wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

2026 Biology Midterm Review

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 5hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which list correctly orders the levels of biological organization from smallest to largest?

a)

Atoms, organelles, cells, tissues, organ, organ system, organism

b)

Organelles, atoms, tissues, cells, organ system, organism

c)

Atoms, cells, organelles, tissues, organ system, organism

d)

Cells, atoms, organelles, tissues, organs, organisms

2.

A scientist wants to test how light intensity affects plant growth. Which choice correctly identifies the variables?

a)

Independent: soil type; Dependent: light intensity

b)

Independent: watering schedule; Dependent: fertilizer brand

c)

Independent: light intensity; Dependent: plant growth

d)

Independent: plant growth; Dependent: light intensity

3.

Which feature distinguishes prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells?

a)

Eukaryotes are less complex and evolved first

b)

Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and a nucleus

c)

Prokaryotes have chloroplasts and large central vacuoles

d)

Eukaryotes have cell walls and free-floating DNA

4.

Which pairing of macromolecule with its main function is correct?

a)

Lipids: long-term energy storage and insulation

b)

Proteins: store genetic information in the nucleus

c)

Carbohydrates: long-term energy storage in membranes

d)

Nucleic acids: catalyze reactions and form hormones

5.

In the osmosis diagram showing a semipermeable membrane, water molecules move from the side with lower solute concentration toward the side with higher solute concentration. What is the best explanation for this movement?

a)

Water moves to equalize solute concentrations across the membrane

b)

Water moves randomly and equally in both directions always

c)

Water follows its concentration gradient across any membrane

d)

Solutes push water molecules through protein pumps using ATP

6.

A cell is placed in a hypertonic solution as depicted in the tonicity diagram. What change will most likely occur to the cell?

a)

Cell will gain solutes and expand

b)

Cell will have no net water movement

c)

Cell will shrink due to water loss

d)

Cell will swell and possibly burst

7.

In the facilitated diffusion diagram, particles move through a channel protein from high concentration to low concentration. Which statement distinguishes this process from active transport?

a)

It requires ATP to move molecules

b)

It does not require cellular energy

c)

It uses carrier proteins and ATP

d)

It moves against the concentration gradient

8.

Exocytosis is illustrated by vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane and releasing contents outside the cell. Which step most directly uses the phospholipid bilayer’s properties?

a)

Vesicle formation from the Golgi apparatus

b)

Fusion of vesicle membrane with cell membrane

c)

Binding of cargo to receptor proteins

d)

Transport of cargo along microtubules

9.

In the active transport diagram, a membrane pump moves ions from low to high concentration and shows ATP converting to ADP + Pi. What is the immediate role of ATP here?

a)

Maintains membrane fluidity during pumping

b)

Phosphorylates the pump to drive conformational change

c)

Provides energy to open a channel for diffusion

d)

Binds solute to increase its affinity for the pump

10.

Which balanced equation represents photosynthesis in plants?

a)

Glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide + ATP

b)

Oxygen + glucose → carbon dioxide + water + ATP

c)

Carbon dioxide + water → oxygen + glucose

d)

Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy

11.

Cellular respiration primarily occurs in which organelle of eukaryotic cells?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Ribosome

d)

Mitochondria

12.

A runner sprints and then feels muscle burn due to lactic acid. Which scenario best explains the energy pathway and oxygen conditions?

a)

Aerobic respiration with limited oxygen, ethanol fermentation

b)

Anaerobic respiration with no oxygen, lactic acid fermentation

c)

Anaerobic respiration with oxygen present, oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Aerobic respiration with abundant oxygen, high ATP yield

13.

Compare ATP yields: Which statement is most accurate for typical cells?

a)

Aerobic respiration produces 2 ATP and no byproducts

b)

Fermentation produces more ATP than aerobic respiration

c)

Anaerobic respiration produces about 36 ATP per glucose

d)

Aerobic respiration produces about 36 ATP per glucose

14.

