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Worksheets

Session

Total questions: 212

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main purpose of technical analysis of petroleum products at refineries?

a)

To determine operational and quality characteristics

b)

To increase catalyst activity

c)

To calculate pipeline pressure

d)

To measure equipment corrosion rate

e)

To reduce refinery noise

2.

Which physical separation method is based on differences in boiling points?

a)

Crystallization

b)

Membrane filtration

c)

Centrifugation

d)

Distillation

e)

Adsorption

3.

Hydrocarbons consisting only of single C–C bonds belong to which group?

a)

Aromatics

b)

Olefins

c)

Paraffins

d)

Naphthenes

e)

Alkynes

4.

What type of compounds contain sulfur, nitrogen, or oxygen atoms?

a)

Pure hydrocarbons

b)

Non-hydrocarbon heteroatomic compounds

c)

Metal-organic catalysts

d)

Radioactive compounds

e)

Polymer residues

5.

Which method is commonly used to isolate heteroatomic compounds from middle distillates?

a)

Steam reforming

b)

Acid–base extraction

c)

Catalytic cracking

d)

Hydrocracking

e)

Polymerization

6.

What parameter is typically used to express the composition of petroleum fractions?

a)

Molecular geometry

b)

Boiling range

c)

Freezing point

d)

Electrical resistivity

e)

Vapor acidity

7.

GOST ISO 3405–2022 regulates analysis of which property?

a)

Flash point

b)

Pour point

c)

Atmospheric distillation characteristics

d)

Kinematic viscosity

e)

Toxicity index

8.

Which method is used to determine the hydrocarbon group composition?

a)

Gravimetric analysis

b)

Chromatography

c)

Sedimentation

d)

Infrared drying

e)

Thermogravimetric combustion

9.

What does the octane number characterize?

a)

Density

b)

Engine power

c)

Knock resistance of gasoline

d)

Fuel sulfur content

e)

Viscosity stability

10.

What does the cetane number describe?

a)

Resistance to oxidation

b)

Fuel evaporation rate

c)

Ignition quality of diesel fuel

d)

Water content

e)

Mechanical impurities

11.

Which of the following is the first stage of experimental work?

a)

Data processing

b)

Selection of feed or object

c)

Formulation of the research task

d)

Safety inspection

e)

Reporting

12.

What is a key requirement during laboratory experimental work?

a)

Maximizing heating rate

b)

Safety compliance

c)

Minimizing the number of instruments

d)

Avoiding documentation

e)

Using only open flames

13.

In system analysis of chemical processes, what is a “system”?

a)

A single molecule

b)

An isolated experiment

c)

A set of interconnected elements

d)

A marketing model

e)

A geological formation

14.

What is the goal of modeling in chemical technology?

a)

Eliminating equipment maintenance

b)

Predicting process behavior under various conditions

c)

Increasing fuel odor intensity

d)

Reducing documentation

e)

Increasing manual control

15.

Which model describes the behavior of a real technological apparatus most accurately?

a)

Empirical model

b)

Hypothetical model

c)

Mechanistic model

d)

Symbolic model

e)

Linear approximation

16.

Increasing efficiency of chemical-technology devices often requires:

a)

Reducing reaction rate

b)

Increasing energy consumption

c)

Minimizing losses and optimizing heat exchange

d)

Eliminating automation

e)

Creating more waste

17.

What does depth of processing refer to?

a)

Thickness of pipelines

b)

Degree of raw material conversion

c)

Number of fuel products

d)

Density of catalysts

e)

Length of the reactor

18.

What is the main objective of minimizing energy consumption in refining?

a)

Increasing fuel process stability

b)

Improving energy efficiency and cost reduction

c)

Increasing sulfur emissions

d)

Prolonging product storage

e)

Increasing viscosity

19.

Minimizing industrial waste primarily improves:

a)

Corrosion rate

b)

Environmental and economic performance

c)

Fuel octane rating

d)

Product selectivity

e)

Equipment noise levels

20.

Which principle is essential when designing CTS equipment?

a)

Uncontrolled temperature rise

b)

Thermal and energy optimization

c)

Excessive manual control

d)

Maximum pressure fluctuations

e)

Non-standard materials usage

21.

What separation method is based on differences in molecular structure interactions with adsorbents?

a)

Distillation

b)

Adsorption

c)

Coagulation

d)

Sedimentation

e)

Cavitation

22.

The presence of aromatics in crude oil typically leads to:

a)

Higher ignition temperature

b)

Lower density

c)

Higher chemical reactivity

d)

Stronger corrosion of equipment

e)

Complete absence of impurities

23.

The isolation of nitrogen-containing compounds often uses:

a)

Ion-exchange resins

b)

Distillation only

c)

Evaporation

d)

Sedimentation

e)

Cooling crystallization

24.

Fraction composition is commonly represented by:

a)

pH curves

b)

ASTM distillation curves

c)

X-ray spectra

d)

Adsorption isotherms

e)

Combustion curves

25.

