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WorksheetsA&P II Midterm Review
Total questions: 67
Worksheet time: 35mins
State how many organ systems are in the human body.
10 organ systems
11 organ systems
12 organ systems
13 organ systems
Define anatomy.
Study of the functions of body parts
Study of the structure and organization of body parts
Study of disease processes
Study of chemical reactions in cells
Define physiology.
Study of the structure of tissues
Study of the functions of body parts and how they work
Study of hereditary traits
Study of external body landmarks
Explain the difference between anatomy and physiology.
Anatomy studies function; physiology studies structure
Anatomy studies structure; physiology studies function
Anatomy and physiology both study only cells
Anatomy and physiology are different names for pathology
Choose the correct order of levels of organization in the human body from smallest to largest.
Atom → molecule → cell → tissue → organ → organ system → organism
Molecule → atom → tissue → organ → cell → organ system → organism
Cell → atom → molecule → tissue → organ → organism → organ system
Atom → cell → molecule → tissue → organ system → organ → organism
Match each organ system to a basic function.
Integumentary
Protects body, helps regulate temperature, prevents water loss
Skeletal
Provides support and protection; stores minerals
Muscular
Produces movement and heat
Cardiovascular
Transports gases, nutrients, wastes, and hormones
Respiratory
Exchanges gases to supply oxygen and remove carbon dioxide
Define homeostasis.
Maintenance of a stable internal environment despite external changes
Process of breaking down food to release energy
Ability of an organism to reproduce
Increase in body mass over time
Explain why homeostasis is necessary for survival.
It allows cells to function optimally by keeping internal conditions within narrow limits
It maximizes growth rate regardless of environmental conditions
It ensures pathogens are eliminated without immune responses
It prevents any change in body temperature under all circumstances
Define negative feedback.
A response that amplifies the original stimulus
A response that opposes and reduces the original stimulus to restore normal conditions
A response that is unrelated to the original stimulus
A response that permanently shuts down the controlled variable
Define positive feedback.
A response that reduces the original stimulus to restore balance
A response that increases and reinforces the original stimulus
A response that has no effect on the original stimulus
A response that always lowers body temperature
Select the examples that typically operate by negative feedback.
Thermoregulation of body temperature
Blood sugar regulation by insulin and glucagon
Hormone release during childbirth
Platelet activation during blood clotting
Choose the accurate statements about feedback mechanisms.
Negative feedback restores the body to normal by counteracting change
Positive feedback increases the original stimulus
Negative feedback always leads to runaway processes
Positive feedback is primarily used for long-term homeostasis
Identify the correct description of the anatomical position.
Body standing upright, facing forward, feet together, arms at sides, palms facing forward
Body lying prone, head turned left, knees bent, palms facing thighs
Body standing upright, arms crossed over chest, palms facing thighs
Body sitting with legs extended, palms facing backward
Explain why the anatomical position is important.
It standardizes reference for directions and locations on the body
It optimizes athletic performance
It prevents injury during medical procedures
It eliminates the need for directional terminology
Match directional terms to their correct meaning.
Anterior
Toward the front of the body
Posterior
Toward the back of the body
Superior
Above; toward the head
Inferior
Below; away from the head
Match directional terms to their correct meaning.
Medial
Toward the midline
Lateral
Away from the midline
Proximal
Closer to the point of attachment or origin
Distal
Farther from the point of attachment or origin
Distinguish between simple and stratified epithelium.
Simple epithelium has one cell layer; stratified epithelium has multiple layers
Simple epithelium has multiple layers; stratified epithelium has one layer
Both have the same number of cell layers
Neither has organized layers
Distinguish between stratified and pseudostratified epithelium.
Stratified epithelium appears layered because nuclei are at different heights but all cells contact the basement membrane
Pseudostratified epithelium has multiple true layers with only basal cells contacting the basement membrane
Stratified epithelium has one cell layer; pseudostratified has two
Pseudostratified epithelium appears layered but all cells contact the basement membrane
Identify the epithelial tissue type characterized by thin, flat cells adapted for diffusion.
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Identify the epithelial tissue type that is suited for secretion and absorption in glands and kidney tubules.
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Identify the epithelial tissue type that protects against abrasion in the skin and oral cavity.
Simple columnar epithelium
Stratified squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Identify the epithelial tissue type that lines much of the respiratory tract and moves mucus via cilia.
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Identify the epithelial tissue type that stretches to accommodate fluctuations in bladder volume.
Transitional epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Match connective tissue types to characteristic features.
Adipose
Stores energy in fat cells; cushions organs
Dense regular connective tissue
Collagen fibers aligned for tensile strength in tendons/ligaments
Hyaline cartilage
Smooth matrix with chondrocytes; supports with flexibility
Fibrocartilage
Thick collagen bundles; resists compression in intervertebral discs
Bone
Rigid, calcified matrix with osteocytes; supports and protects
Identify the connective tissue that is a fluid with cells suspended in plasma and functions in transport.
