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A1: Chemical Properties and Electrolysis

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the amphoteric nature of Al2O3?

a)

It reacts only with strong acids

b)

It reacts only with strong bases

c)

It reacts with acids and with bases

d)

It does not react with acids or bases

2.

Which formula represents alumina?

a)

Al2O3

b)

AlO2

c)

Al(OH)3

d)

Al3O2

3.

When Al2O3 reacts with hydrochloric acid, which species in solution indicates its acidic–base behavior?

a)

Precipitation of Al(s)

b)

Formation of Al2(g)

c)

Evolution of H2(g)

d)

Formation of AlCl3(aq)

4.

Which equation type shows acid–base behavior of metal oxides most clearly?

a)

Balanced ionic equations

b)

Unbalanced molecular sketches

c)

Net energy diagrams

d)

Empirical formula lists

5.

Select the correct balanced ionic half-equation for reduction at the cathode in electrolysis of molten NaCl.

a)

Na → Na+ + e−

b)

2Cl− + 2e− → Cl2

c)

Cl− → Cl + e−

d)

Na+ + e− → Na

6.

During electrolysis, which term names the positive electrode?

a)

Electrolyte

b)

Salt bridge

c)

Anode

d)

Cathode

7.

Which condition is required for electrolysis to occur?

a)

Solid ionic lattice

b)

Molten or aqueous ions

c)

Dry gaseous ions

d)

Pure covalent liquid

8.

As metal reactivity increases, how do electrolysis energy requirements change?

a)

Decrease then increase

b)

Become more demanding

c)

Decrease significantly

d)

Remain exactly constant

9.

Match each species to its electrode process in electrolysis.

a)

Na+ in molten NaCl

1.

Reduction at cathode

b)

Cl− in molten NaCl

2.

Oxidation at anode

c)

H+ in acid solution

3.

Reduction at cathode

10.

Which statement about transition metals is correct?

a)

They never change oxidation state

b)

They have a complete d subshell

c)

They form coloured compounds

d)

They cannot act as catalysts

11.

Which characteristic is typical of transition metals?

a)

Only +1 oxidation state

b)

Always colourless ions

c)

Variable oxidation states

d)

No complex ion formation

12.

Which description defines a complex ion?

a)

Metal ion bonded to ligands by dative bonds

b)

Neutral molecule with only covalent bonds

c)

Metal atom with no surrounding ions

d)

Anion formed by losing electrons

13.

Which bond type holds ligands to a central metal ion?

a)

Dative covalent bond

b)

Metallic bond

c)

Van der Waals forces

d)

Ionic bond

14.

Select all true statements about catalysts.

a)

Increase reaction rate

b)

Lower activation energy

c)

Remain unchanged at end

d)

Are consumed by reaction

15.

Calcium hydroxide is used in acidic effluent treatment because it does what?

a)

Neutralises excess acid

b)

Forms coloured complexes

c)

Reduces metal ions

d)

Oxidises pollutants strongly

e)
16.

Which process is used industrially to purify alumina from bauxite before aluminium production?

a)

Hall–Héroult electrolytic process

b)

Kroll magnesium reduction process

c)

Contact vanadium(V) oxide process

d)

Bayer caustic digestion process

17.

In the Hall–Héroult process, what is the main role of cryolite in the electrolytic cell?

a)

Acts as a diaphragm separating products

b)

Provides carbon anodes for oxidation

c)

Lowers the melting point of alumina

d)

Supplies sodium ions to the cathode

18.

Which ore feedstock is commonly reduced in the Kroll process to obtain metallic titanium?

a)

Sodium chloride brine solution

b)

Alumina dissolved in cryolite

c)

Rutile or ilmenite converted to TiCl4

d)

Bauxite dissolved in caustic soda

19.

Match each industrial process to its primary product.

a)

Bayer process

1.

Purified alumina

b)

Hall–Héroult process

2.

Aluminium metal

c)

Kroll process

3.

