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Final Review

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient experiences difficulty with fine motor coordination and balance after a fall. Which brain structure is most likely affected?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Thalamus

2.

A patient is bitten by a Black Widow spider. The venom causes a massive release of Acetylcholine (ACh) at the neuromuscular junction. The patient will experience:

a)

Intense muscle cramping (spasms)

b)

Muscle paralysis (flaccid)

c)

Loss of sensation

d)

Decreased heart rate

3.

Type 2 Diabetes is strictly caused by a lack of insulin production.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

A person has a "Stye." The gland of the eyelid that is typically infected is:

a)

Meibomian gland

b)

Lacrimal gland

c)

Ciliary gland

d)

Zeis gland

5.

Name the specific neurotransmitter used by pre-ganglionic neurons in both the Sympathetic and Parasympathetic nervous systems.

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

6.

Name the condition corrected by a concave (diverging) lens.

a)

Myopia

b)

Hypermetropia

c)

Astigmatism

d)

Presbyopia

7.

Which horn of the spinal cord contains motor neurons?

a)

Anterior/Ventral Horn.

b)

Posterior/Dorsal Horn.

c)

Lateral Horn.

d)

Central Horn.

8.

Which branches of the trigeminal nerve are intact and which are damaged if the mandibular (motor) branch is affected?

a)

Intact: Ophthalmic/Maxillary (sensory); Damaged: Mandibular (motor).

b)

Intact: Mandibular (motor); Damaged: Ophthalmic/Maxillary (sensory).

c)

Intact: Maxillary (sensory); Damaged: Ophthalmic/Mandibular (motor).

d)

Intact: Ophthalmic (sensory); Damaged: Maxillary/Mandibular (motor).

9.

What is the name of the area where the optic nerve exits the eye?

a)

Optic Disc.

b)

Macula.

c)

Fovea.

d)

Retina.

10.

Which part of the brain controls hormone release from the pituitary gland?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Medulla

11.

Which part of the neuron receives signals from other neurons?

a)

Cell body

b)

Axon

c)

Synaptic knob

d)

Dendrites

12.

What is the main function of the myelin sheath?

a)

To generate action potentials

b)

To speed up nerve impulse conduction

c)

To store neurotransmitters

d)

To connect neurons to muscles

13.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spinal cord?

a)

Coordination between brain and body

b)

Production of hormones

c)

Transmission of nerve impulses

d)

Reflex action

14.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily released at the neuromuscular junction?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

GABA

c)

Glutamate

d)

Serotonin

15.

Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Cerebellum

16.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating blood sugar levels?

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Estrogen

c)

Insulin

d)

Adrenaline

17.

Type 2 Diabetes can often be managed with lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of diabetes?

a)

Frequent urination

b)

Excessive thirst

c)

Weight gain

d)

Blurred vision

19.

What is the primary difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes?

a)

There is no difference

b)

Type 1 only affects children, Type 2 only affects adults

c)

Type 1 is an autoimmune condition, Type 2 is often related to lifestyle

d)

Type 1 is caused by insulin resistance, Type 2 by lack of insulin

20.

Which organ in the body produces insulin?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Kidney

d)

Heart

21.

High blood sugar levels over time can damage which of the following?

a)

Kidneys

b)

All of the above

c)

Eyes

d)

Nerves

22.

Which test is commonly used to diagnose diabetes?

a)

Blood pressure test

b)

Fasting blood glucose test

c)

Urine protein test

d)

Chest X-ray

23.

Obesity is a major risk factor for developing Type 2 Diabetes.

a)

False

b)

True

24.

Which of the following is a long-term complication of uncontrolled diabetes?

a)

Broken bones

b)

Asthma

c)

Tooth decay

d)

Stroke

25.

Which of the following foods is best for someone managing diabetes?

a)

Sweetened soda

b)

Candy

c)

White bread

d)

Grilled chicken and vegetables

26.

What is the main function of the cerebellum?

a)

Regulating emotions

b)

Coordinating movement

c)

Processing visual information

d)

Controlling breathing

27.

Which lobe of the brain is responsible for processing visual information?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

28.

Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the brain?

a)

Medulla oblongata

b)

Pons

c)

Thalamus

d)

Corpus callosum

29.

