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Pharmacology Assessment: Questions 1-18

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The administrations of combinations of trimethoprim and a sulfonamide ensures:

a)

Shortening of treatment time

b)

Narrowing of the spectrum of action (a targeted action)

c)

Diversification of pharmaceutical forms

d)

Broadening of the spectrum of action

e)

Reduction of the dose levels of each agent and a broader spectrum of action

2.

Which of the following pharmaceutical forms is common in humans and animals?

a)

Cachets

b)

Intramammary

c)

Premix

d)

Pasta/gel for oral use (with systemic effect)

e)

Pour-on preparations

3.

Choose the wrong answer: an “ideal” medicine product will present:

a)

An accurate activity (!)

b)

A constant efficacy

c)

A known mechanism of action

d)

A long presence on the market

e)

As few as possible adverse effects

4.

Which of the following statements is not correct:

a)

Binding to plasma proteins is a irreversible phenomenon

b)

Drugs attached to plasma proteins may serve as a drug reservoir

c)

Liver disease can influence the percentage of protein-fixed drug molecules

d)

In the case of a large number of drug molecules attached to proteins the effect of the drug does not appear

e)

Protein-fixed drug molecules are pharmaceutical inactive

5.

Choose the incorrect statement: Ethylene oxide is a biocidal product:

a)

That is widely used to sterilize a variety of healthcare products, such as single-use medical devices, heat labile

b)

That is mutagenic and carcinogenic

c)

That belongs to the group of biocides called alkylating agents

d)

That is highly toxic, irritating to eyes, skin, highly flammable

e)

That acts by precipitating the cell membrane of the microorganism

6.

Which of the following practices do you think is the safest way to prevent contaminations of injectable products?

a)

Refrigeration of the product, because the temperature would not allow the development and multiplication of bacterias

b)

Keep the needle in the rubber stopper to avoid repeated stinging

c)

Use the synthetic preservatives

d)

At the end of the day, place the product at freezing temperatures

e)

The product will be used according to the specifications from the leaflet

7.

Which of the following types of medicinal products cannot be administered by i.v:

a)

Caustic solutions

b)

Solutions with a high alcalin pH

c)

Solutions with a high acid pH

d)

All answers are correct

e)

Highly hypertonic solutions

8.

Nitrofurans are commonly employed as:

a)

Medicines for the prophylactic and therapeutic treatment of bacterial and protozoan GI infections in pets

b)

Feed additives for growth promotion for bee colonies

c)

Feed additives for growth promotion for aquaculture (i.e fish and shrimp)

d)

Feed additives for growth promotion for livestock (i.e poultry, swine and cattle)

e)

Medicines for the prophylactic and therapeutic treatment of bacterial and protozoan GI infections in farm animals

9.

Which of the following pharmaceutical forms do you think are the easiest to administer in cats?

a)

Oral solutions

b)

S.c

c)

Palatable chewable tablets

d)

l.m

e)

Chewable tablets

10.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? Monooxygenase is:

a)

Involved in catalysis of the glucuronide conjugation

b)

From the same group with the glucuronic transferase

c)

Involved in catalysis of the most oxidative reactions, some hydrolytic and reduction reactions

d)

Is synthesized by endoplasmic reticulum

e)

An enzyme from the non-microsomal group

11.

Which of the following types of medicinal products can be administered by i.v route?

a)

Hemolytic coagulant or precipitant

b)

Toxic for the myocardium

c)

That can cause embolism

d)

That can harm the vascular endothelium

e)

Hypertonic

12.

Choose the wrong statement: sulfonamides are:

a)

Active substances that act by inhibiting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria

b)

Active substances that act inhibiting the synthesis of nucleic acid in bacteria

c)

Rarely used by themselves

d)

Bactericidal

e)

White or yellow inodorous, bitter taste, hard/very hard soluble in water powders

13.

Choose the route of administration with the highest bioavailability:

a)

S.c

b)

i.v

c)

Oral

d)

i.m

e)

Inhalation

14.

The first follower of homeopathy and the inventor of the terms alopathy and homeopathy was:

a)

Herodotus

b)

Galenus

c)

Hippocrates

d)

Hahnemann

e)

Paracelsus

15.

