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A&P I Midterm Practice

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define anatomy.

a)

Study of body functions

b)

Study of body structure

c)

Study of disease processes

d)

Study of drug interactions

2.

Define physiology.

a)

Study of body structure

b)

Study of body functions

c)

Study of body cavities

d)

Study of genetic inheritance

3.

Which statement best explains the difference between anatomy and physiology?

a)

Anatomy focuses on structure, whereas physiology focuses on function.

b)

Anatomy focuses on function, whereas physiology focuses on structure.

c)

Both anatomy and physiology focus on chemical reactions only.

d)

Both anatomy and physiology focus exclusively on body planes.

4.

Which option correctly lists the biological levels of organization from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ system → Organism

b)

Atom → Molecule → Organ → Organ system → Organism

c)

Tissue → Cell → Organ system → Organ → Organism

d)

Organ → Tissue → Cell → Organ system → Organism

5.

How many organ systems are typically recognized in the human body?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

6.

Homeostasis is best defined as which of the following?

a)

The amplification of change to reach a new state

b)

The maintenance of a stable internal environment despite external changes

c)

The random fluctuation of physiological variables

d)

The process of cell division during growth

7.

Why is homeostasis important for survival?

a)

It prevents any change from occurring in the body.

b)

It maintains internal conditions within ranges that permit normal cellular function.

c)

It accelerates aging to adapt faster.

d)

It eliminates the need for organ systems to coordinate.

8.

Which definition of negative feedback is most accurate?

a)

A mechanism that amplifies a change away from a set point

b)

A mechanism that counteracts a deviation to restore a set point

c)

A mechanism that operates only during growth

d)

A mechanism that relies solely on hormones

9.

Which definition of positive feedback is most accurate?

a)

A mechanism that diminishes the initial stimulus

b)

A mechanism that amplifies the initial stimulus to drive a process to completion

c)

A mechanism that prevents any response

d)

A mechanism that restores a set point after small deviations

10.

In a feedback loop, which sequence correctly identifies the roles of stimulus, control center, and response?

a)

Control center detects change; stimulus sends commands; response measures variables.

b)

Stimulus triggers change; control center processes information and directs effectors; response is the effectors’ action.

c)

Response occurs first; stimulus follows; control center maintains the outcome.

d)

Stimulus and response are identical processes controlled by effectors.

11.

Identify whether each situation represents negative or positive feedback: body temperature regulation, blood sugar regulation, and childbirth.

a)

Body temperature regulation

1.

Negative feedback

b)

Blood sugar regulation

2.

Negative feedback

c)

Childbirth

3.

Positive feedback

12.

Which features are included in the standard anatomical position? Select all that apply.

a)

Standing upright

b)

Palms facing posterior

c)

Arms at the sides

d)

Head and eyes facing forward

e)

Feet together with toes pointing forward

13.

Why is using the anatomical position important when describing the body?

a)

It allows consistent, universal reference for directional terms and relationships.

b)

It ensures every person is measured the same height.

c)

It identifies disease severity uniformly.

d)

It replaces the need for imaging studies.

14.

Match each directional term pair to the correct relationship.

a)

Anterior vs. posterior

1.

Front vs. back

b)

Superior vs. inferior

2.

Above vs. below

c)

Medial vs. lateral

3.

Toward midline vs. away from midline

d)

Proximal vs. distal

4.

Near point of attachment vs. farther from point of attachment

e)

Deep vs. superficial

5.

Far beneath surface vs. near surface

15.

Which plane divides the body into right and left portions?

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Frontal (coronal) plane

c)

Transverse plane

d)

Oblique plane

16.

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Frontal (coronal) plane

c)

Transverse plane

d)

Median plane

17.

Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions?

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Frontal (coronal) plane

c)

Transverse plane

d)

Midsagittal plane

18.

Which statement correctly identifies the dorsal body cavity and its major subdivisions?

a)

Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

b)

Cranial and vertebral cavities

c)

Pleural and pericardial cavities

d)

Oral and nasal cavities

19.

Which statement correctly identifies the ventral body cavity and its major subdivisions?

a)

Cranial and vertebral cavities

b)

Thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

c)

Pelvic and cranial cavities

d)

Mediastinum and vertebral cavities

20.

Match each organ to the primary body cavity in which it is located.

a)

Brain

1.

Cranial cavity

b)

Lungs

2.

Thoracic cavity

c)

Stomach

3.

Abdominal cavity

d)

Spinal cord

4.

Vertebral (spinal) cavity

21.