What instrument is used for determining octane number?

a)

Saybolt viscometer

b)

CFR engine

c)

Gas analyzer

d)

Flash point tester

e)

pH meter

26.

What is the final stage of an experiment?

a)

Selection of equipment

b)

Data analysis and reporting

c)

Heating samples

d)

Pressure measurement

e)

Sample washing

27.

A system model that simplifies real conditions for easier calculations is called:

a)

Perfect model

b)

Reduced model

c)

Idealized model

d)

Experimental model

e)

Hybrid model

28.

Improving existing processes often involves:

a)

Increasing manual labor

b)

Enhancing heat integration

c)

Using outdated equipment

d)

Reducing control systems

e)

Increasing waste output

29.

What parameter shows the completeness of raw material processing?

a)

Cloud point

b)

Processing depth

c)

Thermal conductivity

d)

Flash point

e)

Smoke point

30.

Reducing heat loss in technological systems improves:

a)

Overall energy efficiency

b)

Catalyst poisoning

c)

Fuel sulfur content

d)

Equipment noise levels

31.

What is the primary purpose of distillation analysis?

a)

To determine ash content

b)

To measure boiling range distribution

c)

To detect metals

d)

To measure pour point

e)

To evaluate odor

32.

Which compounds typically cause corrosion in crude oil?

a)

Paraffins

b)

Olefins

c)

Sulfur compounds

d)

Neutral gases

e)

Helium

33.

Gas chromatography separates compounds based on:

a)

pH

b)

Diffusion coefficient

c)

Volatility and interaction with stationary phase

d)

Combustion rate

e)

Solubility in water

34.

Cetane number is determined by comparing fuel properties with:

a)

Hexane

b)

Gasoline

c)

Reference diesel fuels

d)

Kerosene

e)

Crude oil

35.

In system analysis, feedback is necessary for:

a)

Creating data gaps

b)

Unstable control

c)

Real-time correction of deviations

d)

Random pressure increases

e)

Reducing automation

36.

Which method is used to reduce heteroatomic sulfur compounds?

a)

Chlorination

b)

Hydrodesulfurization

c)

Polymerization

d)

Dehydrogenation

e)

Alkylation

37.

A petroleum fraction with a narrow boiling range is typically:

a)

More uniform in composition

b)

More difficult to refine

c)

Highly corrosive

d)

Non-flammable

e)

Always aromatic

38.

The optimal research object for an experiment is selected based on:

a)

Material type

b)

Scientific relevance and availability

c)

Market demands

d)

Construction materials

e)

Storage volume

39.

Minimizing waste also reduces:

a)

Fuel viscosity

b)

Environmental risks

c)

Fraction density

d)

Ignition temperature

e)

Catalyst cost

40.

A model used for predicting process efficiency is a:

a)

Decorative model

b)

Empirical model

c)

Social model

d)

Geological model

e)

Visual model

41.

What does the term "completeness of processing" indicate?

a)

Fraction odor

b)

Level of raw material conversion

c)

Storage volume of products

d)

Density of water impurities

e)

Furnace temperature

42.

A key concept in minimizing energy losses is:

a)

Increasing residence time

b)

Heat integration

c)

Increasing manual adjustments

d)

Reducing pressure control

e)

Eliminating insulation

43.

Distillation curves help determine:

a)

Noise level

b)

Viscosity at 0°C

c)

Fraction evaporation behavior

d)

Metal concentration

e)

Aromatic compounds yield

44.

The most representative model of a technological device is:

a)

Symbolic model

b)

Statistical model

c)

Mechanistic model

d)

Random model

e)

Statistic model

45.

The concept of minimizing industrial waste is primarily linked with:

a)

Reducing fuel octane value

b)

Increasing by-product formation

c)

Environmental protection and resource efficiency

d)

Raising sulfur content

e)

Uncontrolled emissions

46.

What is the primary goal of optimal use of chemical technology processes?

a)

Maximizing productivity with minimal resource loss

b)

Increasing the intensity of production

c)

Reducing laboratory measurements

d)

Eliminating heat exchangers

e)

Increasing manual operation

47.

System analysis in chemical technology focuses on:

a)

Independent operation of each element

b)

Interconnections between process components

c)

Random variations in physical properties

d)

Ignoring mass flow changes

e)

Visual design only

48.

The basic principle of system analysis is understanding:

a)

Isolated variables

b)

The interrelation of phenomena

c)

Only economic indicators

d)

The physical appearance of equipment

e)

Storage requirements

49.

Material balance expresses:

a)

Pressure changes

b)

Mass conservation in a system

c)

Catalyst activation

d)

Radiation absorption

e)

Electrical conductivity

50.

Thermal balance determines:

a)

Fuel purity

b)

Distribution of heat in a process

c)

Distillation curve height

d)

Equipment corrosion rate

e)

Liquid density

51.

The synthesis of a mathematical model begins with:

a)

Identification of key variables

b)

Removing unnecessary equipment

c)

Selecting bright indicators

d)

Increasing column pressure randomly

e)

Heat exchanger shutdown

52.