Using the normal male karyotype diagram, which pair represents the sex chromosomes for a biological male?

a)

X and Y chromosomes

b)

Two X chromosomes

c)

Two Y chromosomes

d)

W and Z chromosomes

15.

Look at the trisomy 21 diagram. What specific abnormality is indicated at chromosome pair 21?

a)

An extra chromosome present

b)

A missing chromosome present

c)

A translocation to X present

d)

A duplicated arm missing

16.

Which process produces haploid gametes that can lead to karyotypes with trisomies if nondisjunction occurs?

a)

Meiosis in germ cells

b)

Mitosis in somatic cells

c)

Binary fission in bacteria

d)

Budding in yeast cells

17.

Based on the diagrams, which statement correctly distinguishes diploid and haploid cells?

a)

Haploid cells have pairs of homologs

b)

Diploid cells have pairs of homologs

c)

Haploid cells equal forty-six chromosomes

d)

Diploid cells have single chromosomes

18.

Which enzyme lays down RNA primers to start DNA synthesis during replication?

a)

Topoisomerase prevents helix supercoils

b)

Helicase initiates strand separation

c)

Ligase seals sugar-phosphate gaps

d)

Primase creates short RNA primers

19.

DNA replication is described as semi-conservative because:

a)

New strands randomly join old fragments

b)

Original strands are fully degraded

c)

Each new molecule has one original strand

d)

Each new molecule has two new strands

20.

Where does transcription occur and what is its product?

a)

Golgi, produces amino acid chains

b)

Ribosome, produces transfer RNA

c)

Nucleus, produces messenger RNA

d)

Cytoplasm, produces polypeptides

21.

Given the DNA strand ATGCATGA, what is the complementary mRNA produced during transcription?

a)

AUGCAUGA

b)

UACGTACT

c)

UACGUACU

d)

TACGTATC

22.

If an mRNA codon is AUG, which anticodon on tRNA pairs with it at the ribosome?

a)

TAC

b)

AUG

c)

CAU

d)

UAC

23.

Which point mutation can introduce an early stop codon into a coding sequence?

a)

Substitution maintaining amino acid

b)

Silent mutation in third base

c)

Missense changing one amino acid

d)

Nonsense creating a termination codon

24.

A BB black cat is crossed with a Bb gray cat. What are the expected genotypes and phenotypes of the kittens?

a)

25% BB black, 25% Bb gray, 50% bb white

b)

50% Bb gray, 50% bb white

c)

25% BB black, 75% Bb gray

d)

50% BB black, 50% Bb gray

25.

In incomplete dominance, which statement best describes the heterozygote’s phenotype?

a)

A random mix of parental traits

b)

A blend of the two homozygotes

c)

Identical to the dominant homozygote

d)

More extreme than either homozygote

26.

A red fish (RR) crossed with a blue fish (BB) produces RB offspring. What phenotypes do RB fish show under codominance?

a)

Red and blue spotted

b)

All red only

c)

Pink blended color

d)

All blue only

27.

Cross TtRR × ttRr. What fraction of offspring will be ttRR?

a)

8/16 of offspring

b)

1/16 of offspring

c)

0/16 of offspring

d)

4/16 of offspring

28.

During which process does crossing over occur, and what is its main benefit?

a)

Meiosis; increases genetic variation

b)

Fertilization; ensures zygote formation

c)

Mitosis; repairs DNA damage

d)

Replication; prevents mutations

29.

In a pedigree where affected sons are common and daughters are mostly unaffected, which inheritance pattern is most likely?

a)

X‑linked recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

Autosomal codominant

d)

Mitochondrial inheritance

30.

A chromosome image shows a segment removed from one chromosome with no replacement. Which structural mutation is identified?

a)

Translocation mutation

b)

Duplication mutation

c)

Insertion mutation

d)

Deletion mutation

31.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

To control what comes in and out of the cell

b)

To break down food inside the cell

c)

to serve as a barrier

d)

to eat the cells food

32.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
33.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E 
34.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
35.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

36.
An enzyme speeds up a reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy.
b)
raising the activation energy.
c)
releasing energy.
d)
absorbing energy.
37.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shape of the enzyme are changed and it denatures

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

38.

