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2205 Exam 2 pt.1

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse reviews an EFM strip: baseline 145, moderate variability, no decelerations, no accelerations in 20 minutes. The client reports the fetus “is usually sleepy.” What is the best next nursing action?

a)

Extend monitoring for an additional 20 minutes before escalating testing

b)

Turn off oxytocin and begin a fluid bolus

c)

Prepare the client for emergent cesarean delivery

d)

Administer 10 L O2 via non-rebreather immediately

2.

A client receiving oxytocin develops 6 contractions in 10 minutes with recurrent variable decelerations. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Apply a fetal scalp electrode

b)

Reposition the client to a lateral position

c)

Perform fetal scalp stimulation

d)

Increase oxytocin to shorten labor

3.

The nurse notes late decelerations that begin after the peak of each contraction and recover after the contraction ends. Which cause is most consistent with this pattern?

a)

Fetal head compression

b)

Umbilical cord compression

c)

Uteroplacental insufficiency

d)

Fetal movement/response to stimulation

4.

A strip shows an abrupt drop to the nadir within 30 seconds with a “V” shape and quick return to baseline, repeatedly. Which condition is the nurse most concerned about?

a)

Placental abruption

b)

Maternal hyperventilation

c)

Fetal sleep cycle

d)

Umbilical cord compression

5.

A laboring client with an epidural suddenly becomes hypotensive and the fetus develops recurrent late decelerations. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Reposition the client (left lateral or side-to-side)

b)

Administer a tocolytic immediately

c)

Prepare for operative vaginal delivery

d)

Perform a vaginal exam to assess dilation first

6.

Which fetal heart rate finding most supports chorioamnionitis/intraamniotic infection?

a)

Baseline 120 with accelerations

b)

Fetal tachycardia sustained >10 minutes

c)

Early decelerations with each contraction

d)

Moderate variability with no decelerations

7.

A nurse is teaching a student the mnemonic “VEAL CHOP.” Which pair is correctly matched?

a)

Variable—Head compression

b)

Early—Placental insufficiency

c)

Acceleration—Okay

d)

Late—Cord compression

8.

Which EFM strip meets Category III criteria?

a)

Moderate variability with recurrent variable decelerations

b)

Minimal variability with accelerations

c)

Tachycardia with moderate variability

d)

Absent variability with recurrent late decelerations

9.

A client at 35 weeks is admitted with preterm labor and cervical change. Which provider order is most important to prepare for fetal lung maturity?

a)

Administer antenatal corticosteroids as prescribed

b)

Start oxytocin to shorten exposure time

c)

Perform frequent vaginal exams for progression

d)

Encourage nipple stimulation to strengthen contractions

10.

Which statement best describes a prolonged deceleration?

a)

A gradual decrease that mirrors the contraction

b)

An abrupt decrease lasting <30 seconds

c)

A decrease lasting >2 minutes but <10 minutes

d)

A smooth, wave-like pattern lasting ≥20 minutes

11.

The nurse suspects cord prolapse after amniotomy because the fetus has sudden persistent bradycardia. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Call the provider after applying oxygen

b)

Prepare the client for forceps delivery

c)

Place the client in high-Fowler’s for gravity

d)

Manually elevate the presenting part off the cord

12.

A client is having an external cephalic version (ECV). Which complication requires the nurse to be ready for immediate intervention?

a)

Maternal insomnia

b)

Mild fetal hiccups

c)

Placental abruption

d)

Increased appetite after the procedure

13.

A nurse is documenting rupture of membranes using the “COAT/COACH” approach. Which documentation entry best matches the “C” component?

a)

“Fluid is clear, no particulate noted.”

b)

“Client denies fever and chills.”

c)

“Contractions every 3–4 minutes.”

d)

“Cervix 6 cm/80%/0 station.”

14.

A client with PPROM reports “a constant trickle.” Which test result most strongly supports amniotic fluid on microscopy?

a)

Ferning pattern present

b)

Elevated WBC count alone

c)

Fetal fibronectin positive

d)

Cervical length 4.5 cm

15.

A nurse is evaluating a contraction pattern. Which finding meets tachysystole criteria?

a)

5 contractions in 10 minutes with adequate resting tone

b)

4 contractions in 10 minutes with late decelerations

c)

6 contractions in 10 minutes, averaged over 30 minutes

d)

2 contractions in 10 minutes with strong intensity

16.