In oil rectification, the main function of a distillation column is:

a)

Cooling air streams

b)

Separating mixtures by boiling point differences

c)

Compressing gases

d)

Increasing sulfur content

e)

Mixing fractions

53.

Boiling point differences lead to:

a)

Liquid crystallization

b)

Fraction separation in rectification

c)

Random thermal expansion

d)

Acoustic noise reduction

e)

Chemical decomposition

54.

Gas absorption is the process of:

a)

Solid–liquid separation

b)

Transfer of gas components to a liquid

c)

Metal oxidation

d)

Thermal cracking

e)

Vapor condensation

55.

SO2 capture in absorption commonly uses:

a)

Alkali solutions

b)

Hydrocarbons

c)

Noble gases

d)

Metal oxide powders

e)

Dry nitrogen

56.

CO2 absorption efficiency depends on:

a)

Absorbent regeneration

b)

Random heating

c)

Electrical potential

d)

Product viscosity

e)

Electrostatic fields

57.

A “pressure–absorption efficiency” curve shows:

a)

Temperature variability

b)

The effect of pressure on gas capture

c)

Moisture accumulation

d)

Carbon chain branching

e)

Aromaticity index

58.

Activated carbon adsorption is mainly based on:

a)

Mechanical filtration

b)

Surface forces and porosity

c)

Magnetic attraction

d)

Electrolysis

e)

Catalytic reduction

59.

Zeolites are effective adsorbents due to:

a)

Low melting point

b)

Regular microporous structure

c)

Electrical conductivity

d)

High metal content

60.

Extraction of aromatic hydrocarbons often relies on:

a)

Selective solvents.

b)

Mechanical grinding.

c)

Gasification.

d)

Thermal cracking.

e)

Freezing.

61.

Hydrocracking involves:

a)

Breaking heavy molecules in hydrogen atmosphere.

b)

Cooling light fractions.

c)

Removing salts from crude oil.

d)

Natural diffusion in pipes.

e)

Evaporating water.

62.

Isomerization converts:

a)

Aromatics into naphthenes.

b)

Normal paraffins into isoparaffins.

c)

Gases into solids.

d)

Metals into oxides.

e)

Water into vapor.

63.

The Claus process is used for:

a)

Production of hydrogen.

b)

Production of sulfur from H2SH_2S .

c)

Thermal decomposition of metals.

d)

Removal of nitrogen oxides.

e)

Extraction of oils.

64.

SO2SO_2 conversion in a reactor depends mainly on:

a)

Catalyst properties and temperature.

b)

Temperature indicators.

c)

Noise frequency.

d)

Density fluctuations.

e)

Inaccurate mixing.

65.

Heat exchange processes are governed by:

a)

Diffusion of solids.

b)

Temperature gradients.

c)

Radiation blocking.

d)

Gas condensation only.

e)

Electrical charge differences.

66.

Increasing turbulence during heat exchange generally:

a)

Lowers heat transfer.

b)

Improves heat transfer.

c)

Reduces surface area.

d)

Eliminates convection.

e)

Prevents thermal conduction.

67.

Optimization of energy consumption focuses on:

a)

Increasing heat losses.

b)

Rational use of thermal energy.

c)

Uncontrolled equipment operation.

d)

Reducing insulation.

e)

Increasing downtime.

68.

In system analysis, feedback is needed to:

a)

Remove safety controls.

b)

Correct deviations in real time.

c)

Increase random operation.

d)

Reduce data accuracy.

e)

Increase energy use.

69.

A key advantage of system analysis is:

a)

Narrowing scope to a single variable.

b)

Considering complex interactions holistically.

c)

Controlling mass flow.

d)

Eliminating data collection.

e)

Calculation of conversion only.

70.

A mathematical model allows prediction of:

a)

Weather patterns only.

b)

Process behavior under given conditions.

c)

Human activity.

d)

Geological faults.

e)

Electrical conductivity of metals.

71.

In rectification, trays or packings provide:

a)

Sound insulation.

b)

Vapor–liquid contact surface.

c)

Cooling of air.

d)

Metal strengthening.

e)

Chemical polymerization.

72.

Pressure increase in absorption generally:

a)

Reduces gas solubility.

b)

Increases gas solubility.

c)

Has no effect on absorption.

d)

Changes in structure of absorbent.

e)

Causes crystallization.

73.

Adsorption capacity increases with:

a)

Reduced surface area.

b)

Increased surface area.

c)

High salt concentration.

d)

Low porosity.

e)

Strong electrical charge.

74.

Aromatic extraction efficiency depends on:

a)

Random temperature fluctuations.

b)

Solvent selectivity.

c)

Air humidity.

d)

Metal concentration.

e)

Container shape.

75.

Hydrocracking requires:

a)

High hydrogen pressure.

b)

Low vacuum levels.

c)

Oxidation atmosphere.

d)

Strong acid absorbents.

e)

No catalyst.

76.