What is the optimum temperature for this enzyme?

a)

20 degrees Celsius

b)

45 degrees Celsius

c)

52 degrees Celsius

d)

64 degrees Celsius

39.

What can be inferred using the graph?

a)

Cells can function equally as well at all pH values.

b)

Cells do not function well at pH values that are too high or too low.

c)

Cells function best at high pH values.

d)

Cells function best at low pH values.

40.

What is activation energy?

a)

the energy from the sun

b)

the energy produced by an enzyme

c)

the energy needed to get a reaction going

d)

none of these

41.

Which macromolecule is used as a primary energy source? (This is why our victim who ate Olive Garden would be prepared for the gym!)

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

42.

Some proteins are catalysts in chemical reactions, meaning they speed them up. What are these proteins called?

a)

monomers

b)

enzymes

c)

quickens

d)

neutrons

43.

This macromolecule provides the genetic code to pass on to offspring and the template to make proteins.

a)

carbs

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

44.

Amino acids are the monomer of nucleic acids.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Monosaccharides are the monomers of carbohydrates.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Fatty acids are the monomer of carbohydrates.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What is the role of lipids in living organisms?

a)

to provide energy

b)

long-term energy storage

c)

tissue growth

d)

to store and transmit genetic information

48.

What is the role of proteins in living organisms?

a)

to provide energy

b)

long-term energy storage

c)

tissue growth

d)

to store and transmit genetic information

49.

What type of cells have a nucelar membrane?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

50.

Which statement accurately compares eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells?

a)

Eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells replicate faster than prokaryotic cells.

c)

Only prokaryotic cells have membrane-boudn organelles.

d)

Only prokaryotic cells lack outer membranes and cell walls.

51.

Identify the type of cell:

a)

Eukaryotic cell: Animal

b)

Eukaryotic cell: Plant

c)

Prokaryotic cell: Bacteria

d)

Virus

52.

A oranisms is multicellular, has a nucelar membrane, and membrane-bound organelles, what type of cells does this organism have?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

53.

Which of these correctly identifies the two cells described in the table?

a)

Cell 1 is eukaryotic, and Cell 2 is prokaryotic.

b)

Cell 1 is prokaryotic and Cell 2 is eukaryotic.

c)

Both cells 1 and 2 are prokaytoic.

d)

Both cells 1 and 2 are eukaryotic.

54.

Which of the following organisms is made up of prokaryotic cells?

a)

Plants

b)

Bacteria

c)

Animals

d)

Fungi

55.

Eukaryotic cells have membrane bound organelles.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which of the following organisms is made up of eukaryotic cells?

a)

Plants

b)

Bacteria

c)

Archaea

d)

None of the above

57.

Which type of cell has a cell membrane?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

c)

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

58.

Which type of cell has a cytoplasm?

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

c)

Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

59.

The DNA of these cells is circular and not found within a nucleus.

a)

Prokaryotic cells

b)

Eukaryotic cells

c)

Both Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells

60.
Which organelle releases the energy stored inside food
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Nucleus
61.

What is the correct hierarchy of cells?

a)

tissues-cells-organ systems-organs-organisms

b)

cell-organisms-tissues-organs-organ systems

c)

cells-tissues-organs-organ systems-organisms

d)

organs-tissues-cells-organ systems-organisms

62.
What is the name and function of the organelle displayed above?
a)
Mitochondria: breakdown glucose and produce ATP
b)
Chloroplast: converts solar energy into chemical energy
c)
Vacuole: Stores H2O, salt, food
d)
Nucleus: stores genetic information
63.

Stores food and water like a refrigerator for the cell

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Vacuole

c)

Lysosome

d)

Cytoplasm

64.
What can only be found in plant cells?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Vacuole
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Mitochondrion
65.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
66.
What is the structure labeled #2?
a)
Lysosome
b)
Vesicle
c)
Ribosome
d)
Mitochondria
67.