Titanium metal

d)

Electrolysis of brine

4.

Chlorine, hydrogen, NaOH

20.

Which condition explains why titanium is produced by the Kroll process rather than direct electrolysis of TiO2?

a)

Ti4+ forms insoluble salts in water

b)

TiO2 melts too easily at low temperature

c)

Titanium conducts poorly as a liquid metal

d)

TiO2 is highly stable and difficult to electrolyse

21.

During electrolysis of concentrated brine in a membrane cell, which products are obtained at the electrodes and in solution?

a)

Solid sodium metal at the cathode

b)

Aqueous sodium hydroxide in the cell

c)

Oxygen gas at the anode

d)

Chlorine gas at the anode

e)

Hydrogen gas at the cathode

22.

Which statement best distinguishes diaphragm and membrane cells for brine electrolysis?

a)

Diaphragm increases cryolite solubility

b)

Membrane prevents mixing of products

c)

Diaphragm allows oxygen evolution only

d)

Membrane produces solid sodium metal

23.

Choose the equation that represents the anode reaction during brine electrolysis.

a)

TiCl4 + 2Mg → Ti + 2MgCl2

b)

Al3+ + 3e− → Al

c)

2H2O + 2e− → H2 + 2OH−

d)

2Cl− → Cl2 + 2e−

24.

Why is alumina suitable for use in refractories?

a)

Low melting point and high reactivity

b)

High melting point and ionic lattice

c)

Low electrical conductivity and volatility

d)

Molecular structure and low hardness

25.

Match each comparison to the preferred method or condition for efficient production.

a)

Electrolysis vs metal oxide reduction

1.

Choose based on product stability and energy

b)

Concentrated solution vs molten compound

2.

Molten often needed for ionic conduction

c)

High pressure and concentration vs low

3.

High often increases rate and yield

d)

Large-surface-area catalysts vs small

4.

Greater area increases catalytic efficiency

e)

Batch process vs continuous process

5.

Continuous favored for steady large output

26.

Which pair correctly links a substance to a property guiding its industrial use?

a)

Calcium hydroxide—oxidizes easily to TiCl4

b)

Aluminium—low density and corrosion resistance

c)

Hydrogen—forms ionic lattices in solids

d)

Titanium—low melting point and volatility

27.

Which general formula corresponds to alkanes with one ring or straight chains?

a)

CnHn+2 for symmetric alkenes

b)

CnH2n+2 for straight-chain alkanes

c)

CnH2n for alkanes and cycloalkanes

d)

CnH2n−2 for branched alkanes

28.

Which statement best distinguishes alkanes from alkenes?

a)

Alkanes contain a carbon–carbon double bond

b)

Alkenes contain only single bonds

c)

Alkenes are saturated hydrocarbons

d)

Alkanes have sigma bonds only

29.

Applying IUPAC rules, what is prioritised when selecting the parent chain in a hydrocarbon?

a)

Chain placed alphabetically first

b)

Chain with most substituents

c)

Chain with most carbon atoms

d)

Chain with lowest total locants

30.

Which pair correctly matches representation and feature?

a)

Displayed formula

1.

Shows all bonds and atoms

b)

Condensed formula

2.

Groups atoms without all bonds

c)

Skeletal formula

3.

Lines for carbon framework, no H

d)

Wedge–dash 3D

4.

Solid/dashed wedges for 3D

31.

Which are geometric stereoisomers of alkenes?

a)

Chain and position forms

b)

Cis and trans forms

c)

E and Z forms

d)

Primary and tertiary forms

32.

In skeletal formulae, what convention is used for hydrogen atoms on carbon?

a)

Hydrogens as circles on lines

b)

Hydrogens shown on every carbon

c)

Hydrogens are omitted

d)

Hydrogens only on terminal carbons

33.

Which feature makes an alkene symmetric with respect to the double bond?

a)

No substituents on the chain

b)

Even number of total carbon atoms

c)

Same number of hydrogens in the molecule

d)

Same groups on both double-bond carbons

34.