In the Claus process, the main reaction converts:

a)

H2SH_2S to methane.

b)

H2SH_2S to elemental sulfur.

c)

H2SH_2S to CO2CO_2 .

d)

H2SH_2S to SO3SO_3 .

e)

H2SH_2S to nitrogen.

77.

Heat exchange efficiency improves when:

a)

Fouling decreases.

b)

Fouling increases.

c)

Temperature gradient decreases.

d)

Pressure is zero.

e)

Flow is stagnant.

78.

Minimizing energy consumption requires:

a)

Uninsulated pipes.

b)

Effective heat recovery.

c)

High thermal losses.

d)

Unstable operation.

e)

Constant cooling.

79.

In absorption, the driving force for mass transfer is:

a)

Mass difference.

b)

Concentration gradient.

c)

Gas vibration.

d)

Liquid viscosity change.

e)

pH level.

80.

A process is considered optimal when:

a)

Maximum resources are wasted.

b)

Cost and efficiency are balanced.

c)

Only energy is minimized.

d)

Operation is uncontrolled.

e)

Reaction time is maximal.

81.

Adsorption on activated carbon occurs through:

a)

Chemical burning.

b)

Physical adsorption forces.

c)

Magnetic alignment.

d)

Ionization.

e)

Electrolysis.

82.

Zeolites are widely used due to:

a)

High density.

b)

Selective ion-exchange properties.

c)

Low porosity.

d)

Inertness in water.

e)

Random absorption.

83.

Material balance allows calculation of:

a)

Light reflection.

b)

Input and output mass flows.

c)

Electrical resistance.

d)

Corrosion rate.

e)

Acoustic noise.

84.

Thermal balance helps determine:

a)

Heat losses and heat distribution.

b)

Fuel odor.

c)

Electrical conductivity.

d)

Steam dryness.

e)

Air humidity.

85.

System analysis contributes to:

a)

Identifying isolated variables only.

b)

Improving overall process performance.

c)

Removing heat exchangers.

d)

Increasing randomness in operation.

e)

Decreasing data reliability.

86.

Effective rectification depends on:

a)

Complete mixing.

b)

Achieving counter-current flow.

c)

External cooling.

d)

High viscosity of liquids.

e)

Uneven temperature distribution.

87.

Gas absorption is intensified by:

a)

Reducing surface area.

b)

Increasing contact surface.

c)

Lowering concentration gradients.

d)

Decreasing turbulence.

e)

Stopping circulation.

88.

Adsorption is most effective when:

a)

Temperature is excessively high.

b)

Adsorbent pores are large and uniform.

c)

Adsorbent is melted.

d)

Gas pressure is zero.

e)

Flow is stagnant.

89.

Energy optimization in processes aims to:

a)

Increase thermal losses.

b)

Reduce unnecessary heat consumption.

c)

—

d)

—

e)

—

90.

Mathematical modeling supports:

a)

Optimization of technological parameters.

b)

Cleaning of equipment.

c)

Noise suppression.

d)

Visual alignment.

e)

Changing controlled variables.

91.

Causes of failure in absorption equipment include:

a)

Channeling and reduced contact area.

b)

Excessive pressure of fluid flow.

c)

High transparency.

d)

Outer wall integrity.

e)

Glass clarity.

92.

Parameter control in automation is based on:

a)

Sensor feedback.

b)

Position of valves.

c)

Types of indicators.

d)

Manual visual inspection only.

e)

Controller output.

93.

Heat exchanger operating mode depends primarily on:

a)

Flow rates and temperature differences.

b)

External force.

c)

Pipe diameter.

d)

Ambient noise.

e)

Operator actions.

94.

Material balance calculation ensures:

a)

Conservation of mass flows.

b)

Removal of corrosion.

c)

Conservation of energy flows.

d)

Increase in viscosity.

e)

Elimination of pressure gauges.

95.

Heat balance calculation determines:

a)

Distribution of heat flows.

b)

Degree of crystallization.

c)

Radiographic density.

d)

Surface roughness.

e)

Emission intensity.

96.

Distillation column balance requires:

a)

Determining vapor and liquid flows.

b)

Only measuring temperature.

c)

Increasing tower height.

d)

Lowering column foundation.

e)

Adding inert gases.

97.

Sensors in process automation are used to:

a)

Measure technological parameters.

b)

Change vessel geometry.

c)

Adjust product packaging.

d)

Increase insulation thickness.

e)

Monitor noise.

98.

Controllers in automation systems are responsible for:

a)

Regulating parameters automatically.

b)

Painting equipment surfaces.

c)

Storing raw materials.

d)

Ventilation of rooms.

e)

Manual measurement only.

99.

SCADA systems allow:

a)

Centralized monitoring and control.

b)

Formation of corrosion layers.

c)

Manual-only operation.

d)

Irregular heating.

e)

Permanent shutdown of automation.

100.

Adjustment of an automated distillation unit requires:

a)

Tuning control loops.

b)

Random valve movements.

c)

Lowering all temperatures.

d)

Removing flow meters.

e)

Disconnecting sensors.

101.

