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Unit 6: Nucleic Acids & Protein Synthesis

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines the primary role of DNA in cells?

a)

Catalyzes most metabolic reactions in cytoplasm

b)

Stores heritable instructions for cellular functions

c)

Generates ATP during oxidative phosphorylation directly

d)

Forms structural components of ribosomes predominantly

2.

During cell division, why must genetic information be copied accurately?

a)

To maintain identical instructions with no loss

b)

To allow proteins to fold more efficiently

c)

To increase variability in daughter cells

d)

To shorten S phase for faster replication

3.

Which base is found in RNA but not in DNA?

a)

Uracil replaces thymine in RNA

b)

Thymine replaces adenine in RNA

c)

Cytosine replaces guanine in RNA

d)

Adenine replaces cytosine in RNA

4.

Identify the pairing pattern shown for nucleobases in the helices.

a)

Adenine pairs with thymine or uracil; guanine with cytosine

b)

Adenine pairs with cytosine; guanine with thymine

c)

Adenine pairs with guanine; cytosine with thymine

d)

Adenine pairs with uracil; cytosine with thymine

5.

Early scientists thought proteins were genetic material. Which reasoning aligns with that view?

a)

Proteins contained sugar-phosphate backbones

b)

Proteins were considered sufficiently complex

c)

Proteins replicated more quickly than DNA

d)

Proteins had four consistent nucleobases

6.

Compare DNA and RNA structures depicted. Which description fits both?

a)

Polymers with sugar–phosphate helices

b)

Double-stranded molecules always

c)

Contain thymine as a shared base

d)

Localized only in the nucleus always

7.

Which component is NOT one of the three main parts of a nucleotide?

a)

Nitrogenous base

b)

Pentose sugar

c)

Phosphate group

d)

Sulfur side chain

8.

Which bases are purines in nucleic acids?

a)

Uracil and cytosine

b)

Cytosine and thymine

c)

Thymine and uracil

d)

Adenine and guanine

9.

Which bases are pyrimidines across DNA and RNA?

a)

Guanine and adenine

b)

Adenine and guanine

c)

Thymine and cytosine

d)

Cytosine and uracil

10.

Which base is found in RNA but not in DNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Guanine

d)

Adenine

11.

Which base is found in DNA but not in RNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Uracil

d)

Adenine

12.

What distinguishes purines from pyrimidines structurally?

a)

Two ring structures

b)

No ring structures

c)

Single ring structures

d)

Three ring structures

13.

Which sugar is present in RNA nucleotides?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Ribose

14.

Which sugar is present in DNA nucleotides?

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Galactose

d)

Ribose

15.

What property does the phosphate group impart to nucleic acids?

a)

Hydrophobic character

b)

Neutral character

c)

Basic character

d)

Acidic character

16.

ATP is best described as which of the following?

a)

A dipeptide

b)

A nucleotide

c)

A disaccharide

d)

A fatty acid

17.

What is formed when adenine combines with a pentose sugar?

a)

Adenosine diphosphate

b)

Adenylate cyclase

c)

Adenosine

d)

Adenine triphosphate

18.

Two nucleotides joined by a phosphodiester bond create which structure?

a)

Dinucleotide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Dipeptide

d)

Diglyceride

19.

In a phosphodiester linkage, how many ester bonds are contributed by the phosphate group?

a)

Three ester bonds

b)

Two ester bonds

c)

One ester bond

d)

No ester bonds

20.

Which statement best describes the backbone of DNA and RNA?

a)

Alternating peptide-sugar

b)

Alternating base-base

c)

Alternating sugar-phosphate

d)

Alternating lipid-protein

21.

Which set accurately lists the bases present in DNA?

a)

Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine

b)

Adenine, thymine, cytosine, uracil

c)

Adenine, uracil, guanine, cytosine

d)

Thymine, uracil, guanine, cytosine

22.

In the DNA diagram, the two sugar–phosphate backbones twist to form a right-handed double helix. Which feature best explains how the paired bases align across the helix?

a)

Hydrophobic backbones force bases to face outward

b)

Parallel strand orientation promotes identical 5'→3' direction

c)

Ionic bonds between sugars fix bases at equal angles

d)

Antiparallel strands orient bases for complementary pairing

23.