This holds water, food, or waste.

a)

lysosome

b)

vacuole

c)

cell wall

d)

cell membrane

68.

This is responsible for removing waste and dead parts from the cell.

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosome

c)

vacuole

d)

cell wall

69.

Process by which particles tend to move from an area where they are more concentrated to an area where they are less concentrated

a)

Diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Active Transport

70.

Process of diffusion in which molecules pass across the membrane through cell membrane channels

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Endocytosis

71.

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active Transport

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Endocytosis

72.

When the concentration of two solutions is the same

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Osmotic pressure

73.

When comparing two solutions, the solution with the greater concentration of solutes

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Osmotic Pressure

74.

When comparing two solutions, the solution with the lesser concentration of solutes

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypotonic

d)

Osmotic Pressure

75.
Active Transport typically uses ______ to transport materials across the cell membrane.
a)
ATP
b)
Glucose
c)
Na+
d)
K+
76.
Cells use energy to move materials across a membrane (low to high concentration).
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
77.
Cells transport material across a cell membrane without using energy (high to low concentration)
a)
Passive transport
b)
Concentration
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Active Transport
78.
Cell membrane surrounds a particle and encloses it (for large particles)
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
79.
Particles are removed from a cell (pushed out).
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Exocytosis
c)
Permeable
d)
In high concentration
80.

In passive transport, substances move across the cell membrane ________ the concentration gradient

a)

AGAINST

b)

ALONG

c)

DOWN

d)

BETWEEN

81.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
82.
What type of transport is this?
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
83.

Two examples of passive transport are

a)

Endocytosis and Exocytosis

b)

Diffusion and Osmosis

c)

Endocytosis and Diffusion

d)

Facilitated Diffusion and Pinocytosis

84.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
85.
In this picture, which way will the water move?
a)
Water will move into the cell
b)
Water will move out of the cell
c)
Water will move in and out of the cell
d)
Water will not move
86.
In this picture, how do you classify the solution?
a)
The solution is hypotonic
b)
The solution is hypertonic
c)
The solution is isotonic
d)
The solution is my tonic
87.

The concentration of red molecules outside the cell is higher than the concentration inside the cell. The red molecules cannot penetrate the cell. The cell is inside a ______.

a)

hypotonic solution

b)

hypertonic solution

88.

Which Type of solution is the middle cell placed in?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

d)

Robotonic

89.
What type of solution allows water to enter the plant cell?
a)
hypotonic solution
b)
hypertonic solution
c)
isotonic solution
d)
active transport
90.

If the dots represent sugar what direction will the water flow?

a)

Into the cell

b)

Out of the cell

c)

Both equally (equilibrium)

91.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
92.

What happens to a cell in a hypotonic solution?

a)

it shrinks

b)

it swells and gets bigger

c)

it stays the same

93.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
94.
The products of photosynthesis are
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and water
c)
sugar and cabon dioxide
d)
oxygen and sugar (glucose)
95.
Mitochondria are...
a)
The location in cells where photosynthesis happens
b)
Kidney beans
c)
The location in cells where cellular respiration happens
d)
A type of pigment used for cellular respiration
96.
Where does cellular respiration take place in the cell?
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Vacuole
97.
Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of ______________.
a)
nitrogen
b)
carbon dioxiide
c)
oxygen
d)
carbon monoxide
98.

The products of cellular respiration

a)

CO2

b)

CO2, H2O

c)

CO2, H2O, glucose

d)

CO2, H2O, ATP

99.
ATP is...
a)
A form of energy the cell can use that is produced by cellular respiration
b)
A kind of sugar produced in photosynthesis
c)
A battery
100.