Correction of process regimes is based on:

a)

Analysis of experimental data.

b)

Daily reports.

c)

Quality standards.

d)

Routine volume measurements.

e)

Cylinder shape.

102.

Failures in rectification often occur due to:

a)

Flooding or weeping of trays.

b)

Excessive product flow pressure.

c)

Strong magnetic fields.

d)

Random pressure decreases.

e)

Excessive feed flow pressure.

103.

Absorption process failures may result from:

a)

Poor gas–liquid contact.

b)

High absorbent viscosity only.

c)

Excessive product aroma.

d)

Vessel volume mismatch.

e)

Unpainted pipelines.

104.

Chemical corrosion occurs due to:

a)

Reaction with aggressive media.

b)

Low electrical voltage.

c)

Pressure fluctuations.

d)

Surface gloss.

e)

External sound.

105.

Thermal corrosion results from:

a)

High temperatures causing metal degradation.

b)

Light heating.

c)

Small vibrations.

d)

Cold water contact.

e)

Manual cleaning.

106.

Heat exchanger failure commonly results from:

a)

Fouling and reduced heat transfer.

b)

Random vibrations.

c)

Viscosity changes in working fluid.

d)

Low noise.

e)

Flow meter calibration.

107.

Defect prevention in chemical production requires:

a)

Regular inspection and maintenance.

b)

Removing all sensors.

c)

Avoiding monitoring equipment.

d)

Random shutdowns.

e)

Increasing corrosion intentionally.

108.

Risk management in technological processes includes:

a)

Identification and minimization of hazards.

b)

Increasing uncertainties.

c)

Avoiding documentation.

d)

Lowering reliability.

e)

Reducing alarms.

109.

Causes of defective products often include:

a)

Deviations in process parameters.

b)

Feed temperature.

c)

Product shape.

d)

Product properties.

e)

Residence time.

110.

Accident prevention measures involve:

a)

Implementing protective systems.

b)

Increasing pressure limits.

c)

Removing emergency valves.

d)

Raising temperature with control.

e)

Installation of alarms.

111.

Mathematical model construction begins with:

a)

Formulation of initial assumptions.

b)

Measurement of equipment integrity.

c)

Adjustment of noise levels.

d)

Modifying vessel thickness.

e)

Lowering feed viscosity.

112.

Pressure regulation is influenced mainly by:

a)

Valve position and gas flow.

b)

External humidity.

c)

Wall thickness.

d)

Lighting level.

e)

Noise vibration.

113.

Temperature rise in reactors is controlled by:

a)

Coolant flow adjustment.

b)

Reflecting panels.

c)

Electrical wiring type.

d)

Ambient temperature only.

e)

Flammability of surfaces.

114.

Heat balance deviations often indicate:

a)

Increased thermal losses.

b)

High mechanical strength.

c)

Good corrosion resistance.

d)

Ideal efficiency.

e)

Improved structure.

115.

Distillation column inefficiency is often caused by:

a)

Incorrect reflux ratio.

b)

Outer surface corrosion.

c)

Column height.

d)

Number of plates.

e)

Pipe insulation thickness.

116.

Absorption process efficiency increases with:

a)

Larger contact surface.

b)

Reduced pressure.

c)

Irregular mixing.

d)

High absorbent crystallization.

e)

Random heating.

117.

Corrosion rates increase due to:

a)

High temperature and aggressive media.

b)

Pipeline transparency.

c)

Random painting.

d)

Low pH measurement accuracy.

e)

Noise vibration only.

118.

Preventing equipment failure includes:

a)

Monitoring temperature and pressure.

b)

Ignoring automatic controls.

c)

Reducing inspection frequency.

d)

Allowing uncontrolled heating.

e)

Removing safety devices.

119.

Risk minimization requires:

a)

Early detection of process deviations

b)

Lowering monitoring precision

c)

Reducing data collection

d)

Increasing randomness

e)

Ignoring pressure limits

120.

Defective product formation is reduced by:

a)

Maintaining stable operating parameters

b)

Decreasing monitoring accuracy

c)

Reducing control loops

d)

Randomly changing flows

e)

Avoiding calibration

121.

Mathematical models help evaluate:

a)

Process parameter influence

b)

Product quality

c)

Noise level

d)

Shape of vessel

e)

Process automation

122.

Heat exchangers operate efficiently when:

a)

Heat transfer surfaces are clean

b)

Noise is minimal

c)

Fluids are viscous

d)

Flow rates are high

e)

External heat is applied

123.

Pressure deviations in rectification lead to:

a)

Incorrect boiling points

b)

Higher corrosion resistance

c)

Reduced viscosity

d)

Lower thermal conductivity

e)

Increased vapour saturation

124.

Automation improves:

a)

Stability and accuracy of processes

b)

Productivity

c)

Product quality

d)

Selection of process

e)

Conversion of feed

125.

Heat balance must include:

a)

All heat inputs and outputs

b)

Only internal reactions

c)

External impact

d)

Hess Law

e)

Le-Chatelier principle

126.

