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Untitled Quiz

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Multi-disc brakes are used on:

a)

Large aircraft

b)

Light trainers only

c)

Helicopters

d)

Gliders

e)

UAVs

2.

Brake overheating can lead to:

a)

Fire risk

b)

Increased lift

c)

Fuel imbalance

d)

Cabin depressurization

e)

Electrical failure

3.

Brake temperature monitoring provides:

a)

Overheat warning

b)

Fuel quantity

c)

Ice detection

d)

Tire pressure

e)

Gear position

4.

Anti-skid system prevents:

a)

Wheel locking

b)

Brake overheating

c)

Gear retraction

d)

Shimmy

e)

Fire

5.

Anti-skid works by:

a)

Modulating brake pressure

b)

Locking wheels

c)

Reducing thrust

d)

Applying spoilers

e)

Heating brakes

6.

If anti-skid fails:

a)

Braking is still possible

b)

Brakes stop working

c)

Landing is impossible

d)

Gear collapses

e)

Tires burst immediately

7.

Parking brake uses:

a)

Hydraulic pressure

b)

Electrical motors

c)

Mechanical locks only

d)

Engine thrust

e)

Pneumatic force

8.

Carbon brakes are advantageous because:

a)

High heat capacity and low weight

b)

Low cost

c)

No wear

d)

No heat generation

e)

No maintenance

9.

Braking efficiency depends mainly on:

a)

Friction and wheel speed

b)

Tire pressure only

c)

Engine thrust

d)

Cabin pressure

e)

Spoilers only

10.

Brake fade is caused by:

a)

Excessive heat

b)

Low pressure

c)

Ice

d)

Electrical failure

e)

Low tire pressure

11.

Anti-skid compares:

a)

Wheel deceleration rates

b)

Brake temperature

c)

Tire pressure

d)

Aircraft weight

e)

Thrust

12.

Locked wheels result in:

a)

Loss of braking effectiveness

b)

Shorter stopping distance

c)

Improved control

d)

Reduced tire wear

e)

Better steering

13.

Autobrake systems provide:

a)

Preselected deceleration

b)

Maximum braking only

c)

Manual braking

d)

Parking brake

e)

Emergency braking

14.

Autobrakes are normally disengaged by:

a)

Manual brake input

b)

Spoiler extension

c)

Thrust reverser deployment

d)

Nose wheel steering

e)

Anti-skid

15.

Brake energy limits are important to:

a)

Prevent overheating

b)

Improve comfort

c)

Reduce noise

d)

Increase lift

e)

Improve steering

16.

Brake cooling is achieved by:

a)

Heat dissipation to air

b)

Hydraulic cooling

c)

Fuel circulation

d)

Electrical fans only

e)

Cabin air

17.

Brake temperature indicators warn of:

a)

Overheat risk

b)

Tire burst

c)

Skid

d)

Gear collapse

e)

Fire in cabin

18.

Carbon brakes are commonly used on:

a)

Transport aircraft

b)

Light trainers

c)

Gliders

d)

Helicopters

e)

UAVs

19.

Braking distance increases if:

a)

Anti-skid is inoperative

b)

Spoilers deploy

c)

Reverse thrust is used

d)

Weight decreases

e)

Runway is dry

20.

Parking brake pressure is held by:

a)

Hydraulic trapping

b)

Electrical lock

c)

Mechanical clamp

d)

Gas pressure

e)

Springs

21.

Brake accumulator provides:

a)

Emergency braking

b)

Cooling

c)

Anti-skid control

d)

Steering

e)

Retraction

22.

Brake wear is influenced by:

a)

Aircraft weight and speed

b)

Cabin pressure

c)

Altitude

d)

Engine type

e)

Ice conditions

23.

Brake fire risk is highest after:

a)

Rejected take-off

b)

Cruise

c)

Taxi out

d)

Descent

e)

Parking

24.

The fuselage primarily carries:

a)

Payload and cabin

b)

Lift

c)

Thrust

d)

Drag only

e)

Fuel only

25.

A pressurized fuselage behaves like:

a)

A pressure vessel

b)

A wing

c)

A beam only

d)

A cable

e)

A tank

26.

Fuselage loads include:

a)

Bending, torsion, pressurization

b)

Lift only

c)

Thrust only

d)

Drag only

e)

Ice loads only

27.

Hoop stress is caused by:

a)

Internal cabin pressure

b)

Wing lift

c)

Engine thrust

d)

Landing loads

e)

Fuel weight

28.

Repeated pressurization causes:

a)

Fatigue

b)

Elastic deformation only

c)

Immediate failure

d)

Increased strength

e)

Cooling

29.

Modern fuselages are usually:

a)

Semi-monocoque

b)

Truss type

c)

Fabric covered

d)

Solid shell

e)

Wooden

30.

Frames and stringers provide:

a)

Structural strength and shape

b)

Pressurization control

c)

Cooling

d)

Ice protection

e)

Fire detection

31.

Windows are critical because:

a)

They are pressure boundaries

b)

They improve aerodynamics

c)

They cool cabin

d)

They support wings

e)

They reduce noise

32.