The reactants of photosynthesis are

a)

sugar and water

b)

sugar and oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide and water

d)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

101.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide and water

b)

carbon dioxide and oxygen

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

glucose and water

102.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
carbon dioxide + water --> oxygen + glucose
b)
carbon dioxide + glucose + water --> oxygen 
c)
oxygen + water --> carbon dioxide + glucose
d)
glucose+ oxygen ---> water + carbon dioxide 
103.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
104.
In meiosis, the haploid number of chromosomes in a human sex cell is:
a)
46
b)
92
c)
22
d)
23
105.
When you start with 1 cell, at the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
106.
After meiosis is complete how many cells will there be?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
107.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
108.
What is an advantage of sexual reproduction?
a)
Allows genetic variation
b)
Only needs one parent
c)
Happens very quickly
d)
Offspring are exact copies of parent
109.
Before a cell can divide, what must happen?
a)
Nothing, it is always ready to divide
b)
The number of chromosomes must be reduced by half
c)
The  chromosomes must replicate
d)
The number of chromosomes must triple.
110.
After meiosis is complete, the new cells:
a)
are all identical
b)
are all different
c)
are half identical and half different
d)
are all stretched out
111.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

112.

An organized picture of an individual's chromosomes used to diagnose extra or missing chromosomes

a)

amniocentesis

b)

urine analysis

c)

blood typing

d)

karyotype

113.

One benefit of asexual reproduction is that it produces genetic diversity

a)

true

b)

false

114.

What is the final result of meiosis?

a)

4 genetically different haploid cells

b)

4 genetically identical haploid cells

c)

4 genetically different diploid cells

d)

4 genetically identical diploid cells

115.

Which type of cells are used for mitosis?

a)

Somatic Cells

b)

Germline Cells

c)

Sperm Cells

d)

Gametes

116.

What is the main purpose of mitosis?

a)

Production of gametes

b)

Growth and repair of somatic cells

c)

Introduction of genetic variation

d)

Reduction of chromosome number

117.

What is the significance of crossing over in meiosis?

a)

It increases genetic variation

b)

It reduces genetic variation

c)

It ensures identical daughter cells

d)

It prevents chromosome separation

118.

What is the result of meiosis?

a)

Two identical daughter cells

b)

Four identical daughter cells

c)

Two genetically varied daughter cells

d)

Four genetically varied daughter cells

119.

What is the result of mitosis?

a)

Two identical daughter cells

b)

Four identical daughter cells

c)

Two genetically varied daughter cells

d)

Four genetically varied daughter cells

120.

What is the main purpose of meiosis?

a)

Production of somatic cells

b)

Growth and repair of cells

c)

Introduction of genetic variation

d)

Reduction of chromosome number

121.

In the absence of oxygen, which process comes after glycolysis

a)

fermentation

b)

krebs cycle

c)

electron transport chain

122.

Which process is used to produce beer and wine?

a)

glycolysis

b)

the Krebs Cycle

c)

lactic acid fermentation

d)

alcoholic fermentation

123.

Breathing heavily after running a race is your body's way of

a)

making more citric acid

b)

recharging the electron transport chain

c)

repaying an oxygen debt

d)

restarting glycolysis

124.

Fermentation would be considered a (n) _______ process.

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

125.

The rungs in the ladder structure of DNA are...

a)

a pair of amino acids

b)

deoxyribose and phosphate

c)

the phosphates

d)

two nitrogen bases

126.

The nitrogenous bases in DNA are...

a)

deoxyribose, guanine, cytosine, thymine

b)

adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

c)

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

d)

amine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

127.

Which is the correct representation of a nucleotide in DNA?

a)

deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group, uracil

b)

deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group, thymine

c)

ribose sugar, phosphate group, thymine

d)

ribose sugar, phosphate group, uracil

128.

Which type of bond (between the bases) can be easily broken, allowing the two sides of DNA to move apart for use in the cell?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

covalent bonds

c)

peptide bonds

d)