Risk analysis includes:

a)

Identifying possible failure scenarios

b)

Measuring equipment width

c)

Lowering pressure limits

d)

Changing insulation thickness

e)

Reducing process control

127.

Heat exchanger fouling leads to:

a)

Lower heat transfer coefficient

b)

Increased visual clarity

c)

Reduced corrosion

d)

Improved heat flow

e)

Lower temperature gradient

128.

Correcting technological regimes requires:

a)

Comparing actual and expected data

b)

Visual inspection and diagnostics

c)

Reducing measurement frequency

d)

Increasing random fluctuations

e)

Removing foulings

129.

Distillation column operation depends on:

a)

Stable temperature and pressure profiles

b)

Surface decoration

c)

External air flow

d)

Reduction of feed viscosity only

e)

Increasing vessel brightness

130.

Corrosion prevention can be achieved by:

a)

Using protective coatings

b)

Lowering monitoring reliability

c)

Increasing thermal load

d)

Reducing pressure control

e)

Prevention of leaks

131.

Accident prevention requires:

a)

Regular inspection and protective systems

b)

Removing alarm systems

c)

Lowering safety margins

d)

Continuously increasing flows

e)

Recording pressure deviations

132.

What is the main purpose of KAZMEMST?

a)

To ensure the safety and well-being of employees in the workplace

b)

To develop and promote quality management standards

c)

To establish financial reporting standards

d)

None of the above

e)

To coordinate and oversee standardization activities in Kazakhstan

133.

Which type of standards does KAZMEMST primarily focus on?

a)

Occupational health and safety standards

b)

Environmental management standards

c)

Quality management standards

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

134.

True or False: KAZMEMST is a member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

a)

True

b)

False

135.

How does KAZMEMST contribute to international standardization efforts?

a)

By adopting and implementing ISO standards in Kazakhstan

b)

By developing its own unique set of standards separate from ISO

c)

By collaborating with other national standardization bodies

d)

None of the above

136.

What is the role of KAZMEMST in ensuring product quality in Kazakhstan?

a)

Conducting inspections and audits of manufacturing facilities

b)

Certifying products that meet certain quality standards

c)

Enforcing regulations and laws related to product quality

d)

Collaborating with international organizations for quality assurance and standardization

e)

All of the above

137.

Which industries does KAZMEMST primarily focus on in terms of standardization?

a)

Oil and gas

b)

Construction

c)

Agriculture

d)

Healthcare

e)

All of the above

138.

How does KAZMEMST contribute to the safety of consumers in Kazakhstan?

a)

By setting and enforcing product safety standards

b)

By conducting regular safety inspections of consumer goods

c)

By providing information and education on consumer safety

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

139.

What is the significance of KAZMEMST's accreditation system?

a)

It ensures that certification bodies are competent and impartial

b)

It guarantees compliance with international standards

c)

It provides financial support to businesses for standardization efforts

d)

None of the above

e)

All of the above

140.

True or False: KAZMEMST only focuses on national standardization efforts and does not participate in international collaborations.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

What is the official website of KAZMEMST where individuals and businesses can access information on standards?

a)

www kazmemst.org

b)

www iso org

c)

www osha gov

d)

None of the above

e)

www tco kz

142.

How does KAZMEMST contribute to sustainable development in Kazakhstan?

a)

By promoting environmentally-friendly practices through standards

b)

By supporting research and development in renewable energy

c)

By collaborating with international organizations on sustainability initiatives

d)

By ensuring corporative agreement with companies

e)

All of the above

143.

Physical distillation also known as..?

a)

Fractional distillation

b)

Bubble cup tray distillation

c)

Separation

d)

Catalytic cracking

e)

All answers are correct

144.

Important property for gasoline

a)

Viscosity

b)

Volatility

c)

Solubility

d)

Conductivity

e)

Precision

145.

Which spectral region is typically analyzed by an infrared (IR) spectrometer?

a)

Ultraviolet

b)

Visible

c)

Infrared

d)

X-ray

e)

Spectrometer

146.

What does the term GC-MS stand for in the context of gas chromatography?

a)

Gas Chromatography-Magnetic Spectroscopy

b)

Gas Chromatography-Mass Spectrometry

c)

Gas Chromatography-Molecular Structure

d)

Gas Chromatography-Molar Sensitivity

e)

Gas Chromatography-Metro Selectivity

147.

What time is commonly used to identify and characterize compounds in gas chromatography?

a)

Refractive index

b)

Retention time

c)

Color intensity

d)

Weight in grams

e)

Molar mass

148.

What is the primary purpose of calibration in measurement instruments?

a)

To clean the instrument

b)

To adjust the instrument's sensitivity

c)

To discard the instrument

d)

To record measurement data

e)

To ensure stability of equipment

149.

Which component of a mass spectrometer is responsible for ionizing the sample molecules?

a)

Detector

b)

Analyzer

c)

Ionization source

d)

Mass filter

e)

Sensor

150.