What implication arises for products from reactions of asymmetric alkenes?

a)

No stereoisomeric products form

b)

Potential formation of regioisomers

c)

Only one addition product possible

d)

Reaction cannot proceed with halogens

35.

Which statement about sigma bonds in hydrocarbons is accurate?

a)

Occur only in alkenes

b)

Have two lobes above and below

c)

Arise from sideways p overlap

d)

Formed by head-on orbital overlap

36.

Which combination of orbitals gives sp3 hybridisation in carbon?

a)

One s plus one p orbital

b)

One s plus three p orbitals

c)

Three s plus one p orbital

d)

One s plus two p orbitals

37.

Match hybridisation with typical bond angle and geometry.

a)

sp3

1.

109.5°, tetrahedral shape

b)

sp2

2.

120°, trigonal planar shape

c)

sp

3.

180°, linear shape

38.

Which statements about hybrid orbitals are correct?

a)

They cannot overlap to make sigma bonds

b)

Each can host one shared electron

c)

Same shape and energy for a given set

d)

Unused p orbitals can form pi bonds

39.

What bond angles are associated with three bonding electron pairs around a central carbon?

a)

Approximately 120 degrees

b)

Approximately 109.5 degrees

c)

Approximately 104.5 degrees

d)

Approximately 180 degrees

40.

Which claim about bonds in alkanes and alkenes is correct?

a)

Alkanes have only sigma bonds

b)

Alkanes have sigma and pi bonds

c)

Alkenes have sigma bonds only

d)

Alkenes lack any sigma bonds

41.

Which naming decision is part of IUPAC application to halogenoalkanes?

a)

Lowest locants for substituents

b)

Choose chain with fewest carbons

c)

Ignore halogen prefixes

d)

Use common names before systematic

42.

Carbon in ethene exhibits which hybridisation and approximate H–C–C bond angle?

a)

sp2 and about 120°

b)

sp2 and about 90°

c)

sp3 and about 109.5°

d)

sp and about 180°

43.

Which trend correctly compares carbon–carbon bond length and bond strength as the number of bonds increases from single to double to triple?

a)

Both length and strength decrease

b)

Bond length increases, bond strength decreases

c)

Both length and strength increase

d)

Bond length decreases, bond strength increases

44.

Select the correct ordering of bond lengths for C–C in alkane, alkene, and alkyne.

a)

alkane > alkene > alkyne

b)

alkyne > alkene > alkane

c)

alkane = alkene = alkyne

d)

alkene > alkane > alkyne

45.

Which statement about sigma and pi bonds is correct?

a)

Sigma and pi are equal in strength

b)

Pi is stronger than a single sigma bond

c)

A pi bond exists without any sigma bond

d)

Sigma is stronger than a single pi bond

46.

Match hybridisation to ideal geometry and bond angle.

a)

sp3

1.

tetrahedral, ~109.5°

b)

sp2

2.

trigonal planar, ~120°

c)

sp

3.

linear, ~180°

47.

In benzene, how are the sigma and pi systems arranged?

a)

Sigma bonds in ring plane, pi delocalised above and below

b)

Pi bonds in ring plane, sigma delocalised above and below

c)

Only pi bonds around the ring, no sigma bonds

d)

Alternating sigma bonds with isolated localised pi bonds

48.

Which factor most increases boiling point within a homologous series of alkanes and alkenes?

a)

More branching increases surface contact

b)

Greater chain length raises intermolecular forces

c)

Smaller molecular size increases attractions

d)

Fewer electrons increase dispersion forces

49.

How does branching in isomeric alkanes typically affect boiling point?

a)

Branching only affects alkenes

b)

Branching lowers boiling point

c)

Branching has no effect

d)

Branching raises boiling point

50.