One complete turn of the DNA double helix corresponds to how many base pairs as indicated on the diagram?

a)

Fourteen base pairs per helical turn

b)

Eight base pairs per helical turn

c)

Ten base pairs per helical turn

d)

Twelve base pairs per helical turn

24.

Which statement about hydrogen bonding between DNA bases is correct according to the figure?

a)

A–T and G–C both form two hydrogen bonds

b)

A–T forms two hydrogen bonds, G–C forms three

c)

A–T forms one hydrogen bond, G–C forms one

d)

A–T forms three hydrogen bonds, G–C forms two

25.

In the DNA structure shown, which pairing reflects purine–pyrimidine complementarity?

a)

A pairs with U, G pairs with C

b)

A pairs with T, G pairs with C

c)

A pairs with G, C pairs with T

d)

A pairs with C, G pairs with T

26.

The DNA diagram labels the strands as running in opposite directions. What term describes this orientation?

a)

Orthogonal strand orientation

b)

Antiparallel strand orientation

c)

Coaxial strand arrangement

d)

Isopolar alignment of strands

27.

Which feature of the DNA diagram explains why bases project inward at right angles from the backbone?

a)

The bases attach directly to phosphate groups

b)

The hydrophobic bases avoid the aqueous environment

c)

The backbones are composed of alternating bases

d)

The bases are covalently linked across the helix

28.

Which RNA type is depicted as a relatively unfolded linear chain in the RNA figure?

a)

Messenger RNA (mRNA) remains mostly linear

b)

Transfer RNA (tRNA) remains mostly linear

c)

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) remains mostly linear

d)

All RNA types remain mostly linear

29.

In the RNA diagram, which molecule is shown adopting a cloverleaf-like secondary structure capable of carrying an amino acid?

a)

rRNA binds amino acids via active site

b)

DNA binds amino acids via hydrogen bonds

c)

tRNA binds amino acids via acceptor stem

d)

mRNA binds amino acids via codons

30.

Which statement best contrasts DNA and RNA structures?

a)

DNA backbones are proteins; RNA backbones are lipids

b)

DNA is double-stranded; RNA is single polynucleotide

c)

DNA has uracil; RNA has thymine bases

d)

DNA is single-stranded; RNA is double-stranded

31.

Using the DNA diagram, predict the complementary strand sequence directionally for the segment 5'-AGCT-3'.

a)

3'-TCGA-5' demonstrating antiparallel

b)

3'-AGCT-5' with antiparallel pairing

c)

5'-TCGA-3' with parallel orientation

d)

5'-TCAG-3' demonstrating antiparallel

32.

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

a)

G1 phase of growth

b)

M phase of mitosis

c)

S phase of synthesis

d)

G2 phase of repair

33.

Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds?

a)

DNA polymerase enzyme

b)

DNA ligase enzyme

c)

Helicase enzyme

d)

Topoisomerase enzyme

34.

What is the required direction of DNA polymerase activity when adding nucleotides?

a)

Random orientation direction

b)

3′ to 5′ direction

c)

5′ to 3′ direction

d)

Both directions equally

35.

Which statement correctly describes the leading strand during replication?

a)

Synthesized after ligase finishes

b)

Synthesized randomly with pauses

c)

Synthesized continuously toward

d)

Synthesized discontinuously away

36.

On the lagging strand, short DNA segments formed during replication are called what?

a)

Centromere fragments

b)

Okazaki fragments

c)

Exon fragments

d)

Promoter fragments

37.

Which enzyme seals the sugar‑phosphate backbone by reforming phosphodiester bonds?

a)

Helicase enzyme

b)

DNA ligase enzyme

c)

RNA polymerase enzyme

d)

DNA primase enzyme

38.

In semi‑conservative replication, how much of the original DNA is retained in each new molecule?

a)

All of the original double

b)

A quarter of the original

c)

Half of the original strand

d)

None of the original half

39.

What does helicase specifically disrupt to unzip the DNA?

a)

Covalent bonds in bases

b)

Ionic bonds in backbone

c)

Hydrogen bonds between bases

d)

Peptide bonds in histones

40.

Why must the lagging strand be synthesized in fragments?

a)

Polymerase cannot join bases

b)

Polymerase works 5′→3′

c)

Polymerase moves with fork

d)

Polymerase only binds RNA

41.