nitrogen bonds

129.
Which two processes are involved in protein synthesis?
a)
Replication and Transcription
b)
Replication and Translation
c)
Transcription and Translation
130.
Which of the following molecules is made during transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
protein
d)
mRNA
131.
Which of the following bases is found only in RNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
132.
Which form of RNA carries amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome?
a)
amino RNA
b)
ribosomal RNA
c)
transfer RNA
d)
messenger RNA
133.
What are the three base segments of mRNA called?
a)
anticodons
b)
codons
c)
triplets
134.
Transcribe the following sequence of DNA into RNA:
AAG   CTT   TGC
a)
TTC  GAA  ACG
b)
UUC  GAA ACG
c)
TTC  GUU  UCG
d)
UUC  GUU  UCG
135.
Which of the following would be a DNA nucleotide?
a)
phosphate, deoxyribose, uracil
b)
phosphate, deoxyribose, thymine
c)
phosphate, ribose, uracil
d)
phosphate, ribose, thymine
136.
Which of the following terms refers to the two strands of the DNA double helix running in opposite directions?
a)
semi-conservative
b)
antiparallel
c)
inverted strands
d)
perpendicular
137.
What would be the complementary DNA strand for the following nucleotide sequence?
TCG ATA CGA
a)
AGC ATA GCT
b)
AGC TAT GCT
c)
AGC UAU GCU
d)
UGC TUT GCT
138.
Which scientist(s) discovered that in any sample of DNA, the amount of A = T and the amount of C = G?
a)
Griffith
b)
Avery
c)
Chargaff
d)
Franklin
139.
Which of the following terms means that in each molecule of DNA made during replication there is one original strand and one new strand?
a)
Antiparallel
b)
Semi-conservative
c)
Complementary base-pairing
140.

Proteins are chains of amino acids bonded together. Which is the correct sequence for making proteins?

a)

Information is DNA is transferred into RNA and then made into protein

b)

Information in DNA is formed into protein directly.

c)

Information in RNA mutates into DNA and then is made into protein

d)

Information in RNA uses thermal energy to make protein

141.

A DNA segment is changed from AATTAG to AAATAG. This is a(n)

a)

frame shift mutation

b)

substitution

c)

insertion

d)

deletion

142.

What process is shown in the picture?

a)

commensalism

b)

deletion

c)

passive transport

d)

DNA replication

143.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
144.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
145.
What is the complement to the DNA strand below:
5'-ATGCCAT-3'
a)
5'-TACGGTA-3'
b)
3'-TACGGTA-5'
c)
3'-ATGGCAT-5'
d)
5'-ATGGCAT-3'
146.
In DNA, Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
147.

During Transcription, DNA is converted into ____

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

a Protein

148.

During Translation, mRNA is converted into a _______

a)

DNA

b)

Protein

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

149.

During transcription, DNA is converted in mRNA inside the _______.

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cytoplasm

150.

During Translation, mRNA finds a ________ to make a protein.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Mitochondria

151.

Match the DNA codon ATC to the correct mRNA codon.

a)

UAG

b)

AUC

c)

TAG

d)

UUG

152.

Match the mRNA codon UUA to the correct tRNA anti-codon

a)

AAT

b)

AAU

c)

AUA

d)

ATA

153.

Use your codon chart to match the mRNA CUU to the correct amino acid

a)

VAL

b)

TYR

c)

LEU

d)

PHE

154.

Use your codon chart to match the mRNA ACU to the correct amino acid.

a)

Thr

b)

Ala

c)

Val

d)

Gly

155.

Use your codon chart to find the amino acid that codes for AGU

a)

Tyr

b)

Gly

c)

Arg

d)

Ser

156.

Use your codon chart and find the amino acid that codes for the mRNA codon UAA

a)

Phe

b)

Tyr

c)

START

d)

STOP

157.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
158.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
159.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
160.
A mutation that does NOT show up through protein function is called
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
161.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

162.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
163.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

164.

Part of a chromosome

is deleted

a)

Deletion Mutation-Gene

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal

d)

Crossing Over

165.

Materials that can cause mutations

a)

Reversals

b)

Alkaline

c)

Mutagens

d)

Mutaters

166.

A mutation can be...

a)

harmful

b)

helpful

c)

neutral

d)

harmful or helpful, but never neutral

e)

harmful, helpful, AND neutral

167.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
168.

The following pedigree chart shows _______ females and ______ males that DO NOT have the trait.

a)

7, 3

b)

4, 4

c)

3, 2

d)

3, 3

e)

57, 93.5

169.