Which of the following biocides is successfully used as an adjunct in the treatment of dental pulp gangrene?

a)

Betadine

b)

Clorhexidine acetate

c)

Povidone

d)

Chlorhexidine gluconate

e)

Hydrogen peroxide

16.

From the pharmacokinetic parameters below choose the one that is least involved in choosing the frequency of administration of a drug:

a)

C max

b)

Tmax

c)

Cl

d)

AUC

e)

T 1/2 (half life)

17.

Pyramethamine + sulfadoxine is used for:

a)

Treatment of chronic toxoplasmosis

b)

Treatment of leishmaniasis and acute toxoplasmosis

c)

Treatment of leishmaniasis

d)

Treatment of malaria

e)

Treatment of acute toxoplasmosis

18.

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the premix?

a)

It is a pharmaceutical form that is administered orally, especially to farm animals

b)

It is administered in food to obtain medicated food

c)

It is a pharmaceutical form dedicated to veterinary medicine

d)

It may consist of one or more active substances and excipients

e)

It is administered in food/water or water substitute (like milk)

19.

Antacids administration during the treatment with sulfonamides increase the risk of:

a)

No risk

b)

Vomiting

c)

Crystalluria

d)

Diarrhea

e)

Stimulation of sulfonamide absorption with increased risk of toxicity

20.

Antiseptics are not effective when administered on:

a)

Surgical instruments

b)

oral mucosa

c)

Vaginal mucosa

d)

Wound superinfected with bacteria

e)

Postoperative wound

21.

Information on the storage condition of veterinary medicinal product can be found in the SPC in chapter:

a)

6.3 shelf life

b)

6.6 Special precautions for disposal of unused veterinary medicinal products or waste materials derived from the use of such products

c)

6.4 Special precautions for storage

d)

4.5 Special precautions for use

e)

4.11 Withdrawal period

22.

In ruminants the best local gastrointestinal effects are obtained by the administration of:

a)

Intraruminal preparations

b)

Delayed release tablets

c)

Delayed release capsules

d)

Prolonge release capsules

e)

Gastro-resistant capsules

23.

Antimalaric drugs bind to:

a)

Albumin

b)

Glycoproteins

c)

Albumin and globulin

d)

Lipoproteins

e)

Blood cells

24.

It is known that most metabolites are excreted from the body through urine. Exceptions are drug molecules with a molecular weight of >300 g/mol and with both polar and lipophilic groups. In their case the most likely way out is:

a)

The sweat

b)

Saliva

c)

Elimination through the urine is not influenced by the chemical structure of the molecule

d)

The bile

e)

Elimination through the urine is not influenced by molecular weight

25.

Shelf-life of a medicinal product does not refer to:

a)

shelf life after first opening the immediate packaging

b)

Shelf life after dilution/ reconstitution

c)

Shelf life of the product as packaging for sale

d)

Shelf life of the raw materials

e)

Shelf life after incorporation into meal or pelleted feed

26.

Molecules that can not pass into the CNS and show their effects are:

a)

Ionized

b)

Non attached to the protein

c)

Non-ionized

d)

Small molecules

e)

Highly lipophilic

27.

A large part of the biocidal products used as an adjunct in the treatment of mastitis in cows contain:

a)

Aldehydes

b)

Chlorine

c)

Peroxide

d)

Iodine

e)

Alcohol

28.

Choose from the list below a sulfamide with an indication other than the treatment of infection:

a)

Sulfadoxine

b)

Sulfadiazine

c)

Sulfamethoxazole

d)

Furosemide

e)

Sulfadimethoxine

29.

Choose the pharmaceutical form with the fastest onset after oral administration:

a)

Coated tablets

b)

Oral suspension

c)

Capsules

d)

Uncoated tablets

e)

Oral aqueous solution

30.

Who said “ dosis sola facit venenum” ?

a)

Herodot

b)

Hippocrates

c)

Hahnemann

d)

Galenus

e)

Paracelsus

31.

Drugs structurally similar to endogenous substances (e.g ions, vitamins, sugars, amino acids) are generally transported by:

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated diffusion with the help of protein channels

c)

Active transport with energy consumption

d)

Diffusion

e)

Facilitated diffusion with the help of protein channels

32.

Which of the following parameters are not involved in measuring the effect of an active substance?

a)

Total clearance

b)

Potency

c)

Selectivity

d)

Efficacy

e)

Affinity

33.

