wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

REVIEW: Introduction to Oceans

Total questions: 122

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines oceanography as introduced in this section?

a)

The study of rivers and lakes on Earth’s continents

b)

The scientific study of the ocean, including its processes, life, and interactions

c)

The engineering of ships and undersea cables

d)

The statistical analysis of global weather alone

2.

Identify the branch of oceanography that examines waves, currents, tides, and air–sea interactions.

a)

Physical oceanography

b)

Chemical oceanography

c)

Biological oceanography

d)

Geological oceanography

3.

Which focus correctly matches its oceanography branch?

a)

Chemical oceanography—mapping underwater volcanoes and trenches

b)

Biological oceanography—studying marine life from plankton to whales and their ecosystem interactions

c)

Geological oceanography—measuring nutrient and carbon dioxide levels in seawater

d)

Physical oceanography—cataloging fish biodiversity

4.

According to the section, why is oceanography important for society and the environment?

a)

It only improves navigation routes for cargo ships

b)

It explains how the ocean influences weather, stores heat and carbon, provides resources, supports species, and informs challenges like climate change

c)

It focuses solely on recreational uses of the sea such as tourism and fishing

d)

It replaces the need to study the atmosphere

5.

Approximately what fraction of Earth’s surface is covered by the ocean?

a)

About 30%

b)

About 50%

c)

About 70%

d)

About 90%

6.

Which statement about the distribution of Earth’s water is accurate based on the text?

a)

About 97% is freshwater in rivers and lakes, making it widely drinkable

b)

About 97% is saltwater in oceans and seas, requiring costly treatment to drink

c)

About 3% is saltwater and 97% is freshwater stored in aquifers

d)

Half is freshwater ice and half is saltwater

7.

Most of Earth’s freshwater is not readily accessible. Which breakdown from the passage is correct?

a)

About 69% in glaciers, ice caps, and permanent snow; about 30% underground in aquifers; about 1% easily available in rivers, lakes, and swamps

b)

About 30% in glaciers and ice; about 69% in rivers; about 1% in oceans

c)

About 50% in aquifers; 25% in glaciers; 25% in lakes

d)

About 69% in the atmosphere; 30% in oceans; 1% in rivers

8.

A community faces water scarcity. Based on the section’s data, which strategy targets the smallest share of Earth’s freshwater and is least likely to meet broad needs without major technology?

a)

Tapping rivers, lakes, and swamps

b)

Melting glaciers and ice caps

c)

Drilling deeper into aquifers

d)

Desalinating seawater

9.

Refer to the Water Distribution on Earth diagram. What percentage of Earth’s total water is saltwater?

a)

2.5%

b)

30.1%

c)

69.5%

d)

97.5%

10.

Using the Water Distribution on Earth diagram, which statement best describes how Earth’s freshwater is partitioned?

a)

Most freshwater is groundwater, with a smaller portion stored as ice.

b)

Freshwater is split evenly among ice, groundwater, and surface water.

c)

Most freshwater is stored as ice, with groundwater as the next largest share.

d)

Surface water accounts for the majority of freshwater, followed by ice.

11.

A city plans to increase its freshwater supply using the category that holds only a tiny fraction of Earth’s freshwater but is most directly accessible. Based on the diagram, which source are they most likely to target?

a)

Surface water such as rivers, lakes, atmosphere, and soil moisture

b)

Ice stored in ice caps and glaciers

c)

Groundwater stored in aquifers

d)

Desalinated saltwater from oceans

12.

Which statement best describes the global ocean according to the text?

a)

It consists of five separate water bodies that do not mix.

b)

It is one connected body of salt water that is named and divided for convenience.

c)

It is mostly freshwater with small regions of salt water near continents.

d)

It is split into two unrelated hemispheric oceans by the equator.

13.

