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Physio - Hema 2

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary function of red blood cells is to:

a)

Regulate blood pressure

b)

Provide immune defense

c)

Transport carbon dioxide

d)

Transport hemoglobin

2.

Normal lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately:

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

3.

Destruction of senescent RBCs occurs primarily in the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

4.

The most important stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is:

a)

Anemia

b)

Low hemoglobin

c)

Reduced RBC count

d)

Tissue hypoxia

5.

The major site of erythropoietin production in adults is the:

a)

Liver

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Spleen

d)

Kidney

6.

Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by RBCs that are:

a)

Macrocytic hyperchromic

b)

Normocytic normochromic

c)

Microcytic hypochromic

d)

Macrocytic normochromic

7.

Vitamin B12 deficiency causes anemia due to impaired:

a)

Iron absorption

b)

Hemoglobin synthesis

c)

Cell membrane formation

d)

DNA synthesis

8.

Reticulocytosis indicates:

a)

Bone marrow failure

b)

Hemolysis suppression

c)

Decreased RBC production

d)

Increased erythropoiesis

9.

Polycythemia vera is caused by:

a)

Increased erythropoietin

b)

Chronic hypoxia

c)

Bone marrow overproduction of RBCs

d)

Dehydration

10.

Relative polycythemia results from:

a)

Increased RBC mass

b)

Bone marrow hyperplasia

c)

Decreased plasma volume

d)

Increased erythropoietin

11.

Hemoglobin breakdown ultimately produces:

a)

Urobilinogen

b)

Stercobilin

c)

Biliverdin

d)

Bilirubin

12.

The globin portion of hemoglobin is metabolized into:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Iron

c)

Amino acids

d)

Porphyrins

13.

Which condition causes macrocytic anemia?

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Chronic blood loss

c)

Folate deficiency

d)

Thalassemia

14.

The most abundant form of hemoglobin in adults is:

a)

HbF

b)

HbA2

c)

Methemoglobin

d)

HbA

15.

Increased RBC production at high altitude occurs due to:

a)

Increased plasma volume

b)

Increased CO₂

c)

Reduced oxygen tension

d)

Increased blood pressure

16.

The first line of defense against infection is:

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Antibody production

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Cell-mediated immunity

17.

Neutrophils primarily defend against:

a)

Viruses

b)

Parasites

c)

Bacteria

d)

Tumors

18.

The most potent antigen-presenting cell is the:

a)

B cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Dendritic cell

d)

Neutrophil

19.

Opsonization enhances:

a)

Antibody production

b)

Complement synthesis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Cytokine release

20.

Which immunoglobulin is most important in mucosal immunity?

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

21.

Type I hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgA

22.

Complement component responsible for opsonization is:

a)

C1q

b)

C3b

c)

C5a

d)

C9

23.

The membrane attack complex consists of:

a)

C1–C4

b)

C3–C5

c)

C5b–C9

d)

C9 alone

24.

Delayed hypersensitivity reactions peak at:

a)

1–2 hours

b)

6–12 hours

c)

24–48 hours

d)

72–96 hours

25.

Which cytokine activates macrophages?

a)

IL-4

b)

IL-5

c)

IFN-γ

d)

TNF-β

26.

Viral infections typically increase which leukocyte?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Basophils

27.

Natural killer cells primarily destroy:

a)

Bacteria

b)

Parasites

c)

Virus-infected cells

d)

RBCs

28.

Fever is primarily induced by:

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-1

c)

IL-4

d)

IFN-α

29.

Immunologic memory is mediated by:

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Memory cells

d)

Dendritic cells

30.

Agglutinogens are located on the:

a)

Plasma

b)

RBC membrane

c)

Platelets

d)

Leukocytes

31.

Blood type O contains which antibodies?

a)

Anti-A only

b)

Anti-B only

c)

None

d)

Anti-A and anti-B

32.

Universal RBC donor is:

a)

AB positive

b)

O positive

c)

O negative

d)

AB negative

33.

Universal recipient is:

a)

O negative

b)

A positive

c)

B positive

d)

AB positive

34.

Rh incompatibility affects which immunoglobulin?

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

35.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by:

a)

ABO mismatch

b)

IgM antibodies

c)

Maternal anti-Rh IgG

d)

Fetal antibodies

36.

The most dangerous transfusion reaction is due to:

a)

Febrile reaction

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Acute hemolysis

d)

Infection

37.

Agglutination occurs when:

a)

Antigens bind complement

b)

Antibodies bind plasma proteins

c)

Antibodies bind RBC antigens

d)

RBCs bind fibrin

38.

ABO incompatibility usually causes mild reactions because antibodies are:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

39.

Crossmatching prevents:

a)

Infection

b)

Coagulation

c)

Hemolytic reactions

d)

Allergic reactions

40.

The Rh antigen is present in approximately what percent of people?

a)

50%

b)

65%

c)

85%

d)

95%

41.

Agglutinin titers peak at which age?

a)

Birth

b)

Infancy

c)

Childhood

d)

Old age

42.

Which transfusion reaction is delayed?

a)

Acute hemolysis

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Delayed hemolytic reaction

d)

Febrile reaction

43.

Blood typing is based on:

a)

Plasma proteins

b)

Surface antigens

44.

Primary hemostasis involves formation of the:

a)

Fibrin clot

b)

Coagulation cascade

c)

Platelet plug

d)

Thrombin

45.

Bleeding time assesses:

a)

Coagulation factors

b)

Platelet function

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

Hemoglobin

46.

The extrinsic pathway begins with activation of:

a)

Factor XII

b)

Factor IX

c)

Factor VII

d)

Factor X

47.

Prothrombin is converted to thrombin by:

a)

Factor IX

b)

Factor Xa

c)

Factor XIII

d)

Plasmin

48.

Thrombin converts fibrinogen into:

a)

Plasmin

b)

Prothrombin

c)

Fibrin

d)

Factor XIII

49.

Factor XIII functions to:

a)

Activate thrombin

b)

Degrade fibrin

c)

Stabilize fibrin

d)

Activate platelets

50.

Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of:

a)

Factor IX

b)

Factor VII

c)

Factor VIII

d)

Factor X

51.

PT primarily assesses the:

a)

Intrinsic pathway

b)

Extrinsic pathway

c)

Platelet function

d)

Fibrinolysis

52.

PTT is prolonged in:

a)

Vitamin K deficiency

b)

Hemophilia A

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Polycythemia

53.

Vitamin K is required for synthesis of:

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Platelets

c)

Prothrombin

d)

Plasminogen

54.

Heparin acts by activating:

a)

Plasmin

b)

Antithrombin III

c)

Protein C

d)

Factor XIII

55.

Plasminogen is converted to plasmin by:

a)

Thrombin

b)

Factor X

c)

tPA

d)

Heparin

56.

DIC is characterized by:

a)

Reduced clotting

b)

Simultaneous clotting and bleeding

c)

Increased platelets

d)

Normal PT

57.

Platelet aggregation is mediated by:

a)

Heparin

b)

ADP

c)

Plasmin

d)

Protein C

58.

The most important inhibitor of coagulation is:

(a)  

59.

Which of the following neutralizes thrombin?

a)

Protein S

b)

Antithrombin III

c)

Thromboxane

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