What is the primary role of the medulla oblongata?

a)

Controlling voluntary movement

b)

Processing sensory input

c)

Regulating heart rate and breathing

d)

Memory formation

30.

Which part of the brain is involved in forming new memories?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Hippocampus

31.

Which brain region is primarily responsible for speech production?

a)

Parietal lobe

b)

Broca's area

c)

Wernicke's area

d)

Occipital lobe

32.

Which part of the brain regulates body temperature and hunger?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Medulla

33.

Which structure acts as a relay station for sensory information?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Medulla oblongata

34.

Which lobe of the brain is associated with reasoning and problem-solving?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

35.

Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Medulla

36.

Which part of the eye is responsible for focusing light onto the retina?

a)

Cornea.

b)

Iris.

c)

Lens.

d)

Sclera.

37.

What is the colored part of the eye called?

a)

Iris.

b)

Cornea.

c)

Retina.

d)

Pupil.

38.

Which structure controls the amount of light entering the eye?

a)

Optic Nerve.

b)

Cornea.

c)

Iris.

d)

Lens.

39.

What is the transparent front part of the eye called?

a)

Macula.

b)

Cornea.

c)

Sclera.

d)

Retina.

40.

Which part of the eye contains photoreceptor cells?

a)

Lens.

b)

Retina.

c)

Cornea.

d)

Iris.

41.

What is the small central pit in the retina called?

a)

Optic Disc.

b)

Macula.

c)

Fovea.

d)

Sclera.

42.

Which structure is responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain?

a)

Optic Nerve.

b)

Lens.

c)

Cornea.

d)

Iris.

43.

What is the white outer layer of the eyeball called?

a)

Retina.

b)

Macula.

c)

Cornea.

d)

Sclera.

44.

Which part of the eye helps maintain its shape and protects it?

a)

Iris.

b)

Lens.

c)

Sclera.

d)

Retina.

45.

What is the function of the pupil?

a)

Focus light onto the retina.

b)

Produce tears.

c)

Transmit visual signals to the brain.

d)

Regulate the amount of light entering the eye.

46.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for stimulating muscle contraction at the neuromuscular junction?

a)

Acetylcholine (ACh)

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

GABA

47.

What is the effect of botulinum toxin on the neuromuscular junction?

a)

Increases ACh release

b)

Blocks ACh release

c)

Stimulates muscle contraction

d)

Causes muscle cramping

48.

Which of the following is a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

a)

Intense muscle cramping

b)

Muscle weakness that worsens with activity

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Loss of sensation

49.

Which ion is essential for the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?

a)

Sodium (Na+)

b)

Potassium (K+)

c)

Calcium (Ca2+)

d)

Chloride (Cl-)

50.

Which enzyme breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?

a)

Monoamine oxidase

b)

Phosphodiesterase

c)

Tyrosine hydroxylase

d)

Acetylcholinesterase

51.

Curare poisoning leads to muscle paralysis because it:

a)

Blocks acetylcholine receptors

b)

Increases acetylcholine release

c)

Stimulates muscle contraction

d)

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

52.

Which of the following best describes the role of the synaptic cleft?

a)

It produces acetylcholine

b)

It generates action potentials

c)

It is the gap between the neuron and muscle fiber where neurotransmitters are released

d)

It stores neurotransmitters

53.

Which condition is characterized by excessive acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?

a)

Multiple sclerosis

b)

Myasthenia gravis

c)

Cholinergic crisis

d)

Botulism

54.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat myasthenia gravis by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase?

a)

Curare

b)

Atropine

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Botulinum toxin

55.

Which structure releases acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft?

a)

Postsynaptic muscle fiber

b)

Presynaptic neuron terminal

c)

Synaptic cleft

d)

Acetylcholinesterase enzyme

56.

Which part of the eye is responsible for focusing light onto the retina?

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Sclera

c)

Iris

d)

Lens

57.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Insulin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Adrenaline

58.

Which part of the neuron receives signals from other neurons?

a)

Cell body

b)

Dendrite

c)

Myelin sheath

d)

Axon

59.

Which hormone is released in response to high blood glucose levels?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Thyroxine

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

60.

What is the transparent layer at the front of the eye called?

a)

Cornea

b)

Iris

c)

Lens

d)

Retina

61.

Which gland produces the hormone responsible for regulating metabolism?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Adrenal gland

c)

Pancreas

d)

Pituitary gland

62.