Solvent REFINING also known as

       

a)

Hydrocracking

       

b)

Catalytic Cracking

       

c)

Catalytic Reforming

       

d)

Hydrofining

       

151.

What is the harDest natural substance made of carbon

a)

Coal

b)

Diamond.

c)

Gold

d)

Graphite

152.

What is sulfur content?

a)

Measure of corrosiveness.

b)

A unit of electrical conductivity

c)

The color of a substance

d)

A measure of radioactivity

153.

What is the primary component of gasoline

a)

Methane

b)

Propane

c)

Octane

d)

Butane

154.

Which organization is responsible for setting standards in the oil and gas complex

a)

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

b)

American Petroleum Institute (API)

c)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

d)

None of the above

155.

What is the main purpose of API in the oil and gas industry

a)

To ensure safety and well-being of employees in the workplace

b)

To develop and promote industry standards for equipment and operations

c)

To establish financial reporting standards for oil and gas companies

d)

All of the above

156.

Which type of standards does API primarily focus on

a)

Occupational health and safety standards

b)

Environmental management standards

c)

Equipment and operational standards

d)

All of the above

157.

API is a global organization that sets standards for the oil and gas industry worldwide

a)

True

b)

False

158.

How does API contribute to international standardization efforts

a)

By adopting and implementing ISO standards in the oil and gas industry

b)

By developing its own unique set of standards separate from ISO

c)

By collaborating with other national standardization bodies

d)

None of the above

159.

What is the role of API in ensuring safety in the oil and gas industry

a)

Conducting inspections and audits of oil ans gas facilities

b)

Certifying equipment that meets certain safety standard.

c)

Enforcing regulation and laws related to safety in the industry

d)

Develops and maintains standards that addresses safety

160.

Which industries does API primarily focus on in terms of standardization

a)

Upstream exploration and production

b)

Midstream transportation and storage

c)

Downstream refining and marketing

d)

All of the above

161.

How does API contribute to environmental sustainability in the oil and gas industry

a)

By setting and enforcing environmental standards for operation

b)

By conducting regular environmental audits of oil and gas facilities

c)

By promoting best practices for reducing environmental impact

d)

By encouraging the use of outdated technologies with higher environmental impact

162.

What is the significance of API's certification programs?

a)

Say insure that oil and gas companies are compliant with industry standards

b)

They provide recognition and credibility to companies that meet certain standards

c)

Say, help streamline operations and improve efficiency in the industry

d)

None of the above

163.

API standards are only applicable to the united states, oil and gas industry

a)

True

b)

False

164.

How does API contribute to workforce development in the oil and gas industry

a)

By providing training programs and certification for industry professionals

b)

By advocating for education and skills development in the industry

c)

Bye, bye collaborating with academic institution on research and development

d)

By discouraging professional development, opportunities and limiting access to training programs

165.

What state is mass spectroscopy used in

a)

Gaseous state

b)

Mass state

c)

Electronic state

d)

Pressure state

166.

What gas is used in GC-MS

a)

Light gas

b)

Heavy gas

c)

Helium gas

d)

Methane

167.

Reynolds number is more than

a)

8000

b)

7000

c)

6000

d)

5000

e)

4000

168.

What is full meaning of WTO in technical regulations

a)

World trade organization

b)

world technical organization

c)

Worldwide technology occasions

d)

Word technicians organization

169.

What are the crucification of measurement error

a)

Systematic

b)

Random

c)

Limiting

d)

all above

170.

What are the categories of standards

a)

Current

b)

Expected

c)

Ideal

d)

All above

171.

What are the main quality standard? (GOST)

a)

ISO 9000; ISO 9001

b)

ISO 17025; ASTM 1580

c)

ASTM 15892; ISO 15082

d)

ISO 17020; ASTM 2701

172.

What is the best method of standardization

a)

Process inspection

b)

Manuel process

c)

Process inspection

d)

Random selection of methods

173.

What are the four methods of standardization

a)

Compatibility

b)

Commonality

c)

Reference

d)

All above

174.

How do you test the sulfur content of oil

a)

X ray fluorescence

b)

Precipitation

c)

Distillation

d)

Concentration

175.

Standard for testing to sulfur content of oil

a)

ASTM D2622

b)

ISO 9000

c)

ISO 9001

d)

ISO 17025

176.

How many national standards are there

a)

More than 750,000

b)

More than 500,000

c)

More than 250,000

d)

More than 100,000

177.

How many forms does coking process have

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

6

178.

The normal range of sulfur content in crude oil

a)

0.1-5.0wt%

b)

0.01-2.0wt%

c)

2.0-2.20wt%

d)

0.05-2.5wt%

179.

Which ASTM used for aniline point

a)

ASTM D611

b)

ASTM D5236

c)

ASTM D2822

d)

ASTM D612

180.

Measurement unit for Viscosity is

a)

wt%

b)

Kg

c)

centistoke(cSt)

d)

mole

181.

How many components have PetroFCC catalyst

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

182.