Why is the Southern Hemisphere often called the water hemisphere?

a)

Because it contains the deepest ocean trenches.

b)

Because most of Earth's land is concentrated in the Northern Hemisphere, leaving more ocean area in the south.

c)

Because it has the warmest sea-surface temperatures year-round.

d)

Because tides are stronger in the Southern Hemisphere due to Earth's rotation.

14.

Scientists and geographers divide the world ocean into how many main areas, and what are these areas called?

a)

Four; seas

b)

Five; oceans

c)

Six; basins

d)

Three; gyres

15.

Which ocean is identified as the largest and deepest and contains the Mariana Trench?

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Indian Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Southern Ocean

16.

Which description correctly characterizes the Atlantic Ocean in the material?

a)

It is the smallest and shallowest, centered on the North Pole.

b)

It is the second-largest and famous for shipping routes connecting the Old and New Worlds.

c)

It is the warmest ocean located entirely in the tropics.

d)

It is icy and stormy, surrounding Antarctica and regulating climate.

17.

Located mainly between Africa, Asia, and Australia, which ocean is known for warm waters and important trade routes?

a)

Indian Ocean

b)

Arctic Ocean

c)

Pacific Ocean

d)

Atlantic Ocean

18.

Which ocean surrounds Antarctica and plays a major role in regulating Earth's climate by circulating cold water?

a)

Arctic Ocean

b)

Atlantic Ocean

c)

Southern Ocean

d)

Indian Ocean

19.

According to the text, which ocean is the smallest and shallowest and is located around the North Pole, much of it covered in sea ice?

a)

Indian Ocean

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

Southern Ocean

d)

Arctic Ocean

20.

Based on the labeled world map of oceans, which pair correctly identifies two continents that the Pacific Ocean separates?

a)

Africa and Europe

b)

Asia/Australia and the Americas

c)

Europe and North America

d)

Africa and South America

21.

Using the pie chart of ocean areas, which sequence lists oceans from largest to smallest by area?

a)

Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Southern, Arctic

b)

Atlantic, Pacific, Indian, Arctic, Southern

c)

Pacific, Indian, Atlantic, Arctic, Southern

d)

Indian, Atlantic, Pacific, Southern, Arctic

22.

Which statement best describes the Challenger Deep based on the passage?

a)

It is a mid-ocean ridge about 12,100 feet deep.

b)

It is the deepest known point on Earth, nearly 7 miles (36,000 feet) below the ocean surface.

c)

It is a shallow shelf where sunlight reaches the seafloor.

d)

It is a volcanic island chain formed by plate hotspots.

23.

In 1960, which vessel carried the first humans to the bottom of the ocean, and who were aboard?

a)

Bathyscaphe Trieste with Jacques Piccard and Don Walsh

b)

Deepsea Challenger with James Cameron and Don Walsh

c)

Alvin with Jacques Cousteau and Sylvia Earle

d)

Shinkai 6500 with James Cameron and Jacques Piccard

24.

According to the passage, how did the engineers ensure the Trieste could withstand the extreme pressure at the Challenger Deep?

a)

By using lightweight aluminum and large viewing windows for flexibility

b)

By designing the vessel with thick acrylic and steel to endure immense pressure

c)

By pressurizing the cabin to match outside pressure so no forces acted on it

d)

By surrounding the hull with inflatable bladders to counteract pressure

25.

Which timing sequence for the 1960 mission is accurate according to the passage?

a)

3 hours down, 5 hours up, 10 minutes at the bottom

b)

5 hours down, 3 hours up, roughly 20 minutes at the bottom

c)

6 hours down, 6 hours up, 1 hour at the bottom

d)

2 hours down, 4 hours up, 30 minutes at the bottom

26.

Why were the 2012 dives by James Cameron scientifically significant, as stated in the passage?

a)

They disproved earlier measurements of ocean depth using sonar.

b)

They collected samples and high-resolution video, offering an unprecedented view of deep-ocean life and geology.

c)

They set the record for the fastest descent using rocket-assisted propulsion.

d)

They replaced the need for robotic exploration by proving only solo dives are reliable.

27.