What is the function of rods in the retina?

a)

Color vision

b)

Producing tears

c)

Night and low-light vision

d)

Focusing light

63.

Which part of the neuron is responsible for transmitting signals away from the cell body?

a)

Axon

b)

Synapse

c)

Dendrite

d)

Myelin sheath

64.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood calcium levels?

a)

Parathyroid hormone

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Insulin

65.

Which structure in the eye is responsible for focusing light onto the retina?

a)

Cornea

b)

Iris

c)

Lens

d)

Sclera

66.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
67.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "A" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Node of Ranvier
68.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "F" represent?
a)
Myelin Sheath
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Dendrite
69.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "H" represent?
a)
Myelin Sheath
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Dendrite
70.
A
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
71.

The brain stem/medulla is labeled as #...

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

72.

As organisms get more complex, cells become specialized to perform specific functions in the body. What is the function for the cell shown?

a)

contract and shorten movement

b)

provide coverage and protection

c)

carry impulses around the body

d)

connects parts together

73.

What is structure 3?

a)

Pupil

b)

Iris

c)

Sclera

74.

What is structure number 3?

a)

Iris

b)

Cornea

c)

Lens

d)

Pupil

75.

Identify the letter that labels the following part of the eye:

optic nerve

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

e)

F

76.

What is structure 1?

a)

Pupil

b)

Iris

c)

Sclera

77.

What is structure 2?

a)

Pupil

b)

Iris

c)

Sclera

78.

The optic nerve transmits signals to the

a)

temporal lobe

b)

parietal lobe

c)

occipital lobe

d)

frontal lobe

79.
The white portion of the eye (In Humans).
a)
Pupil
b)
Sclera
c)
Dyslexia
d)
Retina
80.
Which part of the eye contracts and dilates based on the environment? 
a)
Pupil
b)
Cornea
c)
Sclera
d)
Iris
81.
In humans, this part of the eye can range in color from brown to blue:
a)
retina
b)
tapetum
c)
cornea
d)
iris
82.
If fluid pressure remains high within the eye, the person might be diagnosed with:
a)
anaridia
b)
glaucoma
c)
cataracts
d)
leber ameurosis
83.

Secretes tears

a)

retina

b)

lacrimal gland

c)

sclera

d)

iris

84.
Opens and closes to adjust the total amount of light entering the eye.
a)
Iris
b)
Scelera
c)
Cornea
d)
Human lens
85.
____ controls the size of the pupil
a)
iris
b)
cornea
c)
lens
d)
fovea
86.

What is the name of the corner of the eye where the upper and lower eyelids meet on the side closest to the nose?

a)

Lateral commissure

b)

Lacrimal caruncle

c)

Medial commissure

d)

Palpebral fissure

87.

What is structure number 4?

a)

Iris

b)

Cornea

c)

Lens

d)

Pupil

88.

antibacterial substance in tears

a)

cones

b)

rods

c)

aqueous humor

d)

lysozyme

89.

Which number identifies the cochlea?

(a)  

90.

Which number identifies the hair cells?

(a)  

91.

Which number identifies the vestibulocochlear nerve?

(a)  

92.

What is the name of # 3?

a)

Malleus

b)

Helix

c)

Auricle (Pinna)

d)

Tympanum (ear drum)

93.

What is the name of # 3?

a)

Malleus

b)

Helix

c)

Auricle (Pinna)

d)

Tympanum (ear drum)

94.

What is the function of # 3?

a)

Collect soundwaves and direct them into the external acoustic meatus

b)

Secrete a waxy substance known as cerumen

c)

Amplify and transmit vibrations of the tympanum inward to the inner ear

d)

Connect the middle ear cavity to the nasopharynx

95.

What part contains the ceruminous glands (which secrete cerumen/ear wax)?

a)

4

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

96.

Where is the tympanic membrane?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

97.

What is # 7?

a)

Middle ear

b)

Nasopharynx

c)

Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube

d)

Auditory ossicle

98.

What is the function of the auditory ossicles (# 1,2,3)?

a)

Connect the middle ear cavity to the nasopharynx

b)

Perform the attenuation reflex

c)

Contain the receptor structures for hearing

d)

Amplify and transmit vibrations of the tympanum inward to the inner ear

99.