When we cannot administer large volumes of drugs intravenously, an alternative may be one of the following route:

a)

Intrarectal by enema

b)

S.C

c)

There is no alternative route

d)

I.M

e)

Oral

34.

Which of the following is the most common situation? After the metabolism of an active drug can result:

a)

Metabolites with higher toxic effect

b)

Inactive metabolites

c)

Metabolites with the same action

d)

Metabolites with increased therapeutic effect

e)

Metabolites with another therapeutic effect

35.

What is the route of administration of the veterinary medicinal product along the back of the body?

a)

Spot-on application

b)

Immersion

c)

Shampooing

d)

Pour-on application

e)

Spraying

36.

What kind of biocide is a product that contains iodine and is administered in case of mastitis in cows?

a)

PT5

b)

PT1

c)

PT2

d)

PT4

e)

PT3

37.

Which of the following statements is not correct? A preservative:

4 lines
38.

Sulfonamides are divided into antimicrobial and non-antimicrobial sulfonamides. Choose the sulfonamide with a hypoglycemic effect.

a)

Sulfadoxine

b)

Sulfamethoxazole

c)

Sulfadiazine

d)

Sulfonylurea

e)

Sulfadimethoxine

39.

Co-trimazine is an antimicrobial used for the treatment of:

a)

Urinary tract infections, urogenital infections, protozoal infections, bone and joint infections, skin and soft tissue infections

b)

Digestive infections

c)

Genital infections

d)

Skin infections with MRSA

e)

Upper respiratory tract infections

40.

What is the way in which a medicinal product is applied punctually in a specific place on the surface of the skin?

a)

By immersion

b)

By spraying

c)

By spot-on application

d)

By shampooing

e)

By pour-on application

41.

Choose the route of administration by which a drug can reach the systemic circulation:

a)

Intra-uterine

b)

Intra-vaginal

c)

Intramammary

d)

Intra-auricular

e)

Intra-rectal

42.

Which of the following local reactions that may occur after the administration of intramuscular drugs is not specific?

a)

Phlegmons

b)

Indurations

c)

Lethargy

d)

Pain

e)

Abscess or necrosis

43.

Which of the following factors cannot be the cause of damage to the raw material used in the production of medicinal products?

a)

Microbial contamination

b)

Excessive humidity

c)

Incorrect storage

d)

Use of plastic containers

e)

Exposure to light

44.

Which pharmacokinetic parameters are not determined for intravascular administration?

a)

t-lag time, Cmax=maximum concentration, tmax=time to reach Cmax

b)

Cmax=maximum concentration tmax=time to reach Cmax

c)

t-lag time, Cmax=maximum concentration

d)

t-lag time, Cmax=maximum concentration tmax=time to reach Cmax AUC=area under the curve of a plasma concentration versus time profile t1/2=elimination half-life

e)

AUC=area under the curve of a plasma concentration versus time profile t1/2=elimination half-life

45.

Choose the correct and complete answer: Morphine is a full agonist which means that:

a)

Morphine is not an agonist

b)

Is a chemical/drug that binds to the receptor of a cell and activates the receptor to cause a maximal response (effect) characteristic of the receptor, under a given set of conditions

c)

Morphine is not a full agonist

d)

Is a chemical/drug that binds to the receptor of a cell and activates the receptor to cause a maximal response (effect) under a given set of time

e)

Is a chemical/drug that binds to the receptor of a cell and activates the receptor to cause a maximal response (effect)

46.

Choose the route of administration with the fastest onset:

a)

Rectal

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Intravenous

e)

Oral

47.

What edition of the European Pharmacopoeia is in use?

a)

9th

b)

12th

c)

10th

d)

8th

e)

11th

48.

Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) indicates the minimum concentration of an active substance at which the drug becomes active against:

a)

An ectoparasite

b)

A parasite

c)

A virus

d)

A fungus

e)

A bacteria

49.

Which of the following preservatives is also an oxidizing agent and a chelating agent?

a)

Benzoates

b)

Polyphosphates

c)

Sodium benzoate

d)

Citric acid

e)

Sorbates

50.

Choose the pharmaceutical form that is fastest absorbed after oral administration:

a)

Suspensions

b)

Tablets

c)

Capsules

d)

Aqueous solution

e)

Oily solution

51.