Which statements are true for factors controlling intermolecular force strength in hydrocarbons?

a)

More electrons strengthen attractions

b)

Presence of pi bonds always increases polarity

c)

Shorter chains weaken London forces

d)

Larger surface area enhances dispersion

51.

Identify the three named stages of a free radical substitution in alkanes.

a)

Initiation

1.

Homolytic fission forming radicals

b)

Propagation

2.

Radicals react to sustain chain

c)

Termination

3.

Radicals combine to end chain

52.

Which condition commonly promotes initiation in halogenation of alkanes?

a)

UV light or high temperature

b)

Low temperature and darkness

c)

Strong base catalyst

d)

Acidic aqueous medium

53.

During free radical substitution of methane with chlorine, which step produces chloromethane?

a)

Propagation via CH3• reacting with Cl2

b)

Initiation forming Cl• radicals

c)

Termination combining CH3• and Cl•

d)

Propagation via Cl• abstracting H from CH4

54.

Electrophilic addition to alkenes begins with which interaction?

a)

Radical attacks the sigma bond

b)

Nucleophile attacks the sigma bond

c)

Electrophile attacks the pi bond

d)

Base abstracts allylic hydrogen

55.

Which statements are correct regarding heterolytic bond fission and curly arrows?

a)

Double-headed arrows indicate lone pair motion

b)

Single-headed arrows depict pair transfer

c)

Curly arrows show electron pair movement

d)

Heterolysis gives ions rather than radicals

56.

Arrange carbocation stability from least to most stable.

a)

methyl carbocation

1.

least stable

b)

primary carbocation

2.

more stable than methyl

c)

secondary carbocation

3.

more stable than primary

d)

tertiary carbocation

4.

most stable

57.

Why is a tertiary carbocation generally more stable than a secondary carbocation?

a)

Fewer substituents reduce steric hindrance

b)

Greater alkyl electron donation and hyperconjugation

c)

Resonance from hydrogen atoms stabilises

d)

Tertiary has lower positive charge magnitude

58.

In addition of HBr to propene, which major product forms and why?

a)

1-bromopropane via steric blocking

b)

2-bromopropane via radical mechanism

c)

1-bromopropane via more stable primary carbocation

d)

2-bromopropane via more stable secondary carbocation

59.

Which description correctly matches polymer names to their monomers?

a)

poly(ethene)

1.

ethene monomer

b)

poly(propene)

2.

propene monomer

c)

polystyrene

3.

styrene monomer

d)

PVC

4.

chloroethene monomer

e)

PTFE

5.

tetrafluoroethene monomer

60.

In free radical addition polymerisation of ethene, what initiates chain growth?

a)

Base deprotonates the monomer

b)

Electrophile attacks the sigma bond

c)

Carbocation inserts into the chain

d)

Radical adds to the C=C pi bond

61.

During hydration of ethene to ethanol, which catalyst and mechanism are typically involved?

a)

Phosphoric acid, electrophilic addition

b)

Nickel catalyst, radical substitution

c)

Sulfuric acid, nucleophilic substitution

d)

Alkaline medium, elimination

62.

Which statement best describes addition polymerisation of ethene to form poly(ethene)?

a)

Ethene chains crosslink via UV-initiated radical curing

b)

Ethene molecules condense releasing small water molecules

c)

Ethene rings form by intramolecular cyclisation steps

d)

Many ethene molecules join by double bond opening

63.

Match each polymer to its typical monomer or key feature.

a)

PVC

1.

Monomer: chloroethene (vinyl chloride)

b)

PTFE

2.

Monomer: tetrafluoroethene

c)

Poly(ethene)

3.

Monomer: ethene

64.

During catalytic cracking of long-chain alkanes, what are the usual conditions?

a)

Aqueous acid in reflux apparatus

b)

Strong base under cold conditions

c)

Low temperature and high pressure

d)

High temperature with zeolite catalyst

65.