Which description best matches DNA polymerase function during replication?

a)

Moves fork to opposite end

b)

Copies one nucleotide sequentially

c)

Cuts bases to open helix

d)

Reconnects backbone segments

42.

At a replication fork, the leading strand is oriented how relative to DNA polymerase synthesis direction?

a)

Opposite 3′ to 5′ orientation

b)

Same 5′ to 3′ orientation

c)

Variable orientation each fork

d)

Circular orientation around fork

43.

Which immediate product must be joined by ligase to complete replication on the lagging strand?

a)

RNA primers chains

b)

Okazaki fragment ends

c)

Centromere repeats

d)

Telomere hairpins

44.

A student proposes that replication is conservative. Which outcome would that predict?

a)

Each new molecule half original

b)

Each new molecule all original

c)

Each new molecule mixed strands

d)

Each new molecule no original

45.

If DNA polymerase could synthesize 3′→5′, what immediate change at the fork would occur?

a)

Helicase becomes unnecessary

b)

Okazaki fragments increase

c)

Leading strand forms slower

d)

Lagging strand disappears

46.

Which statement best defines a gene in molecular biology?

a)

A whole chromosome directing cellular metabolism

b)

An RNA molecule catalyzing all cell reactions

c)

A protein sequence storing hereditary traits

d)

A segment of DNA coding one polypeptide chain

47.

How many different amino acids are incorporated into proteins in most organisms?

a)

Thirty-two amino acids in the triplet table

b)

Ten amino acids for basic enzymes

c)

Sixty-four amino acids in total genes

d)

Twenty amino acids in cellular proteins

48.

Why does the genetic code require a triplet of bases for each amino acid?

a)

Triplets prevent mutations during replication

b)

Doublets cannot specify start or stop signals

c)

Single bases cannot be read by ribosomes

d)

Four bases need combinations to encode twenty

49.

Which process converts DNA information into an mRNA sequence?

a)

Transcription from DNA to mRNA

b)

Translation of codons to proteins

c)

Replication of DNA strands

d)

Splicing of introns from RNA

50.

What does AUG most commonly function as in protein synthesis?

a)

Start codon initiating translation

b)

Stop codon ending polypeptide

c)

Universal code for any amino acid

d)

Signal for DNA replication origin

51.

Which phrase correctly describes the genetic code being universal?

a)

Only bacteria share identical codons

b)

Same codon maps to same amino acid

c)

Codons vary between cell types widely

d)

Each species uses unique codon sets

52.

What does it mean that the genetic code is redundant?

a)

One codon specifies multiple amino acids

b)

Redundancy arises only in noncoding DNA

c)

Each amino acid uses a single codon

d)

Multiple codons specify one amino acid

53.

Given 64 possible triplet codons and 20 amino acids, which inference is valid?

a)

Most amino acids are unassigned codons

b)

Every codon specifies a unique amino acid

c)

Several amino acids have multiple codons

d)

There are forty-four stop codons overall

54.

A stop codon serves which role during translation?

a)

Signals attachment of RNA polymerase

b)

Marks termination of a gene’s coding region

c)

Adds a terminal amino acid residue

d)

Initiates assembly of ribosomal subunits

55.

If a DNA triplet is TAC, which amino acid is specified after transcription and translation?

a)

Serine specified by TAC codon

b)

Glycine specified by TAC codon

c)

Isoleucine specified by TAC codon

d)

Methionine specified by TAC codon

56.

Which enzyme synthesizes mRNA by reading the DNA template strand in eukaryotic nuclei?

a)

Ribosomal protein complex in cytosol

b)

RNA polymerase in the nucleus

c)

DNA polymerase III in mitochondria

d)

Topoisomerase at nuclear envelope

57.

During transcription, which DNA base is replaced by uracil in RNA?

a)

Guanine converts into uracil

b)

Cytosine changes to uracil

c)

Thymine is replaced by uracil

d)

Adenine becomes uracil

58.

What is the correct directional flow of genetic information for protein production?

a)

Protein to RNA to DNA

b)

RNA to DNA to protein

c)

DNA to protein to RNA

d)

DNA to RNA to protein

59.