What is # 3?

a)

Temporal bone

b)

Cochlea

c)

Vestibule

d)

Endolymph

100.

What is the function of # 3?

a)

Contains receptors that send impulses that the brain interprets as sounds

b)

Contains sensory receptors for equilibrium

c)

Contains perilymph which suspends the membranous labyrinth

d)

Surrounds the Eustachian tube and swells due to upper respiratory infection

101.

Which two numbers make up the vestibular complex?

a)

1 & 2

b)

4 & 5

c)

6 & 7

d)

3 & 8

102.

What is the function of the vestibular complex?

a)

Contains sensory receptors for equilibrium. Sends nerve impulses that brain interprets as body position or movement.

b)

Contains receptors that send impulses that the brain interprets as sounds.

c)

Surrounds the Eustachian tube and swells due to upper respiratory infection.

d)

Amplify and transmit vibrations of the tympanum inward to the inner ear.

103.

What cranial nerves are associated with olfaction?

a)

facial

b)

trigeminal

c)

oculomotor

d)

olfactory

104.

What cranial nerves are associated with olfaction?

a)

facial

b)

trigeminal

c)

oculomotor

d)

olfactory

105.

Which cells are part of the olfactory epithelium?

a)

olfactory receptor cells

b)

supporting cells

c)

basal cells

d)

mitral cells

106.

From which layer do the eyes develop?

a)

endo

b)

ecto

c)

meso

107.

How many days post fertilization do the eyes begin to develop?

a)

5 days

b)

22 days

c)

10 days

d)

150 days

108.

First portion of the ear to develop is the?

a)

middle ear

b)

external ear

c)

internal ear

109.

Middle ear develops from the

a)

otic vesicle

b)

pharyngeal pouch

c)

pharyngeal cleft

d)

otic placodes

110.

Presbycusis

a)

progressive hearing loss

b)

vertigo

c)

otitis media

d)

progressive loss of vision

111.

Cataract leads to blindness due to

a)

scotoma

b)

loss of transparency of the lens

c)

trachoma

d)

high intraocular pressure

112.

Changes in membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light strikes its photopigments?

a)

depolarization

b)

graded potential

c)

no changes occur

d)

hyperpolarization

113.

saccule, ampullae, vestibule, semicircular ducts

a)

hearing

b)

equilibrium

c)

smell

d)

vision

114.

What detects light rays that strike the photopigments?

a)

trans-retinal

b)

cis-retinal

c)

opsin

d)

melanin

115.

1st step in gustation

a)

taste buds detect tastant

b)

1st order neuron from facial nerve receives message

c)

gustatory nucleus receives info

d)

limbic system, hypothalamus, and thalamus receives info

e)

cerebral cortex receives info

116.

2nd step in gustation

a)

taste buds detect tastant

b)

1st order neuron from facial nerve receives message

c)

gustatory nucleus receives info

d)

limbic system, hypothalamus, and thalamus receives info

e)

cerebral cortex receives info

117.

3rd step in gustation

a)

taste buds detect tastant

b)

1st order neuron from facial nerve receives message

c)

gustatory nucleus receives info

d)

limbic system, hypothalamus, and thalamus receives info

e)

cerebral cortex receives info

118.

4th step in gustation

a)

taste buds detect tastant

b)

1st order neuron from facial nerve receives message

c)

gustatory nucleus receives info

d)

limbic system, hypothalamus, and thalamus receives info

e)

cerebral cortex receives info

119.

5th step in gustation

a)

taste buds detect tastant

b)

1st order neuron from facial nerve receives message

c)

gustatory nucleus receives info

d)

limbic system, hypothalamus, and thalamus receives info

e)

cerebral cortex receives info

120.

6th step in gustation

a)

taste buds detect tastant

b)

1st order neuron from facial nerve receives message

c)

gustatory nucleus receives info

d)

limbic system, hypothalamus, and thalamus receives info

e)

perceive taste

121.

When you inhale slowly and deeply, this helps identify odors. Why?

a)

transduction only occurs when odorant concentration is high

b)

threshold for odor detection is high

c)

adaptations to odors are slow

d)

more odorants are brought into contact with epithelium

122.

Night blindness

a)

lack of cones

b)

toxic level of vitamin A

c)

lack of rhodopsin

d)

too high concentration of cAMP

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