Which products are commonly formed by cracking of hydrocarbons?

a)

Aromatic nitriles

b)

Carbon dioxide only

c)

Alkenes like ethene

d)

Shorter-chain alkanes

66.

Write the balanced equation for complete combustion of propane (C3H8).

a)

2C3H8 + 7O2 → 6CO + 8H2O

b)

C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

c)

C3H8 + 3O2 → 3CO + 4H2O

d)

C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O

67.

Which statement about incomplete combustion of alkanes is correct?

a)

Forms carbon monoxide and soot

b)

Produces only carbon dioxide

c)

Requires excess oxygen supply

d)

Always yields alkenes as by‑products

68.

Hydration of ethene to form ethanol in industry typically uses which conditions?

a)

UV light and peroxide initiator

b)

Steam and phosphoric acid catalyst

c)

Dry hydrogen with nickel catalyst

d)

Aqueous base at room temperature

69.

Which statement correctly contrasts thermal and catalytic cracking?

a)

Thermal requires high pressure; catalytic no pressure

b)

Thermal produces only alkanes; catalytic only alkenes

c)

Thermal uses zeolite catalyst; catalytic uses steam only

d)

Thermal uses higher temperature; catalytic lowers temperature

70.

Which statement best describes standard conditions used for enthalpy data?

a)

100 kPa and 298 K

b)

1 kPa and 273 K

c)

1000 kPa and 298 K

d)

101 kPa and 310 K

71.

Which unit is correct for standard enthalpy change values?

a)

kJ mol−1

b)

J mol−2

c)

J g−1

d)

kJ L−1

72.

In thermochemistry, what is meant by the system?

a)

The laboratory room

b)

The measuring instruments

c)

Everything except products

d)

The reacting chemicals

73.

Which sign convention is correct for an exothermic enthalpy change?

a)

Zero ΔH

b)

Positive ΔH

c)

Alternates by catalyst

d)

Negative ΔH

74.

During an endothermic process, what happens to the surroundings’ temperature?

a)

It fluctuates randomly

b)

It stays exactly constant

c)

It increases slightly

d)

It decreases overall

75.

Which pair correctly matches process type to heat flow direction?

a)

Exothermic

1.

Heat flows to surroundings

b)

Endothermic

2.

Heat flows from surroundings

c)

From surroundings to system

3.

Endothermic heat direction

d)

From system to surroundings

4.

Exothermic heat direction

76.

Which features are shown on an enthalpy reaction profile diagram?

a)

Reactants and products levels

b)

Activation energy peak

c)

Catalyst lowering Ea

d)

Bond polarity arrows

77.

Which statement about catalysts on reaction profiles is accurate?

a)

They reverse endothermic reactions

b)

They lower the activation energy

c)

They make ΔH more negative

d)

They raise the reactant enthalpy

78.

Define the standard enthalpy of combustion, ΔH°c.

a)

Enthalpy change when one mole burns completely in oxygen

b)

Enthalpy change when one mole dissolves fully in water

c)

Energy released when one gram ignites in air

d)

Heat absorbed when one mole reacts without oxygen

79.

Which factor can prevent complete combustion in practice?

a)

Excess catalyst presence

b)

High activation energy

c)

Limited oxygen supply

d)

Non‑standard conditions

80.

Why is ΔH°c = 0 kJ mol−1 for oxygen gas?

a)

It is already in its standard state

b)

It has zero activation energy

c)

It contains no chemical bonds

d)

It cannot undergo oxidation

81.

Define the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔH°f.

a)

Enthalpy change when one mole forms from elements in standard states

b)

Energy change when one mole vaporizes from liquid state

c)

Enthalpy when elements combine under any conditions

d)

Heat change when one mole dissolves from solid salts

82.

Which reason can prevent formation of the desired product in practice?

a)

Zero temperature surroundings

b)

Alternative products possible

c)

Non‑standard conditions used

d)

High activation energy barrier

83.