Elastic cartilage
Areolar (loose) connective tissue
Blood
Dense irregular connective tissue
Muscle Tissue — You should be able to identify: Which muscle tissue is striated and under voluntary control?
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Muscle Tissue — You should be able to identify: Which muscle tissue has intercalated discs and is found only in the heart?
Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Multiunit smooth muscle
Muscle Tissue — You should be able to identify: Which muscle tissue is non‑striated and controls movements such as peristalsis?
Skeletal muscle
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Fast‑twitch skeletal muscle
Nervous Tissue — You should be able to identify: What cell type is the basic signaling unit of nervous tissue?
Astrocyte
Neuron
Schwann cell
Microglial cell
Integumentary System — Skin Structure: What are the three main layers of the skin?
Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis
Stratum basale, stratum corneum, dermis
Epidermis, papillary layer, reticular layer
Dermis, endodermis, hypodermis
Integumentary System — Skin Structure: Arrange the epidermal layers in correct order from bottom to top.
Stratum corneum → stratum granulosum → stratum spinosum → stratum basale
Stratum basale → stratum spinosum → stratum granulosum → stratum corneum
Stratum spinosum → stratum basale → stratum granulosum → stratum corneum
Stratum granulosum → stratum basale → stratum spinosum → stratum corneum
Integumentary System — Skin Structure: Which epidermal layer(s) occur only in thick skin?
Stratum basale
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum
Skin Cells & Pigmentation: Which substance primarily determines normal skin color?
Keratin
Melanin
Collagen
Hemoglobin only
Skin Cells & Pigmentation: What is melanin and what is its role in the skin?
A lipid that waterproofs the skin
A pigment that protects against ultraviolet radiation
A carbohydrate that stores energy
A mineral that strengthens bones
Skin Cells & Pigmentation: Which epidermal cells are part of the immune response?
Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhans (dendritic) cells
Merkel cells
Skin Cells & Pigmentation: Which protein is found in skin, hair, and nails?
Elastin
Keratin
Collagen type II
Actin
Burns: Which description best matches a first‑degree burn?
Only epidermis damaged; redness and pain
Epidermis and part of dermis damaged; blisters
Full thickness burn through epidermis and dermis; often painless at site
Damage extends into muscle and bone
Burns: Which description best matches a second‑degree burn?
Only epidermis damaged; redness and pain
Epidermis and part of dermis damaged; blisters
Full thickness burn through epidermis and dermis; charred, dry
No tissue damage; temporary erythema
Burns: Which description best matches a third‑degree burn?
Only epidermis damaged; redness and pain
Epidermis and part of dermis damaged; blisters
Full thickness burn through epidermis and dermis; often requires grafting
Sunburn that peels
Burns: How does burn depth affect severity?
Deeper burns damage fewer structures and are less severe
Deeper burns increase fluid loss, infection risk, and functional loss
Depth has no effect; only total body surface area matters
Superficial burns are always more severe than deep burns
Burns: Why are third‑degree burns often fatal without prompt treatment?
They cause nerve hyperactivity leading to seizures
They lead to massive fluid loss and infection risk
They directly stop heart function
They always cause airway obstruction
Hair & Nails: Why do haircuts and nail trimming not cause pain?
Hair and nails lack blood vessels and are composed of dead, keratinized cells
Hair and nails are anesthetized by sebum
Pain receptors adapt quickly in hair and nails
Hair and nails are insulated by melanin
Hair & Nails: Why do fingernails and toenails appear pink even though the nail plate is transparent?
Reflection from the stratum corneum
Pigment in the nail matrix
Blood in the underlying vascular nail bed
Light scattering by keratin fibers
Skin Diagrams: When identifying structures on a skin diagram, which option correctly pairs a structure with its description?
Sebaceous gland
Secretes sebum into hair follicles
Hair follicle
Tubular invagination that produces hair
Epidermis
Keratinized stratified epithelial outer layer
Sweat (eccrine) gland
Coiled tubular gland for thermoregulatory sweat
Nervous System — Neurons & Neuroglia: Which parts of a neuron primarily receive input and conduct impulses toward the cell body?
Axon hillock
Dendrites
Axon terminals
Nodes of Ranvier
Nervous System — Neurons & Neuroglia: Which neuron type carries information from receptors to the CNS?
Motor (efferent) neuron
Interneuron
Sensory (afferent) neuron
Purkinje neuron
Nervous System — Neurons & Neuroglia: What is a primary function of neuroglial cells?
Generate action potentials
Provide support, insulation, and metabolic aid to neurons
Store neurotransmitters in muscle cells
Convert glucose directly to action potentials
Action Potentials: Which statement best defines an action potential?