Which option best explains the role of robotic submarines in later Challenger Deep expeditions?

a)

They primarily transport tourists to the trench for public outreach.

b)

They map the seafloor, study deep-sea organisms, and collect rock and water samples under extreme pressure.

c)

They are used to repair undersea internet cables at mid-depths far from trenches.

d)

They mainly test new fishing gear for commercial applications.

28.

Given the passage’s data, which inference about extreme ocean environments is most supported?

a)

Life cannot exist below 12,100 feet due to total darkness.

b)

Human-occupied vehicles are unnecessary because pressure is similar to sea level at depth.

c)

Engineering solutions like thick pressure-resistant hulls and the use of unmanned vehicles are essential for exploring the deepest trenches.

d)

The Challenger Deep is shallow enough for conventional submarines to operate safely.

29.

Based on the world map, which region contains the Mariana Trench?

a)

Western Pacific Ocean east of the Mariana Archipelago between Japan and Papua New Guinea

b)

Central Atlantic Ocean west of Africa near the Mid-Atlantic Ridge

c)

Southern Indian Ocean south of Madagascar near the Kerguelen Plateau

d)

Eastern Pacific Ocean off the coast of South America near the Peru–Chile Trench

30.

In the detailed bathymetric map of the southern arc of the Mariana Trench, which feature is identified as the deepest point?

a)

Sirena Deep

b)

Challenger Deep

c)

Ulithi Atoll

d)

Guam Basin

31.

According to the southern arc diagram, which labeled location lies closest to the northern edge of the trench arc?

a)

Ulithi Atoll

b)

Challenger Deep

c)

Guam

d)

Sirena Deep

32.

Using the depth labels on the diagram, what is the approximate depth difference between Challenger Deep and Sirena Deep?

a)

About 148 meters (10,928 m − 10,780 m)

b)

About 1,148 meters (10,928 m − 9,780 m)

c)

About 10,780 meters (Sirena Deep is shallower by this amount)

d)

They have the same maximum depth

33.

The depth comparison graphic shows Mount Everest at 8.848 km. What conclusion does this support about ocean depth?

a)

The deepest ocean trenches are shallower than Mount Everest is tall

b)

The ocean’s maximum depth exceeds the height of Mount Everest

c)

Mount Everest and the ocean’s deepest point are approximately equal in magnitude

d)

The ocean’s depth cannot be compared to mountain heights

34.

Identify ocean "A"

(a)  

35.

Identify ocean "B"

(a)  

36.

Identify the ocean that includes portions of ocean A, ocean C, and ocean D, below 60o South latitude

(a)  

37.

Identify ocean "C"

(a)  

38.

Identify ocean "D"

(a)  

39.

The largest ocean on Earth by area:

(a)  

40.

The smallest ocean on Earth by area:

(a)  

41.

The Northern hemisphere is also known as the ​ (a)   ​ and the Southern hemisphere is known as the ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
land hemisphere
Water hemisphere
42.
Identify the oceans on the map.
43.

The Challenger Deep in the Mariana trench is the deepest part of the ocean. What phenomenon is this trench associated with:

a)

Sea floor spreading

b)

Continental rifting

c)

Subduction

d)

Hot spot volcanism

44.

Reorder the following oceans from largest to smallest:

a)

Pacific

b)

Atlantic

c)

Indian

d)

Southern

e)

Arctic

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
45.

Which statement best defines ocean salinity as used in marine science?

a)

The total mass of suspended sand particles in seawater

b)

The measure of dissolved salts—primarily sodium chloride—in a given amount of seawater

c)

The ratio of ocean temperature to pressure at depth

d)

The amount of oxygen gas dissolved in seawater

46.

What is the average salinity of ocean water, expressed using standard units?

a)

35 parts per thousand (ppt) or about 3.5% salt by mass

b)

3.5 parts per thousand (ppt) or about 35% salt by mass

c)

50 parts per thousand (ppt) or about 5% salt by mass

d)

0.35 parts per thousand (ppt) or about 0.035% salt by mass

47.