Maximum differential pressure is limited to:

a)

Prevent structural damage

b)

Improve comfort

c)

Reduce noise

d)

Save fuel

e)

Increase speed

33.

Fuselage bending loads are mainly caused by:

a)

Lift from wings

b)

Cabin pressure

c)

Engine thrust

d)

Drag

e)

Ice

34.

Torsional loads occur due to:

a)

Asymmetric lift

b)

Pressurization

c)

Landing impact

d)

Braking

e)

Fuel weight

35.

Pressurized sections require:

a)

Sealed structure

b)

Thicker paint

c)

Additional fuel

d)

Ice protection

e)

Ventilation only

36.

Cut-outs in fuselage reduce:

a)

Structural strength

b)

Weight only

c)

Drag

d)

Noise

e)

Pressure

37.

Reinforcement is added around:

a)

Doors and windows

b)

Wing tips

c)

Antennas

d)

Drain masts

e)

Static ports

38.

Fatigue damage is accelerated by:

a)

Repeated pressurization cycles

b)

High altitude

c)

Low speed

d)

Cold temperature

e)

Rain

39.

Cracks usually start at:

a)

Stress concentration points

b)

Smooth panels

c)

Rivet heads only

d)

Painted areas

e)

Thick skins

40.

Fail-safe design means:

a)

Structure can tolerate damage

b)

Structure never fails

c)

No inspection required

d)

No redundancy needed

e)

Unlimited life

41.

Damage tolerance requires:

a)

Regular inspection

b)

No maintenance

c)

Overdesign only

d)

Thicker skin

e)

Lower pressure

42.

Cargo compartments are usually:

a)

Pressurized

b)

Unpressurized

c)

Ventilated only

d)

Sealed permanently

e)

Structural only

43.

Belly fairing is mainly:

a)

Aerodynamic

b)

Structural

c)

Pressurized

d)

Load bearing

e)

Fuel storage

44.

Fuselage frames resist:

a)

Shape deformation

b)

Lift

c)

Thrust

d)

Drag

e)

Ice loads

45.

Stringers mainly resist:

a)

Bending

b)

Torsion

c)

Pressurization only

d)

Heat

e)

Fatigue only

46.

Skin carries:

a)

Shear and pressure loads

b)

Thrust

c)

Lift

d)

Fuel

e)

Ice

47.

A decompression panel opens to:

a)

Equalize pressure

b)

Increase ventilation

c)

Cool cabin

d)

Reduce noise

e)

Improve comfort

48.

Explosive decompression is:

a)

Rapid pressure loss

b)

Engine fire

c)

Fuel leak

d)

Hydraulic failure

e)

Brake failure

49.

Structural inspections aim to detect:

a)

Cracks and corrosion

b)

Paint damage

c)

Dirt

d)

Ice

e)

Fuel leaks only

50.

Corrosion weakens structure by:

a)

Reducing material thickness

b)

Increasing strength

c)

Increasing weight

d)

Sealing cracks

e)

Cooling metal

51.

Composite fuselage sections are:

a)

Lighter and corrosion resistant

b)

Heavier

c)

Fragile

d)

Unrepairable

e)

Rarely used

52.

Structural load paths ensure:

a)

Loads are safely distributed

b)

No deformation

c)

Maximum comfort

d)

No fatigue

e)

No maintenance

53.

Cabin pressurization loads act:

a)

Radially outward

b)

Inward

c)

Downward

d)

Longitudinal only

e)

Randomly

54.

The primary function of an aircraft engine is to:

a)

Produce thrust

b)

Produce lift

c)

Pressurize cabin

d)

Power hydraulics only

e)

Cool systems

55.

Jet engine thrust is produced by:

a)

Accelerating air rearwards

b)

Propeller rotation

c)

Wing lift

d)

Cabin pressure

e)

Fuel pressure

56.

Engine anti-ice protects:

a)

Intake and guide vanes

b)

Combustion chamber

c)

Exhaust nozzle

d)

Fuel tanks

e)

Cabin

57.

Engine fire detection is installed in:

a)

Designated fire zones

b)

Cabin only

c)

Wing tips

d)

Fuel tanks

e)

Cockpit

58.

Engine fire extinguishers discharge:

a)

Into engine fire zones

b)

Into cabin

c)

Overboard only

d)

Into fuel tanks

e)

Into exhaust

59.

Two fire bottles per engine are required for:

a)

Redundancy

b)

Weight balance

c)

Cooling

d)

Certification ease

e)

Fuel saving

60.

Engine shutdown during fire isolates:

a)

Fuel, air, electrics

b)

Cabin lights

c)

Pressurization

d)

Ice protection

e)

Brakes

61.

Engine overheat detection monitors:

a)

Temperature rise

b)

Pressure drop

c)

Vibration

d)

Fuel flow

e)

Oil quantity

62.

Engine fire zones are isolated by:

a)

Fireproof bulkheads

b)

Insulation only

c)

Ventilation

d)

Drain lines

e)

Cooling air

63.