A nurse sees early decelerations that mirror contractions with moderate variability. What is the appropriate action?

a)

Continue routine care and document findings

b)

Administer a 500 mL IV fluid bolus

c)

Stop oxytocin and notify the provider urgently

d)

Apply 10–12 L O2 via non-rebreather immediately

17.

Which finding is the best indicator of fetal well-being on an EFM strip?

a)

Recurrent early decelerations

b)

Moderate baseline variability

c)

Baseline 110 exactly

d)

Absence of accelerations for 20 minutes

18.

A fetus has tachycardia 170 for 12 minutes. Which maternal condition is the nurse most suspicious of?

a)

Maternal hypothermia

b)

Maternal bradycardia

c)

Intraamniotic infection

d)

Rapid fetal descent at crowning

19.

A client has variable decelerations and oligohydramnios. Which intervention may be prescribed to reduce cord compression?

a)

Amnioinfusion

b)

Dinoprostone cervical ripening

c)

Fundal massage

d)

Trendelenburg positioning only

20.

A nurse is preparing to place an internal monitor. Which device directly measures uterine contraction intensity and resting tone numerically?

a)

IUPC

b)

External tocodynamometer

c)

Doppler ultrasound only

d)

Fetal scalp electrode

21.

Which statement about fetal scalp electrode (FSE) placement is accurate?

a)

It measures contraction intensity directly

b)

It provides continuous fetal ECG-like heart rate tracing

c)

It is the first-line tool for low-risk labor

d)

It replaces the need to palpate contractions

22.

A nurse reviews an EFM strip: baseline 100 for 15 minutes. Which interpretation is most accurate?

a)

Fetal bradycardia baseline change is present

b)

Normal baseline with sleep cycle

c)

Category I by definition

d)

Expected response to maternal pushing only

23.

The nurse recognizes Category I fetal heart tracing includes which deceleration type?

a)

Variable decelerations only

b)

Late decelerations only

c)

Early decelerations may be present

d)

Prolonged decelerations are expected

24.

A provider plans amniotomy. Which assessment is highest priority before the procedure?

a)

Determine if the presenting part is engaged

b)

Ask about nausea and heartburn

c)

Confirm the client last ate solid food

d)

Obtain a postpartum hemorrhage history

25.

A client with minimal variability and no accelerations is suspected to be in a fetal sleep cycle. What is the best nursing action first?

a)

Initiate an emergent C-section

b)

Continue monitoring and consider gentle stimulation per protocol

c)

Administer magnesium sulfate

d)

Turn off oxytocin even if not infusing

26.

Which complication is most associated with vacuum extraction or forceps that can later contribute to newborn jaundice?

a)

Bruising/hematoma leading to increased bilirubin

b)

Meconium aspiration syndrome

c)

Neural tube defect

d)

Necrotizing enterocolitis

27.

A client’s membranes ruptured and the fluid is thick, chunky green. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Document and continue routine care only

b)

Perform fetal scalp stimulation immediately

c)

Increase oxytocin to expedite delivery

d)

Notify the neonatal resuscitation team and prepare for newborn support

28.

Which statement best differentiates induction from augmentation?

a)

Induction strengthens contractions already present; augmentation starts labor

b)

Induction starts labor; augmentation improves an ineffective labor pattern

c)

Both terms mean the same thing clinically

d)

Augmentation is only mechanical; induction is only medication

29.

A nurse suspects uterine rupture during a TOLAC (trial of labor after cesarean). Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Gradual increase in contraction strength

b)

Mild fetal tachycardia for 5 minutes

c)

Intermittent early decelerations

d)

Sudden severe abdominal pain with abnormal FHR and loss of station

30.

A client is being screened at 36 weeks. Which test is the standard routine screen in late pregnancy relevant to intrapartum care?

a)

Group B Streptococcus (GBS) culture

b)

Quad screen

c)

Amniocentesis for karyotype

d)

Newborn bilirubin level

31.

A nurse sees recurrent late decelerations. After repositioning and IV fluid bolus, they persist. What is the next best action?

a)

Turn off oxytocin (if infusing) and notify provider

b)

Perform Leopold maneuvers

c)

Encourage the client to hold breath and push through contractions

d)

Begin amniotomy to speed delivery

32.