A sample contains 1,000 grams of average seawater. Approximately how many grams of that mass are dissolved salts?

a)

3.5 grams of salt and 996.5 grams of water

b)

35 grams of salt and 965 grams of water

c)

50 grams of salt and 950 grams of water

d)

350 grams of salt and 650 grams of water

48.

According to the composition pie chart of dissolved components, which ion makes up the largest percentage of the dissolved salts in seawater?

a)

Sodium ion (Na+) at 30.6%

b)

Chloride ion (Cl−) at 55.0%

c)

Sulfate ion (SO4^2−) at 7.7%

d)

Magnesium ion (Mg2+) at 3.7%

49.

Which pair correctly matches a dissolved component with its approximate percentage in seawater salts, based on the diagram?

a)

Potassium ion (K+) — about 7.7%

b)

Calcium ion (Ca2+) — about 1.2%

c)

Sulfate ion (SO4^2−) — about 30.6%

d)

Magnesium ion (Mg2+) — about 55.0%

50.

Which range best represents the typical salinity of open ocean water described in the passage?

a)

12 to 17 ppt

b)

22 to 27 ppt

c)

32 to 37 ppt

d)

300 to 350 ppt

51.

DoK 1 — Which process generally increases surface ocean salinity in certain regions such as the Red Sea?

a)

High rainfall diluting seawater

b)

Melting sea ice adding freshwater

c)

High evaporation removing water

d)

River inflow carrying sediments

52.

A coastal area experiences an unusually rainy season and extensive melting of nearby sea ice. Based on the text’s rules, what combined effect on local surface salinity is most likely?

a)

Salinity will decrease because both processes add freshwater.

b)

Salinity will increase because both processes concentrate salts.

c)

Salinity will remain unchanged because salt content is fixed.

d)

Salinity will first increase due to rainfall, then decrease due to melting.

53.

According to the description, which pair of conditions would produce the densest seawater?

a)

Warm and fresh

b)

Warm and salty

c)

Cold and fresh

d)

Cold and salty

54.

Differences in density help drive ocean circulation. Which reasoning best explains how these differences generate deep currents?

a)

Dense water sinks and lighter water rises, creating vertical movements that set water masses in motion.

b)

Wind blowing across the surface directly drags deep water along the seafloor.

c)

Freshwater rivers inject momentum that propagates as deep currents across basins.

d)

Tidal forces compress seawater, increasing density uniformly and pushing it poleward.

55.

The Dead Sea has a salinity of around 300–350 ppt, nearly 10 times saltier than average ocean water at about 35 ppt. If a parcel of Dead Sea water were cooled to the same temperature as polar seawater, what would most directly account for its exceptionally high density compared with typical ocean water?

a)

Its dissolved salt concentration is much higher, packing more mass into the same volume.

b)

Its water molecules are larger than those in normal seawater, increasing mass.

c)

It contains less dissolved gas, allowing tighter molecular packing.

d)

Its temperature fluctuates more during the day, increasing average density.

56.

Where is the Dead Sea located according to the map description?

a)

Between Israel and Jordan near the West Bank

b)

Along Egypt’s Mediterranean coastline

c)

On the eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea in Syria

d)

South of the Gaza Strip in the open ocean

57.

Which combination of conditions best explains why the Dead Sea became extremely salty over thousands of years?

a)

No outlet basin plus high evaporation in a hot, dry region

b)

Frequent river flooding that flushes salts into the open ocean

c)

Underground freshwater springs that dilute incoming minerals

d)

Tidal mixing with the Mediterranean Sea that concentrates salts

58.

If a dam drastically reduced the Jordan River’s inflow while the climate stayed hot and dry, which outcome is most plausible for the Dead Sea over time? Use the passage’s reasoning about salinity and water balance.

a)

Water level would drop faster and salinity could increase further as evaporation outpaces inflow

b)

Water level would rise and salinity would decrease due to reduced mineral input

c)

Salinity would stay constant because outlet flow would balance evaporation

d)

The sea would become less dense because less water would evaporate in a hot climate

59.