Fire detection must avoid:

a)

False warnings

b)

Crew awareness

c)

Redundancy

d)

Indication

e)

Testing

64.

Continuous fire detection uses:

a)

Temperature-sensitive elements

b)

Smoke sensors

c)

Pressure switches

d)

Optical sensors

e)

Gas detectors

65.

Dual fire loops provide:

a)

Redundancy and fault detection

b)

Higher temperature

c)

Faster extinguishing

d)

Automatic discharge

e)

Reduced weight

66.

Fire loop fault indication means:

a)

One loop failed

b)

Fire detected

c)

Bottle discharged

d)

Engine shutdown

e)

Test failed

67.

Engine fire warning requires:

a)

Immediate crew action

b)

Automatic landing

c)

Immediate bottle discharge

d)

Engine restart

e)

Ignoring

68.

Fire handles usually:

a)

Isolate systems and arm extinguishers

b)

Discharge bottles automatically

c)

Shut cabin air

d)

Control spoilers

e)

Operate RAT

69.

Engine fire extinguishers contain:

a)

Halon agents

b)

Water

c)

CO₂

d)

Foam

e)

Powder

70.

Halon is effective because it:

a)

Interrupts combustion chemistry

b)

Cools metal

c)

Adds oxygen

d)

Increases pressure

e)

Freezes fuel

71.

APU fire protection is:

a)

Similar to engine fire protection

b)

Not required

c)

Manual only

d)

Ground use only

e)

Cabin based

72.

APU may auto shutdown due to:

a)

Fire or overheat

b)

Low cabin pressure

c)

Brake overheat

d)

Ice detection

e)

Fuel imbalance

73.

Fire test checks:

a)

System integrity

b)

Fire bottles

c)

Fuel flow

d)

Hydraulic pressure

e)

Brake temperature

74.

Fire test simulates:

a)

Real warning indications

b)

Bottle discharge

c)

Engine failure

d)

Smoke

e)

Heat

75.

If fire test fails:

a)

System may be inoperative

b)

Fire exists

c)

Bottle is empty

d)

Engine is on fire

e)

Cabin smoke exists

76.

Fire extinguishing is:

a)

Crew controlled

b)

Automatic

c)

Optional

d)

Delayed

e)

Ground only

77.

Fire systems must be:

a)

Reliable and redundant

b)

Lightweight only

c)

Simple only

d)

Cheap

e)

Silent

78.

Fire protection priority is:

a)

Safety of aircraft and occupants

b)

Fuel economy

c)

Passenger comfort

d)

Noise reduction

e)

Speed

79.

Fire detection must:

a)

Warn crew quickly

b)

Extinguish fire automatically

c)

Shut engines down automatically

d)

Vent cabin

e)

Reduce thrust

80.

Continuous fire detectors reset when:

a)

Temperature decreases

b)

Fire bottle discharges

c)

Engine stops

d)

Crew resets manually

e)

Aircraft lands

81.

Smoke detectors are essential in:

a)

Cargo compartments

b)

Wing structure

c)

Fuel tanks

d)

Landing gear bays only

e)

Engines only

82.

SOSAL ?

a)

ДА

b)

НЕТ(да)

83.

Optical smoke detectors work by:

a)

Light scattering

b)

Gas pressure

c)

Heat expansion

d)

Vibration

e)

Magnetic fields

84.

Ionization detectors detect:

a)

Change in electrical current

b)

Temperature rise

c)

Flame color

d)

Pressure drop

e)

CO only

85.

Semiconductor gas detectors detect:

a)

CO and toxic gases

b)

Ice

c)

Fire flame

d)

Light

e)

Pressure

86.

Smoke warnings usually activate:

a)

Aural and visual alerts

b)

Visual only

c)

Aural only

d)

Maintenance message

e)

No alert

87.

Smoke hoods provide:

a)

Breathing protection

b)

Fire extinguishing

c)

Cooling

d)

Communication

e)

Lighting

88.

Smoke hoods are designed for:

a)

Crew use only

b)

Passengers

c)

Maintenance

d)

Firefighters

e)

Engineers

89.

Cargo compartments Class C require:

a)

Built-in extinguishing system

b)

Visual inspection

c)

Manual firefighting

d)

No detection

e)

No ventilation

90.

Halon agents work mainly by:

a)

Interrupting combustion chemistry

b)

Cooling

c)

Oxygen addition

d)

Water vapor

e)

Pressure

91.

Dry powder is preferred for:

a)

Wheel and brake fires

b)

Cabin fires

c)

Electrical fires

d)

Engine fires

e)

Avionics

92.

Fire drills must be:

a)

Performed in correct sequence

b)

Improvised

c)

Performed by engineers

d)

Automatic

e)

Optional

93.

Fire warning must be:

a)

Attention-getting

b)

Silent

c)

Hidden

d)

Delayed

e)

Informational only

94.

Fire protection systems are essential for:

a)

Aircraft and occupant safety

b)

Speed

c)

Fuel economy only

d)

Comfort only

e)

Noise reduction

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