What is the role of the diaphragm in relation to the body cavities?

a)

It separates the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities and functions in respiration.

b)

It separates the cranial and vertebral cavities and aids digestion.

c)

It divides the abdominal cavity into quadrants and controls heart rate.

d)

It partitions the mediastinum and increases blood pressure.

22.

Which bone type is best represented by the femur?

a)

Short bone

b)

Long bone

c)

Flat bone

d)

Irregular bone

23.

Which bone type is best represented by the carpals?

a)

Long bone

b)

Flat bone

c)

Short bone

d)

Sesamoid bone

24.

Which bone type is best represented by the sternum?

a)

Flat bone

b)

Long bone

c)

Irregular bone

d)

Sesamoid bone

25.

Which bone type is best represented by the vertebrae?

a)

Long bone

b)

Short bone

c)

Flat bone

d)

Irregular bone

26.

Which bone type is best represented by the patella?

a)

Irregular bone

b)

Short bone

c)

Sesamoid bone

d)

Flat bone

27.

Match each bone cell to its primary function.

a)

Osteoblast

1.

Builds bone matrix

b)

Osteoclast

2.

Resorbs (breaks down) bone

c)

Osteocyte

3.

Maintains bone tissue and monitors strain

28.

What is ossification?

a)

Breakdown of bone by osteoclasts

b)

Formation of bone tissue, often replacing cartilage during development

c)

Conversion of bone to cartilage

d)

Mineral loss from bone due to aging

29.

Transverse lines visible in long bones most commonly indicate which of the following?

a)

Sites of muscle attachment

b)

Growth arrest (Harris) lines from periods of physiological stress

c)

Healed spiral fractures

d)

Areas of excessive osteoblast activity causing bone spurs

30.

Match each long bone structure to its function.

a)

Epiphysis

1.

Ends of long bones; spongy bone with red marrow

b)

Diaphysis

2.

Shaft of a long bone; compact bone for support

c)

Periosteum

3.

Fibrous membrane covering bone; houses vessels and osteogenic cells

d)

Medullary cavity

4.

Central cavity containing yellow marrow (fat storage) in adults

31.

Define the axial skeleton and identify which major body regions it includes.

a)

The skeleton of the limbs, including the pectoral and pelvic girdles

b)

The central skeleton consisting of the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

c)

The cartilage framework supporting joints throughout the body

d)

The bone structures of the hands and feet only

32.

Define the appendicular skeleton and identify its main components.

a)

Bones of the skull and vertebral column

b)

Bones of the ribs and sternum

c)

Bones of the limbs and the pectoral and pelvic girdles

d)

Bones of the inner ear and facial region

33.

Sort each bone into the correct skeleton group: femur, sternum, humerus, vertebrae.

a)

Femur

1.

Appendicular skeleton

b)

Sternum

2.

Axial skeleton

c)

Humerus

3.

Appendicular skeleton

d)

Vertebrae

4.

Axial skeleton

34.

Identify the regions of the vertebral column by correct order from superior to inferior.

a)

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal

b)

Thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, sacral

c)

Lumbar, thoracic, cervical, sacral, coccygeal

d)

Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccygeal

35.

Identify true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs based on their attachment to the sternum.

a)

True ribs attach indirectly to the sternum, false ribs attach directly, floating ribs have costal cartilage only

b)

True ribs attach directly to the sternum, false ribs attach indirectly via costal cartilage, floating ribs do not attach to the sternum

c)

True ribs do not attach to the sternum, false ribs attach directly, floating ribs attach via costal cartilage

d)

True ribs attach via vertebrae only, false ribs via sternum only, floating ribs via both

36.

State how many bones are in the adult human body.

a)

196

b)

206

c)

216

d)

226

37.

Apply movement terms: which option best describes abduction at the shoulder joint?

a)

Moving the arm away from the midline of the body

b)

Bending the elbow to decrease the angle between forearm and arm

c)

Moving the arm toward the midline of the body

d)

Extending the knee to increase the angle between thigh and leg

38.

Apply movement terms: which option best describes adduction at the hip joint?

a)

Moving the thigh away from the midline

b)

Moving the thigh toward the midline

c)

Bending the thigh to decrease joint angle

d)

Moving the thigh beyond its normal extension range

39.

Apply movement terms: which option best describes hyperextension at the neck?

a)

Flexing the neck forward

b)

Extending the neck backward beyond anatomical position

c)

Rotating the neck to the right

d)

Abducting the neck away from midline

40.

Differentiate connective tissues: tendons primarily connect which structures?

a)

Bone to bone

b)

Muscle to bone

c)

Bone to cartilage

d)

Muscle to muscle

41.

