobarbital

c)

phenytoin

d)

buspirone

74.

A patient on benzodiazepines for anxiety had a car accident due to drowsiness. She took cimetidine for heartburn. What happened?

a)

Cimetidine increased the metabolism of the anxiolytic

b)

Cimetidine decreased the metabolism of the anxiolytic

75.

Status epilepticus case already received lorazepam IV. Which drug should be given next?

a)

phenytoin IV

b)

diazepam orally

c)

phenobarbital IV

76.

You prepared aqueous and organic solutions from green leaves of a herbal supplement used as a tea for weight loss and energy. The patient reports tremors, palpitations, and insomnia. Phytochemical screening results were: Dragendorff’s test positive (red–orange precipitate); Fehling’s test negative; Foam test negative; Lead acetate test negative; Ninhydrin test negative; Salkowski’s test negative; Keller–Killiani test negative. Which is the most likely active ingredient?

a)

alkaloid

b)

saponin

c)

reducing sugar

d)

cardiac glycoside

77.

A 49-year-old woman regularly drinks an herbal infusion made from dry senna fruit and developed severe hepatotoxicity. Which active glycoside in senna is associated with this hepatotoxic effect?

a)

anthraquinone glycosides

b)

flavonoids

c)

saponins

d)

cardiac glycosides

78.

Which of the following is an alkaloid isolated from the autumn crocus plant and is useful in the treatment of the symptoms of gouty arthritis?

a)

Celecoxib

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Colchicine

d)

Rasburicase

79.

Which of the following herbal medicines may cause oral carcinoma if chewed daily?

a)

Areca nut

b)

Clove buds

c)

Mentha leaf

d)

Saffron flower

80.

Which of the following herbal products can potentiate the effects of oral antidiabetic medications?

a)

Garlic

b)

Ginseng

c)

Green tea

d)

Echinacea

81.

Which of the following plants has a sedative effect?

a)

Catha edulis (Khat)

b)

Atropa belladonna

c)

Pilocarpus jaborandi

d)

Valeriana officinalis (valerian)

82.

Sennoside B is an anthranoid derivative present in Senna leaves used as a treatment for constipation. It is characterized by O‑glycosides linkage, and its potential activity arises from its aglycon form. Which of the following types of aglycon is the active metabolite of Sennoside B?

a)

Dianthrone

b)

Oxanthrone

c)

Rheinanthrone

d)

Anthraquinone

83.

Which of the following is the retention factor (Rf) for strychnine and brucine, respectively?

a)

0.36, 0.4

b)

2.76, 2.35

c)

3, 2.7

d)

6.4, 6.7

84.

A patient was admitted to the hospital due to poisoning symptoms after ingesting an unknown herbal remedy from an unknown source. The herbal drug was submitted to the analytical lab for analysis. The laboratory phytochemical screening shows the following results: FeCl3: +ve; Dragendorff’s: −ve; saponin: −ve; Baljet test: ++++ve. Which of the following substances is the most likely main content of the unknown herb?

a)

Quinine

b)

Digitalis

c)

Morphine

d)

Belladonna

85.

Which dietary supplement can be suggested to overcome jetlag?

a)

Melatonin

b)

Echinacea

c)

Yohimbine

d)

S‑adenosyl‑L‑methionine (SAMe)

86.

Plant used in peripheral arterial disease?

a)

Ginger

b)

Ginkgo

87.

Which plant exhibits 5‑HT3 activity?

a)

Ginger

b)

Ginseng

c)

Licorice

d)

Black pepper

88.

Which plant is used for cough?

a)

Eucalyptus oil

b)

Thyme

c)

Licorice

d)

Chamomile

89.

Which alkaloid causes skeletal muscle relaxation?

a)

Ephedrine

b)

Theophylline

90.

What is the active ingredient in plant leaves?

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Cellulose

c)

Lignin

d)

Carotene

91.

What is the benefit of grape seeds?

a)

Antioxidant

b)

Anti‑inflammatory

c)

Diuretic

d)

Laxative

92.

Best way to collect volatile oil?

a)

Gas chromatography

b)

Liquid chromatography

93.

FDA approved that it induces sleep?

a)

Lavandula

b)

Valeriana officinalis

c)

Chamomile

d)

Passiflora

94.

Cough with viral infection and green sputum: which medication is appropriate?

a)

Guaifenesin

b)

Dextromethorphan

c)

Codeine

95.

An order for amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 7 days is prescribed. The pharmacy only stocks amoxicillin 250 mg capsules. Which of the following is the number of capsules the pharmacist should dispense?

a)

21

b)

42

c)

64

d)

80

96.

A pharmacist showed a patient how to use injection by pictures. What type of communication is this?

a)

Verbal

b)

Non‑verbal

c)

Physical

d)

Visual

97.

Which of the following situations allows accepting a verbal order?

a)

In a code status

b)

To start chemotherapy

98.

Cleaning is a very important step when working with laminar flow hoods. Which of the following disinfectants is most suitable for cleaning the hood before compounding a sterile preparation?

a)

70% Ethanol

b)

90% Ethanol

c)

70% Isopropanol

d)

90% Isopropanol

99.

Itraconazole capsules require acidic pH for optimal dissolution and absorption. Which of the following is an appropriate advice to optimize the oral absorption of the drug?

a)

Take it with food

b)

Take it on an empty stomach

c)

Take it with a full glass of water

d)

Take it with a proton pump inhibitor

100.

Corticosteroids are given in sepsis for which primary purpose?

a)

Reduce mortality

b)

Decrease pain scale

c)

Decrease staying in ICU

d)

Decrease need for fluids

101.

A 32‑year‑old female with an acute flare of Crohn’s disease was started on methylprednisolone 4 mg once daily. The medical team is ready to transition her to hydrocortisone once daily. What is the equivalent daily dose?

a)

20 mg

b)

5 mg

c)

8 mg

d)

10 mg

102.

A 59‑year‑old male is currently taking prednisolone 10 mg. His physician would like to switch to an equivalent methylprednisolone dose. What is the correct dose?

a)

5 mg

b)

8 mg

c)

10 mg

d)

20 mg

103.

A medication order is given to the pharmacist: Olive oil 60 ml and Vitamin A 60,000 IU. What is likely to be the final form of preparation?

a)

A solution

b)

A liniment

c)

An emulsion (contain oil and water)

d)

A suspension

104.

Which of the following is the basis of the biopharmaceutics classification system of drugs?

a)

Permeability and solubility

b)

Solubility and molecular weight

c)

Solubility and partition coefficient

d)

Permeability and molecular weight

105.

Which of the following techniques will hinder tablet dissolution?

a)

Adding a surfactant agent

b)

Use of drug’s crystalline state

c)

Micronization of drug powder

d)

Increasing tablet compression

106.

A 3‑year‑old boy presents with diarrhea. His weight is 13 kilograms. Which of the following is the most appropriate maintenance fluid requirement for this patient?

a)

1000 ml

b)

1050 ml

c)

1150 ml

d)

1250 ml

107.

Which of the following is another name for a true solution?

a)

Heterogeneous mixture

b)

Homogeneous mixture

c)

Suspension

d)

Colloid

108.

Which of the following is the calculation of the apparent volume of distribution if the patient received 400 mg of intravenous medication that produced immediate blood concentration of 10 microgram/ml?

a)

0.025 L

b)

0.4 L

c)

25 L

d)

40 L

109.

Which of the following is another term for the ability of a liquid to dissolve in another?

a)

Solubility equilibrium

b)

Solvation energy

c)

Hydrophilicity

d)

Miscibility