Which strand does RNA polymerase use to build a complementary mRNA sequence?

a)

Coding strand of DNA

b)

Template strand of DNA

c)

Non-transcribed RNA strand

d)

Lagging strand of mRNA

60.

Where are proteins synthesized after mRNA exits the nucleus?

a)

On lysosomal membranes

b)

Within the nucleolus region

c)

At ribosomes in cytoplasm

d)

Inside nuclear pores

61.

Which pairing correctly represents RNA base pairing with a DNA template?

a)

G pairs with T in RNA

b)

C pairs with T in RNA

c)

A pairs with U in RNA

d)

U pairs with G in RNA

62.

What event terminates transcription, leading to mRNA release?

a)

Exons are removed by splicing

b)

Ribosome reaches an AUG codon

c)

Stop message is encountered

d)

Helicase completes unwinding

63.

What is the primary role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

Catalyzes peptide bond formation

b)

Conveys DNA code to ribosomes

c)

Forms ribosomal subunits for translation

d)

Carries amino acids to ribosomes

64.

Which statement best distinguishes introns from exons in eukaryotic pre-mRNA?

a)

Introns code for proteins directly

b)

Exons are noncoding regions retained

c)

Exons are removed during splicing

d)

Introns are noncoding segments removed

65.

After transcription, which modification protects the 5′ end of eukaryotic mRNA?

a)

Telomerase extension

b)

RNA editing by deamination

c)

5′ guanine cap

d)

Poly-A tail addition

66.

What happens to mRNA after processing is complete?

a)

It binds DNA at promoters

b)

It exits through a nuclear pore

c)

It degrades inside the nucleus

d)

It is translated within nucleolus

67.

Splicing ensures what outcome before translation?

a)

Introns create more codons

b)

Only exons remain joined

c)

mRNA becomes double-stranded

d)

Ribosomes attach to DNA

68.

In the diagram showing mRNA synthesis, which DNA strand serves as the template for creating the complementary mRNA copy?

a)

Transcribed strand oriented 3′ to 5′ direction

b)

Either DNA strand depending on splicing pattern

c)

Non-transcribed strand paired through intron removal

d)

Non-transcribed strand with 5′ to 3′ direction

69.

Which modification is described when sections called introns are removed from the primary RNA transcript?

a)

Ribosomal assembly with rRNA

b)

Polyadenylation at the 3′ end

c)

RNA splicing of the transcript

d)

RNA capping at the 5′ end

70.

What remains in the mature mRNA after splicing?

a)

Introns retained for regulation

b)

rRNA segments inserted

c)

Exons joined into sequence

d)

Promoters added to ends

71.

What is one functional consequence of alternative splicing?

a)

Eliminates codon reading frames

b)

Prevents mRNA export permanently

c)

Regulates gene activity in different ways

d)

Generates identical proteins always

72.

In the tRNA diagram, which three bases at the 3′ end form the universal amino acid attachment site?

a)

AAA bases at the anticodon loop

b)

CCA bases at the acceptor stem

c)

GCU bases on the D-arm

d)

UGG bases near hydrogen bonds

73.

What role does tRNA play during translation as shown and described?

a)

Transfers amino acids to polypeptide

b)

Catalyzes DNA replication steps

c)

Stores mRNA in the nucleus

d)

Removes exons from pre-mRNA

74.

Which statement correctly defines a codon in the context of translation?

a)

Set of three bases on mRNA

b)

Set of two bases on tRNA

c)

Set of four bases on rRNA

d)

Set of three bases on DNA promoters

75.

Where on the tRNA is the anticodon located, according to the diagram?

a)

In the loop opposite the acceptor stem

b)

Along the rRNA interaction helix

c)

Within the hydrogen bond ladder on stem

d)

At the 3′ amino acid attachment site

76.

Which cellular structure brings mRNA, tRNA, and other molecules together for translation?

a)

Nucleus composed of DNA and protein

b)

Golgi apparatus sorting polypeptides

c)

Ribosome made of rRNA and protein

d)

Lysosome containing hydrolytic enzymes

77.

A tRNA has an anticodon complementary to an mRNA codon. Which outcome follows correct pairing?

a)

Ribosomal RNA is transcribed

b)

A specific amino acid is added

c)

Exons are degraded in cytosol

d)

Introns are excised from DNA