Differentiate connective tissues: ligaments primarily connect which structures?

a)

Bone to bone

b)

Muscle to bone

c)

Muscle to muscle

d)

Cartilage to bone

42.

Differentiate connective tissues: which statement best describes cartilage?

a)

Dense fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones

b)

Elastic tissue that connects bones to other bones

c)

Smooth, supportive tissue providing cushioning at joints

d)

Calcified tissue composing the vertebral bodies

43.

Compare muscle tissue types: which muscle type is voluntary and striated?

a)

Smooth muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Skeletal muscle

d)

Visceral muscle

44.

Compare muscle tissue types: which muscle type is involuntary and striated?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Ligament tissue

45.

Compare muscle tissue types: which muscle type is involuntary and non-striated?

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Tendon tissue

46.

Define key muscle structures: what is the sarcomere?

a)

A connective tissue sheath surrounding a muscle fiber

b)

The functional contractile unit between Z-discs within a myofibril

c)

A nerve terminal that releases acetylcholine

d)

The entire muscle organ

47.

Define key muscle structures: actin is best described as which component?

a)

Thick filament that forms cross-bridges

b)

Thin filament that interacts with myosin during contraction

c)

Elastic filament that forms the Z-disc

d)

Membrane channel for sodium

48.

Define key muscle structures: myosin is best described as which component?

a)

Thin filament within the I-band

b)

Thick filament whose heads form cross-bridges with actin

c)

Protein forming the Z-disc

d)

Neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction

49.

Identify the function of the Z-disc.

a)

Anchors thin filaments and defines sarcomere boundaries

b)

Region containing thick filaments only

c)

Central area where only thin filaments are present

d)

Membrane that propagates action potentials

50.

Identify the band that contains overlapping thick and thin filaments.

a)

I-band

b)

A-band

c)

H-zone

d)

Z-disc

51.

Identify the region of the sarcomere composed of thick filaments only (no thin filaments).

a)

I-band

b)

A-band

c)

H-zone

d)

Z-disc

52.

Explain what causes muscle striations.

a)

Random distribution of mitochondria

b)

Alternating arrangement of A-bands and I-bands in myofibrils

c)

Presence of adipose tissue between fibers

d)

Irregular spacing of nuclei in muscle fibers

53.

Sliding filament theory: how do actin and myosin interact during contraction?

a)

Actin and myosin repel each other, lengthening the sarcomere

b)

Myosin heads form cross-bridges and pull actin toward the M-line, shortening the sarcomere

c)

Actin dissolves and is replaced by myosin, stiffening the muscle

d)

Myosin remains fixed while actin rotates out of the sarcomere

54.

Identify the role of acetylcholine in muscle contraction.

a)

Hormone that increases bone density

b)

Neurotransmitter that initiates muscle fiber depolarization at the neuromuscular junction

c)

Enzyme that breaks down ATP in the mitochondria

d)

Protein that anchors thick filaments

55.

Identify the three macronutrients referenced and choose the correct set.

a)

Vitamins, minerals, water

b)

Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids

c)

Nucleic acids, proteins, minerals

d)

Fiber, water, electrolytes

56.

Match each macronutrient to its primary monomer or building block: carbohydrates, proteins, lipids.

a)

Carbohydrates

1.

Monosaccharides (e.g., glucose)

b)

Proteins

2.

Amino acids

c)

Lipids

3.

Fatty acids and glycerol

57.

Identify the main function of each macronutrient: carbohydrates, proteins, lipids.

a)

Carbohydrates

1.

Primary source of quick energy

b)

Proteins

2.

Structural components and enzymes; growth and repair

c)

Lipids

3.

Long-term energy storage and membrane structure

58.

Written response preparation topic: muscle fatigue. Which choice best explains a common physiological cause of acute muscle fatigue during intense activity?

a)

Excess oxygen binding to hemoglobin prevents delivery to muscle

b)

Depletion of ATP reserves and accumulation of metabolic byproducts such as inorganic phosphate

c)

Sudden increase in bone density reduces joint mobility

d)

Complete denervation of the muscle

59.

Written response preparation topic: anabolic steroids. Which statement best describes a risk associated with non-medical anabolic steroid use?

a)

Improved liver function and reduced blood pressure

b)

Increased risk of liver toxicity, hormonal imbalance, and cardiovascular complications

c)

Permanent increase in bone marrow production without side effects

d)

Enhanced immune function with no metabolic changes

60.

Final self-check: identify a correct use of directional anatomical terminology in a sentence.

a)

The heart is distal to the elbow

b)

The patella is proximal to the hip

c)

The sternum is anterior to the heart

d)

The vertebral column is superficial to the skin