The nurse is choosing pain management. Which is an expected complication of epidural anesthesia that can affect fetal status?

a)

Maternal hypotension causing decreased placental perfusion

b)

Maternal hyperthermia causing bradycardia

c)

Increased uterine tone causing more oxygen delivery

d)

Immediate placental abruption in all clients

33.

A client is in the first stage of labor and asks why the fetus has “less breathing movements.” Which response is best?

a)

“The fetus stops breathing completely once labor starts.”

b)

“Labor can temporarily reduce fetal breathing movements as part of normal adaptation.”

c)

“It means the fetus is acidotic and needs delivery now.”

d)

“It only happens in breech presentations.”

34.

A provider orders fetal fibronectin (fFN). Which client statement would require the nurse to notify the provider before collecting the specimen?

a)

“I urinated 30 minutes ago.”

b)

“I ate breakfast an hour ago.”

c)

“I had intercourse last night.”

d)

“I feel the baby move a lot today.”

35.

Which finding is most consistent with true labor rather than false labor?

a)

Contractions stop with hydration and position change

b)

Cervical change occurs with regular contractions

c)

Discomfort only in the lower abdomen without pattern

d)

Contractions are irregular and do not intensify

36.

A client is in active labor. Which assessment finding best supports active phase rather than latent phase?

a)

Cervix 1 cm, irregular contractions

b)

Cervix 3 cm, contractions every 10 minutes

c)

Cervix 9 cm, urge to push

d)

Cervix 6 cm with contractions becoming stronger and more regular

37.

A nurse uses Leopold maneuvers primarily to determine which information?

a)

Fetal lie, presentation, and position (including where the back is)

b)

Placental maturity grading

c)

Estimated fetal lung maturity

d)

Umbilical cord pH

38.

A nurse identifies a sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern lasting over 20 minutes. What is the priority interpretation?

a)

Benign head compression

b)

Maternal dehydration only

c)

Severe fetal anemia/hemorrhage risk—emergent situation

d)

Fetal sleep cycle—reassess in an hour

39.

Which nursing action is contraindicated during an active deceleration episode when considering fetal scalp stimulation?

a)

Avoid scalp stimulation because it may worsen vagal response during decels

b)

Provide a small fluid bolus

c)

Reposition the client

d)

Reduce uterine stimulation if present

40.

A client has PPROM at 33 weeks. What is the priority nursing focus?

a)

Frequent vaginal exams to trend dilation

b)

Preventing ascending infection and monitoring for cord compression

c)

Immediate induction with oxytocin in all cases

d)

Discharge home without follow-up if afebrile

41.

A client with suspected intraamniotic infection has a fever and uterine tenderness. What is the primary treatment?

a)

IV antibiotics as prescribed

b)

Continuous oxygen at 12 L NRB

c)

Strict bed rest only

d)

Tocolytics to stop labor indefinitely

42.

A client is attempting VBAC. Which criterion is most important for safety?

a)

Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision

b)

No access to emergency surgical team

c)

Prior uterine rupture history

d)

Prior low transverse uterine incision with ability for emergency C-section

43.

A fetus develops recurrent variables after rupture of membranes. Which mechanism best explains the change?

a)

Loss of cushioning increases cord compression risk

b)

Increased fetal breathing movements cause decels

c)

Maternal hyperventilation causes placental insufficiency

d)

Fetal scalp electrode placement causes lates

44.

Which fetal presentation is most associated with increased risk of cord prolapse after amniotomy if the head is high?

a)

Vertex, engaged

b)

Breech or unengaged presenting part

c)

Occiput anterior at +2 station

d)

Fully crowned vertex

45.

A nurse is teaching about stages of labor. Which statement is correct?

a)

Second stage begins at 8 cm

b)

Third stage is from 10 cm to birth

c)

Second stage is from full dilation to birth of the baby

d)

Fourth stage is the week after delivery

46.

A nurse assesses postpartum recovery (fourth stage). Which finding requires the most immediate action?

a)

Firm fundus at midline

b)

Lochia rubra moderate

c)

Bladder distention with boggy fundus

d)

Mild perineal soreness

47.

Which newborn care action is priority in the first minutes after birth?

a)

Thermoregulation and airway/respiratory support assessment

b)

Teaching about contraception

c)

Delaying assessment until the placenta delivers

d)

Bathing the newborn before drying

48.