Methods of quantitative analysis are

a)

Gravimetric analysis and titrimetric analysis

b)

Dry analysis

c)

Macro method

d)

Physic analysis

183.

How many types are in process automation

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

184.

The difference between the highest and lowest temperature at the bottom of catalyst bed called

a)

Quench zone

b)

Radial temperature difference (rtd)

c)

Redistribution zone

d)

Flow blockage

185.

Wash water is injected into the effluent to convert NH3 and H2S into

a)

Ammonium bisulfide

b)

Ammonium chloride

c)

Ammonium nitrate

d)

Ammonium carbonate

186.

High pressure amine absorber used to remove

a)

H2S

b)

NH3

c)

HS

d)

H2O

187.

The riser inlet temperature is reduced to about

a)

650°C

b)

400°C

c)

740 F

d)

800 F

188.

Standard API degree for hydrocarbon fuels

a)

15 to 45 degree

b)

20 to 45 degree

c)

5 to 15 degree

d)

35 to 45 degree

189.

Most popular promoter in process

a)

Pt

b)

HAL

c)

HCL

d)

HMg

190.

Middle distillates are

a)

Jet and diesel

b)

Kerosene and fuel

c)

Residue and Bitumen

d)

All answers are correct

191.

Which type of cracking process is characterized by use of high temperatures and a catalyst to break down hydrocarbons

a)

Thermal cracking

b)

Catalytic crackin

c)

Hydrocracking

d)

Coking

192.

What is the main product obtained from the catalytic cracking proces

a)

Liquified petroleum gas

b)

Asphalt

c)

Gasoline

d)

Diesel fuel

193.

Labeling products with a sign of compliance with state standards is a procedure

a)

Voluntary

b)

Mandatory

c)

Free

d)

Random

194.

Services are not subject to mandatory certification

a)

Wholesale trade

b)

Education

c)

Catering

d)

Vehicle maintenance and repair

195.

Organizations representing the interests of large territorial entities or continents in the global tandardization process

a)

Official international

b)

National

c)

Regional

d)

state

196.

Organization said certifies certain products

a)

Goss standard

b)

Expert commission

c)

certification body

d)

Scientific institute

197.

Standardization issues are resolved in

a)

Government

b)

State duma

c)

Gosstandart

198.

The dimensional chain is called

a)

a collection of randomly ranged sizes

b)

Ordered dimensions

c)

Sleem arrangement of sizes

d)

Random arrangement of sizes

199.

Measuring instruments subject to state metrological control and supervision are subjected to

a)

Verification

b)

Calibration

c)

Certification

d)

Diversification

200.

A document that sets out the technical requirements that a product or service must satisfy and the procedures by which it can be determined whether those requirements have been met is

a)

National standard

b)

Specification

c)

Certificate

d)

Metrology

201.

Set linkage of all interacting factors that ensure the optimal level of product quality is achieved

a)

Comprehensive standardization

b)

Certification

c)

Calibration

d)

Advanced standardization

202.

The principal of standardization is not

a)

Consistency

b)

Complexity for interconnected objects

c)

Competitiveness

d)

Discipline

203.

The mass analyzer is similar to which of the following in optical spectrometer

a)

Monochromator

b)

Detector

c)

Sample

d)

Source

204.

Mass spectrometry was discovered by whom?

a)

J. J. Thomson

b)

Francis Aston

c)

Lord Kelvin

d)

Ernest O. Lawrence

205.

How to determine fluid flow regimes

a)

a quantitative assessment of the fluid motion regime.Is made using the reynolds number

b)

A quantitative assessment of the fluid motion regime is made using the Balors number

c)

Using tenta number

d)

You sing walter number

206.

What standardization is

a)

Getting a product by using sources of internet

b)

Activities for the development publication and application of standards for the establishment of norms rules and characteristics in order to ensure product safety

c)

Water of mehanico means which is directed to solve technical problems

d)

Coordination of mihanical devices aimed at solving technical problems

207.

Evaluation of the effectiveness of standardization should be carried out

a)

Throughout the product life cycle

b)

Only at the design stage

c)

Only at the manufacturing stage

d)

Only during leap years

208.

Technical regulations are

a)

The approved process of production and delivery of products to the consum

b)

A document that establishes mandatory requirements for the application and execution of objects of technical regulation

c)

Call a set of rules and instructions of officials engaged in the production process

d)

A set of rules and instructions of officials engaged in the production process

209.

What is total acid number

a)

The sulfur content

b)

Liquids resistance to flow

c)

Neutralization number

d)

Penetration

210.

What is softening point

a)

Determines the temperature at which are asphalts reach an arbitrary degree of softening

b)

Refractive index

c)

Sold content

d)

Evaluates the temperature at which soft asphalts reach an arbitrary degree of hardness

211.

Mercaptan sulfur

a)

Species are undesirable in crude oils and in some cases are toxic

b)

Microcarbon residues

c)

A diffractive index

d)

Residence time

212.

What standards uses API Gravity

a)

ASTM D287

b)

GOST 9001

c)

ISO 1937-03

d)

TR D728

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