A local, graded change in membrane potential proportional to stimulus strength
A brief, all‑or‑none reversal of membrane potential that propagates along an axon
A chemical change limited to the synaptic cleft
A permanent depolarization of the neuronal membrane
Action Potentials: On a standard action potential graph, which phase immediately follows depolarization?
Hyperpolarization
Repolarization
Resting potential
Threshold
Action Potentials: Which ions are primarily responsible for the rising (depolarization) phase of a neuronal action potential?
K+ efflux
Na+ influx
Cl− influx
Ca2+ influx
Action Potentials: Which statement correctly describes the all‑or‑none principle?
Action potentials vary in amplitude depending on stimulus strength
If threshold is reached, an action potential of fixed amplitude occurs
Larger stimuli create slower action potentials
Subthreshold stimuli create small action potentials
Action Potentials: What is the refractory period?
The time when the neuron is more excitable than normal
The interval during and after an action potential when another impulse is difficult or impossible
The resting interval between synaptic transmissions
The time required for neurotransmitter synthesis
Central & Peripheral Nervous Systems: Which choice correctly distinguishes the CNS from the PNS?
CNS includes brain and spinal cord; PNS includes cranial and spinal nerves
CNS includes somatic and autonomic divisions; PNS includes brain only
CNS includes sensory receptors; PNS includes interneurons only
CNS includes sympathetic division; PNS includes parasympathetic division
Central & Peripheral Nervous Systems: Which components belong to the PNS?
Brain and spinal cord
Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
Cerebrum and cerebellum
Thalamus and hypothalamus
Central & Peripheral Nervous Systems: Which statement best describes the difference between the somatic and autonomic nervous systems?
Somatic controls voluntary skeletal muscle; autonomic regulates involuntary smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
Somatic controls involuntary organs; autonomic controls voluntary movement
Somatic operates only during sleep; autonomic only during wakefulness
Somatic senses pain; autonomic senses temperature
Central & Peripheral Nervous Systems: Which response is characteristic of the sympathetic division compared to the parasympathetic division?
Decreases heart rate and constricts pupils
Increases heart rate and dilates pupils
Stimulates digestive activity strongly
Promotes lacrimation and salivation
Brain Structure & Function: Which lobe of the brain is primarily associated with visual processing?
Frontal lobe
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe
Occipital lobe
Brain Structure & Function: Which set lists the four lobes of the cerebrum?
Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital
Frontal, parietal, insular, limbic
Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem, spinal cord
Thalamus, hypothalamus, midbrain, pons
Brain Structure & Function: Which statement correctly pairs a major structure with a primary function?
Cerebrum
Higher cognition and voluntary movement planning
Cerebellum
Coordination, balance, and motor learning
Brain stem
Autonomic functions and basic cranial nerve reflexes
Spinal cord
Conduction pathway for ascending and descending tracts
Brain Structure & Function: What is a primary function of the cerebellum?
Language comprehension
Homeostatic regulation of thirst
Coordination of movements and balance
Long‑term memory consolidation
Brain Structure & Function: Which brain region set is most involved in breathing, balance, sleep, and hormone regulation?
Frontal lobe, hippocampus, amygdala, putamen
Medulla and pons; cerebellum; hypothalamus
Occipital cortex; caudate nucleus; pineal gland
Thalamus; corpus callosum; basal ganglia
Reflexes: Which statement best defines a reflex?
A voluntary response requiring cortical planning
An automatic, rapid response to a stimulus mediated by a neural pathway
A conscious motor program executed by the cerebrum
A behavior learned through repeated practice only
Reflexes: Which list correctly identifies the five parts of a somatic reflex arc?
Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector
Stimulus, brain, spinal cord, muscle, response
Receptor, interneuron, cerebrum, motor neuron, effector
Sensory neuron, thalamus, motor neuron, cerebellum, effector
Reflexes: In a simple patellar reflex, which option correctly identifies the stimulus and the response?
Stimulus: visual cue; Response: quadriceps contraction
Stimulus: stretch of the patellar tendon; Response: knee extension
Stimulus: heat on the skin; Response: withdrawal of the foot
Stimulus: sound; Response: finger flexion
Reflexes: Is the brain directly involved in generating a simple spinal reflex?
Yes; the motor cortex initiates it
No; integration occurs within the spinal cord
Yes; the cerebellum triggers it
Only during sleep
Reflexes: If a patient shows loss of the Achilles tendon reflex, which part of the reflex arc is most likely damaged?
Effector (gastrocnemius/soleus) muscle only
Motor neuron supplying the calf muscles
Visual cortex
Parietal lobe
Identify the basic parts of a homeostatic feedback mechanism.
Response
Stimulus
Receptors
Effectors (muscles/glands)
Control Center