A nurse is assessing a strip with baseline 165 for 12 minutes. Which is the correct interpretation?

a)

Normal baseline

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Tachycardia baseline change

d)

Sinusoidal pattern

49.

A client’s EFM shows Category II tracing with intermittent variables and moderate variability. What is the best nursing approach?

a)

Continue close observation and implement intrauterine resuscitation as needed

b)

Label as Category I because variability is moderate

c)

Call for immediate emergent delivery without interventions

d)

Discontinue all monitoring because it is indeterminate

50.

Which fetal adaptation contributes to “molding” during labor?

a)

Placental separation

b)

Overlapping of fetal skull bones to fit the birth canal

c)

Umbilical cord shortening

d)

Increased fetal urine output

51.

A nurse notes late decelerations and suspects uteroplacental insufficiency. Which maternal condition most strongly supports this cause?

a)

Maternal hypertension

b)

Maternal seasonal allergies

c)

Maternal mild nausea

d)

Maternal low back ache only

52.

A client on oxytocin develops tachysystole. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Place the client supine to reduce movement

b)

Perform an amniotomy

c)

Increase oxytocin to overcome a dysfunctional pattern

d)

Decrease or discontinue the oxytocin infusion per protocol

53.

When using oxygen for intrauterine resuscitation, which nursing principle is most current evidence-based practice?

a)

Oxygen is always the first step for any abnormal tracing

b)

Use oxygen selectively and after other corrective measures

c)

Use 2 L nasal cannula continuously throughout labor

d)

Oxygen is contraindicated in all labor clients

54.

Which diagnostic test is primarily used to assess fetal well-being by observing accelerations with fetal movement in a set time?

a)

NST

b)

Amniocentesis

c)

Glucose tolerance test

d)

Pap smear

55.

A nonreactive NST is followed by which next test most commonly?

a)

Maternal serum AFP

b)

Biophysical profile (BPP)

c)

Cervical length ultrasound only

d)

Fern test

56.

A contraction stress test (CST) is designed to evaluate fetal response to:

a)

Maternal hydration status

b)

Fetal breathing movements only

c)

Uterine contractions (spontaneous or stimulated)

d)

Maternal glucose levels

57.

During second stage pushing, when should the nurse coach the client to push for maximal effectiveness?

a)

The moment the contraction starts

b)

Only between contractions

c)

Immediately after the contraction ends

d)

Near the peak of the contraction

58.

Which statement about operative vaginal delivery is most accurate?

a)

It eliminates the need for maternal pushing

b)

It is used only in the first stage of labor

c)

It is always safer than cesarean delivery

d)

It can cause neonatal bruising/trauma and requires neonatal team readiness

59.

Which medication is commonly used as a tocolytic in tachysystole management?

a)

Terbutaline

b)

Naloxone

c)

Dinoprostone

d)

Oxytocin

60.

A nurse caring for a client in labor documents “station +1.” What does this indicate?

a)

Presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines

b)

Presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines

c)

Presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines

d)

Presenting part is crowning

61.

The nurse is preparing for VBAC counseling. Which client statement shows correct understanding?

a)

“If I had a classical incision, VBAC is usually preferred.”

b)

“My hospital must be able to do an emergency C-section if needed.”

c)

“Uterine rupture can’t happen once I’m in labor.”

d)

“Continuous fetal monitoring isn’t needed during VBAC.”

62.

A client in labor has recurrent variables despite repositioning. The provider orders amnioinfusion. Which nursing assessment is most important during the infusion?

a)

Ensure adequate fluid return to avoid uterine overdistention

b)

Encourage the client to ambulate continuously

c)

Turn off all fetal monitoring to prevent artifact

d)

Administer dinoprostone concurrently

63.

A nurse suspects abruptio placentae. Which finding is most concerning?

a)

Painless bright red bleeding with soft uterus

b)

Sudden abdominal pain with a rigid/tender uterus and fetal distress

c)

Clear amniotic fluid with ferning

d)

Gradual cervical dilation with regular contractions

64.

A client with suspected fetal demise asks what happens next. What is the priority nursing response?

a)

Provide emotional support and discuss grief/loss resources while coordinating care

b)

Avoid discussing the situation until the provider arrives

c)

Tell the client to focus on future pregnancies only

d)

Immediately discharge the client home for privacy

65.