How many males are carriers?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

170.

Is this pedigree dominant, recessive, or sex-linked recessive?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Sex-Linked Recessive

171.

Is this pedigree dominant, recessive, or sex-linked recessive?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Sex-Linked Recessive

172.
If hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait, what genotype would individual III-3 have?
a)
XbX
b)
XbXb
c)
XbYb
d)
XbY
173.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
174.
Identify the homozygous dominant genotype:
a)
FF
b)
Ff
c)
ff
175.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
176.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
177.

T - tall and t = short

In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

Bb

d)

TT

178.

The blending of two traits is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

179.

A condition in which both alleles for a gene are expressed so that both traits are visible is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

180.

What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

181.

A long-haired female rabbit and a short-haired male rabbit produced this offspring with a medium-length coat:

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

182.

In certain rats, black fur (B) is dominant over white fur (b). If two rats, both heterozygous (Bb) for fur color, are mated, their offspring would be expected to have

a)

three different genotypes and three different colors.

b)

three different genotypes and two different colors.

c)

two different genotypes and three different colors.

d)

four different genotypes and two different colors.

183.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
184.
If brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes, what would be the  parent genotypes if two heterozygous brown eyed persons were crossed?
a)
BB and bb
b)
BB and Bb
c)
Bb and Bb
d)
bb and Bb
185.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
186.
Which of the following is homozygous recessive?
a)
rr
b)
AA
c)
TT
d)
Ff
187.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Jj
b)
Rr
c)
MM
d)
ee
188.

The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

intelligence

189.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
190.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
191.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
192.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

193.

What is the genotype for a pea plant homozygous for round seeds (R), and heterozygous for yellow seeds?

a)

RrYy

b)

RRyy

c)

RRYy

d)

rryy

194.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

195.

In a dihybrid cross, if one parent is heterozygous for both traits (RrYy) and the other parent is homozygous recessive for both traits (rryy), what will be the genotype of the offspring?

a)

The genotype of the offspring will be RrYy, Rryy, rrYy, or rryy.

b)

RRyy

c)

RrYY

d)

rrYY

196.

What is the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross between two individuals who are heterozygous for both traits?

a)

9:3:3:1

b)

1:1:1:1

c)

4:4:2:2

d)

6:2:2:1

197.

Colorblindness and hemophilia alleles are found on

a)

autosomal chromosomes

b)

sex chromosomes

198.

Which sex chromosomes do females have?

a)

XX

b)

XY

199.

Which sex chromosomes do males have?

a)

XX

b)

XY

200.

X-Linked traits are more common in

a)

males

b)

females

201.

Hemophilia is an x-linked recessive trait. Which genotype represents a carrier female?

a)

XHXH

b)

XHXh

c)

XhXh

d)

XHT

e)

XhY

202.

Hemophilia (h) is an x-linked recessive trait. What are the chances that a daughter would be a carrier?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

203.

Color-blindness is an x-linked recessive trait. Which genotype represents a colorblind female?

a)

XBXB

b)

XBXb

c)

XbXb

d)

XBY

e)

XbY

204.

Hemophilia (h) is an x-linked recessive trait. What is the genotype of Charles and Marie's child?

a)

XHXH

b)

XHXh

c)

XhXh

d)

XHY

e)

XhY

205.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ----

a)

not affected male.

b)

not affected female.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

206.

How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?

a)

Brother and sister

b)

Dad and daughter

c)

Uncle and niece

d)

Grandfather and granddaughter

207.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
208.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

209.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive

Similar Resources on Wayground

Zoology Semester Adaptive Review

205 questions

Zoology Semester Adaptive Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Earth Science Review

207 questions

Earth Science Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Y3 Physiopathology

208 questions

Y3 Physiopathology

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Bài tập trắc nghiệm Sinh học tế bào nhân thực

204 questions

Bài tập trắc nghiệm Sinh học tế bào nhân thực

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade

ohru4heuufhr

214 questions

ohru4heuufhr

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - Professional Dev...