Why is ΔH°f = 0 kJ mol−1 for elements in their standard states?

a)

They cannot form compounds under standard conditions

b)

Their bonds contain no energy whatsoever

c)

They are defined as reference state enthalpy zero

d)

They are the most stable at any temperature

84.

Which statement best describes specific heat capacity of water used in calorimetry?

a)

Energy to raise 1 g by 1 K

b)

Energy to raise 10 kg by 1 K

c)

Energy to raise 1 kg by 1 K

d)

Energy to raise 1 kg by 10 K

85.

What numerical value is used for the specific heat capacity of water in calorimetry calculations?

a)

1.00 kJ kg−1 K−1

b)

8.36 kJ kg−1 K−1

c)

2.09 kJ kg−1 K−1

d)

4.18 kJ kg−1 K−1

86.

In Q = mcΔT, what does m represent in a solution calorimetry experiment?

a)

Volume of the gas evolved

b)

Mass of the calorimeter

c)

Moles of solute added

d)

Mass of water present

87.

A student dissolves a salt in water and measures temperature change directly. Which situation is this?

a)

Heat change within water

b)

Adiabatic reaction vessel

c)

Heat transfer to water

d)

Heat loss to surroundings

88.

Which measurements are needed when heat from a reaction is transferred to water?

a)

Specific heat capacity of water

b)

Change in water temperature

c)

Volume of the gas produced

d)

Heat capacity of the calorimeter

e)

Mass of water used

89.

Which equation allows calculation of heat transferred to water during a reaction?

a)

Q = mcΔT

b)

ΔH = ΔU + pΔV

c)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°f(products) − ΣΔH°f(reactants)

d)

q = nΔH

90.

Which statements about enthalpy changes are correct?

a)

Combustion enthalpies are exothermic

b)

They show reaction rate directly

c)

Sign and size suggest feasibility

d)

Hydration enthalpies are always exothermic

e)

Formation enthalpies can be exo or endo

91.

Which factors influence the magnitude of an ion’s standard enthalpy of hydration?

a)

Calorimeter volume

b)

Gas constant value

c)

Solution viscosity

d)

Ion charge and size

92.

What symbol denotes standard enthalpy change of hydration?

a)

ΔH°r

b)

ΔH°hyd

c)

ΔH°comb

d)

ΔH°f

93.

Which statement about interpreting enthalpy change data is valid?

a)

Sign indicates heat flow direction

b)

Size shows exact reaction rate

c)

Endothermic means energy released

d)

Exothermic indicates positive ΔH

94.

Which relation connects enthalpy change to internal energy for processes with volume change at pressure p?

a)

ΔH = cpΔT

b)

ΔU = ΔH + pΔV

c)

ΔH = Q − W

d)

ΔH = ΔU + pΔV

95.

Using Hess’s Law, which expression gives standard enthalpy change of reaction from formation data?

a)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°c(products) + ΣΔH°c(reactants)

b)

ΔH°r = ΔU + pΔV

c)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°f(reactants) − ΣΔH°f(products)

d)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°f(products) − ΣΔH°f(reactants)

96.

Using combustion data with Hess cycles, which expression is correct?

a)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°c(reactants) − ΣΔH°c(products)

b)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°c(products) − ΣΔH°c(reactants)

c)

ΔH°r = ΣΔH°f(products) − ΣΔH°f(reactants)

d)

ΔH°r = mcΔT

97.

Match each calorimetry concept to its description.

a)

Indirect temperature measurement

1.

Heat transferred to/from water

b)

Direct temperature measurement

2.

Heat change occurs within water

c)

Q = mcΔT variables

3.

m, c, ΔT and meanings

d)

Specific heat capacity of water

4.

4.18 kJ kg−1 K−1 value

98.

Which statement about hydration enthalpy recognition is most accurate?

a)

It is enthalpy when liquids evaporate

b)

It is enthalpy when gases condense

c)

It is enthalpy when solids dissolve

d)

It is enthalpy when gaseous ions dissolve