A client in preterm labor is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which fetal benefit is most associated with magnesium in early preterm labor?

a)

Neuroprotection to reduce risk of neurologic injury

b)

Prevents all neonatal jaundice

c)

Eliminates need for corticosteroids

d)

Increases fetal heart baseline variability permanently

66.

A client receives nifedipine for preterm labor. The nurse explains it helps because it:

a)

Increases uterine contractions

b)

Is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes uterine muscle

c)

Is a narcotic that reduces pain perception only

d)

Is an antibiotic that treats GBS

67.

Which assessment best supports Category I tracing?

a)

Baseline 105 for 12 minutes

b)

Recurrent late decelerations with minimal variability

c)

Baseline 140 with moderate variability and no late/variable decelerations

d)

Sinusoidal pattern

68.

A client has recurrent late decelerations and absent variability. What is the best nursing expectation?

a)

Continue oxytocin and recheck in 2 hours

b)

This is Category II; observe only

c)

Provide only comfort measures

d)

Prepare for immediate intervention/emergent delivery

69.

A nurse is assessing fetal presentation. Which is the most desirable position for vaginal birth?

a)

Vertex/cephalic with occiput anterior

b)

Face presentation mentum posterior

c)

Breech frank with extended legs

d)

Transverse lie

70.

Which breech type involves hips flexed and knees extended (feet near head)?

a)

Complete breech

b)

Footling breech

c)

Frank breech

d)

Kneeling breech

71.

A nurse recognizes “placental insufficiency” is most linked to which FHR change pattern?

a)

Early decelerations

b)

Late decelerations

c)

Accelerations

d)

Moderate variability

72.

A client has meconium-stained fluid. Which newborn outcome is the nurse most concerned about if the infant is depressed at birth?

a)

Meconium aspiration leading to respiratory distress

b)

Hyperglycemia from steroids

c)

Shoulder dystocia

d)

Cord prolapse

73.

Which maternal finding most increases risk for chorioamnionitis?

a)

Prolonged rupture of membranes with frequent vaginal exams

b)

Mild morning sickness

c)

Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions

d)

Early epidural placement at 1 cm

74.

Which maternal sign supports intraamniotic infection requiring escalation?

a)

Temperature 98.6°F (37°C) once

b)

Uterine tenderness and fever with foul-smelling/purulent fluid

c)

Clear fluid with no odor and normal vitals

d)

Increased appetite and thirst only

75.

A nurse prepares non-pharmacologic pain management. Which intervention is most appropriate during early labor?

a)

Breathing/relaxation techniques and position changes/ambulation

b)

Keep the client supine and restrict movement

c)

Continuous breath-holding pushing practice

d)

Avoid any education to reduce anxiety

76.

The nurse administers IV opioid analgesia in labor. Which medication must be available to reverse maternal/newborn respiratory depression?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Dinoprostone

d)

Naloxone

77.

A nurse assesses the “5 Powers” affecting labor. Which set correctly lists them?

a)

Passenger, Passageway, Powers, Position, Psyche

b)

Placenta, Pain, Pelvis, Pushing, Psychology

c)

Pressure, Presentation, Passage, Placenta, Pushing

d)

Posture, Pulse, Pain, Power, Placental flow

78.

Which sequence correctly matches key “cardinal movements” during vaginal birth (simplified)?

a)

Extension → engagement → restitution → crowning

b)

Engagement → descent → flexion → internal rotation → extension → external rotation

c)

Descent → extension → engagement → flexion → expulsion

d)

Internal rotation → engagement → descent → flexion

79.

A client in third stage of labor is at high risk for hemorrhage. Which routine medication is commonly administered after delivery to help the uterus contract?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Terbutaline

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Naloxone

80.

After cesarean delivery, which nursing action best reduces risk of postoperative complications like DVT?

a)

Keep the client on strict bed rest for 24 hours

b)

Encourage early ambulation as soon as safe and use SCDs

c)

Limit fluids to prevent edema

d)

Avoid pain control to prevent sedation

81.

A nurse is teaching about fetal heart rate baseline. Which range is considered normal?

a)

80–120

b)

90–140

c)

110–160

d)

120–180

82.