The most important sources of active substance are:

a)

Plants

b)

Minerals

c)

Chemical synthesis

d)

Microorganisms / yeasts

e)

Animals

52.

Choose the incorrect statement:

a)

Hydrocortisone is a prodrug

b)

Products are metabolized in the liver where they become active metabolites

c)

Products have no effect when are applied on the surface of the skin

d)

Products by metabolisation are transformed in active metabolites

e)

Products are substances that do not have pharmacological effect

53.

Furazolidone is indicated for the treatment of:

a)

Urinary tract infections in cats

b)

Urinary tract infections in dogs

c)

GI infections in lambs

d)

GI infections in dogs

e)

Respiratory infections in farm animals

54.

Which of the following active substances is not used in homeopathy?

a)

Bee venom

b)

Mercury

c)

Ibuprofen

d)

Snake venom

55.

Which of the following maneuvers can cause contamination of an injectable product?

a)

Stinging the rubber stopper when taking a dose

b)

Keeping the needle in the rubber stopper and repeatedly extracting doses with the same needle

c)

Stinging the stopper several times with different sterile needles

d)

Store the bottle at room temperature

e)

Removing the metal protection while holding the rubber stopper

56.

The occurrence of the effect of a drug implies the presence of the:

a)

Effector system called signal-transduction pathways

b)

Situs receptor or recognition site

c)

All these

d)

Ligand

e)

Receptor

57.

Which of the following statements does not apply to transdermal administration of some medicinal products (patches)?

a)

It is a route by which the active substance gets into the systemic circulation

b)

Patches are safe, they do not cause local side effects

c)

It is very efficient in the case of hormonal treatments

d)

The system provides release of the active substance for 24 hours or more

e)

By using this system we can diminish the rate of drug administration and prolong the effect

58.

From the examples below, choose the biocide with the broadest spectrum of action.

a)

Alcohols

b)

Phenols

c)

Detergents and soaps

d)

Glutaraldehyde

e)

Halogens

59.

What pharmaceutical form of medical product do you recommend to use to obtain a long lasting effect?

a)

Capsules

b)

Coated tablet

c)

Prolonged release tablet

d)

Gastro-resistant tablet

e)

Gastro-resistant capsule

60.

Which of the following requirements is not correct for a biocide to be as efficient and safe as possible?

a)

Have lack of local irritant or allergic effects on tissues

b)

Must have low toxicity

c)

Have a fast onset of action

d)

Must have a narrow spectrum of action

e)

Must have a minimal absorption from the place of their application

61.

Which of the following substances introduced into the body during the administration of a medical product can act as an antagonist to sulfonamides?

a)

PP vitamine, metionina, Urotropina

b)

Folic acid, PP vitamine, Urotropina

c)

Metionina

d)

Folic acid, PP vitamine, metionina, Urotropina

e)

Urotropina

62.

The efficiency of glutaraldehyde is due to its mechanism of action against microorganisms which consists of:

a)

Modification of nucleic acid

b)

Destruction of the cell wall

c)

Destruction of the cell division spindle

d)

Inactivation of enzymes

e)

Precipitation of intracellular protein

63.

Penicillins work by affecting the cell membrane of bacteria. We can say that the active substance acts by disrupting the activity of one of the following types of target

a)

Receptors

b)

Nonreceptor/ Nonprotein targets like nucleic acids

c)

Enzymes

d)

Carriers ("membrane transport proteins")

e)

Ion Chanels

64.

The branches of pharmacology that deals with the study of possible raw materials used in homeopathy is called:

a)

Pharmacognosy

b)

Pharmacotoxicology

c)

Pharmacometrics

d)

Pharmacotherapy

e)

Pharmaceutical chemistry

65.

Choose the substances with synergistic, potentiating effect for sulfamethoxazole:

a)

Trimethoprim

b)

Sulfadiazine

c)

Sulfadoxine

d)

Sulfadimethoxine

e)

Pyrimethamine

66.

Choose from the pharmaceutical forms below the one most commonly used to deworm horses.

a)

Capsules

b)

Oral emulsions

c)

Pastes

d)

Injectables

e)

Oral solutions

67.

A less stressful and effective alternative of administration of a medical products that cannot be taken by the patient by oral route is the administration by:

a)

I.v route

b)

S.c route

c)

I.m route

d)

Using the probe

e)

Using the suppository

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