A client’s fetus has persistent bradycardia despite interventions. What is the nurse’s priority preparation?

a)

Prepare for emergency delivery

b)

Encourage the client to walk

c)

Administer dinoprostone

d)

Delay action until accelerations appear

83.

Which situation most increases risk for cord prolapse?

a)

Engaged vertex at +1 station

b)

Artificial rupture of membranes with a high, unengaged presenting part

c)

Spontaneous rupture at crowning

d)

Full dilation with occiput anterior

84.

The nurse identifies a client has “dysfunctional labor.” Which description best fits?

a)

Contractions are effective and cause progressive dilation

b)

Cervical change occurs rapidly with descent

c)

Contractions are ineffective with minimal progress in dilation/descent

d)

Labor begins and ends within 2 hours

85.

A nurse is preparing dinoprostone. What is the primary indication in intrapartum care?

a)

Treat postpartum hemorrhage

b)

Stop uterine contractions

c)

Reverse opioid effects

d)

Cervical ripening for induction of labor

86.

Which finding suggests a non-reassuring fetal status that may require operative intervention if unresolved?

a)

Moderate variability with accelerations

b)

Absent variability with recurrent lates/prolonged decels

c)

Early decelerations during pushing

d)

Baseline 140 with no decelerations

87.

A nurse is evaluating fetal presentation and finds a transverse lie late in pregnancy. What delivery plan is most likely?

a)

Planned vaginal delivery without concern

b)

Trial of labor with amniotomy early

c)

Cesarean delivery if not corrected

d)

Forceps delivery

88.

A nurse is reviewing fetal assessment during labor. Which uterine stimulant is considered high-alert and requires careful titration?

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Ferrous sulfate

89.

A client in labor has variable decelerations. Which cause is most consistent?

a)

Maternal fever

b)

Umbilical cord compression

c)

Fetal head compression

d)

Placental insufficiency

90.

A nurse is assisting with a cord prolapse emergency. Which action must be avoided?

a)

Keeping the presenting part elevated off the cord

b)

Calling for immediate help and rapid response

c)

Pinching or applying pressure to the umbilical cord

d)

Positioning to reduce compression while maintaining manual elevation

91.

A nurse is assessing fetal station. The presenting part is at the ischial spines. How is this documented?

a)

0 station

b)

+3 station

c)

–3 station

d)

+1 station

92.

Which labor pain management method is categorized as regional anesthesia/analgesia?

a)

Local perineal infiltration only

b)

Nitrous oxide inhalation

c)

Epidural anesthesia

d)

IV opioid push

93.

A client has PPROM. Which assessment finding suggests infection and requires prompt notification?

a)

Clear, odorless fluid and normal vitals

b)

Increased fetal movement and baseline 140

c)

Mild back ache relieved by rest

d)

Maternal fever with uterine tenderness and foul-smelling fluid

94.

Which labor process complication is MOST likely to cause sudden, persistent fetal bradycardia?

a)

Fetal hiccups

b)

Cord prolapse

c)

Normal fetal sleep cycle

d)

Early decelerations from head compression

95.

A nurse assesses Category III fetal tracing. Which component is required for Category III?

a)

Absent variability with recurrent late/variable decelerations or bradycardia, OR sinusoidal pattern

b)

Moderate variability with occasional variables

c)

Baseline 110–160 with accelerations

d)

Early decelerations with each contraction

96.

A nurse is teaching about intermittent auscultation vs electronic fetal monitoring (EFM). Which statement is accurate?

a)

Intermittent auscultation provides continuous contraction intensity values

b)

EFM provides ongoing tracing to evaluate baseline, variability, and decelerations

c)

Intermittent auscultation is preferred for all high-risk clients on oxytocin

d)

EFM eliminates the need for any clinical assessment

97.

A client’s fetus has minimal variability. Which is a common reason for loss of variability the nurse should consider first?

a)

Fetal sleep cycle

b)

Placental abruption always

c)

Shoulder dystocia

d)

Uterine rupture always

98.

A nurse is prioritizing intrauterine resuscitation actions. Which sequence best reflects correct prioritization when abnormal tracing occurs?

a)

Oxygen -> amnioinfusion -> reposition -> fluids

b)

Fluids -> oxygen -> keep oxytocin running -> reposition

c)

Reposition -> fluid bolus -> reduce uterine stimulation -> oxygen as last resort

d)

Fetal scalp stimulation during late decels -> oxygen -> call provider