What physical effect of high salinity is highlighted in the photo description of the Dead Sea’s shoreline?

a)

The high density allows people to float easily on the surface

b)

The water freezes at a higher temperature than freshwater

c)

The waves become taller due to increased mass

d)

The shoreline erodes faster because salt dissolves rock quickly

60.

Which statement best defines a brine pool as described in the passage?

a)

A shallow coastal lagoon formed by tides

b)

An underwater lake of extremely salty, dense water on the seafloor

c)

A freshwater spring that seeps up through marine sediments

d)

A volcanic crater filled with warm seawater

61.

Why do brine pools appear as separate lakes under the sea?

a)

They are warmer than surrounding seawater, creating convection boundaries

b)

They are covered by a thin ice layer that reflects light

c)

Their briny water is so dense it does not mix well with normal seawater

d)

They are isolated by rock walls that keep seawater out

62.

According to the formation description, what initiates the creation of a brine pool on the ocean floor?

a)

Melting of polar ice releasing fresh water into basins

b)

Dissolution of deep seafloor salt deposits into groundwater that seeps out

c)

Eruption of submarine volcanoes that trap seawater

d)

Tectonic uplift that creates enclosed marine basins

63.

Where are brine pools most commonly found based on the text?

a)

Arctic Ocean and the Red Sea

b)

Gulf of Mexico and the Mediterranean Sea

c)

Indian Ocean and the Coral Sea

d)

South China Sea and the Bering Sea

64.

In the labeled diagram of a deep hypersaline anoxic basin (DHAB), which combination correctly describes the brine pool interior relative to normal seawater?

a)

Low salinity and high oxygen

b)

High salinity (up to 10× normal) and no oxygen

c)

Moderate salinity and moderate oxygen

d)

High temperature and high oxygen

65.

Why do scientists nickname certain Gulf of Mexico brine pools the "Hot Tubs of Despair"?

a)

They are warm nurseries for marine larvae

b)

They emit bright bioluminescent light at night

c)

They are extremely salty and toxic, containing chemicals like hydrogen sulfide and methane that quickly kill sea life

d)

They provide a relaxing habitat where predators rarely enter

66.

Which process primarily delivers dissolved sodium and chloride to the ocean by breaking down rocks on land and transporting the ions via rivers?

a)

Hydrothermal vent circulation

b)

Weathering of rocks by slightly acidic rainwater

c)

Evaporation of seawater during warm periods

d)

Biological uptake by marine organisms followed by decay

67.

What role do underwater volcanic eruptions and hydrothermal vents play in the origin of ocean salinity? Choose the most accurate explanation.

a)

They remove salts from seawater by trapping them in newly formed basalt.

b)

They release minerals, gases, and salts directly into seawater through outgassing and vent fluids.

c)

They dilute ocean salinity by injecting large volumes of fresh water.

d)

They only heat seawater without changing its dissolved chemical composition.

68.

If the hydrologic cycle caused salts to evaporate along with water at the ocean surface, how would long-term average ocean salinity most likely change, and why?

a)

It would increase, because rivers would continue adding salts faster than they evaporate.

b)

It would remain unchanged, because sources and sinks of salts would balance regardless of evaporation behavior.

c)

It would decrease, because salts would be lost to the atmosphere instead of accumulating in the ocean.

d)

It would fluctuate randomly, because volcanic activity is unpredictable.

69.

Over millions of years, the ocean has become salty. What approximate average salinity value is reported for seawater?

a)

3 parts per thousand

b)

15 parts per thousand

c)

35 parts per thousand

d)

55 parts per thousand

70.

Which water cycle process directly decreases ocean salinity by adding freshwater to the surface layer?

a)

Evaporation in hot, dry regions

b)

Precipitation of rain or snow

c)

Freezing of seawater into sea ice

d)

Upwelling of deep saline water

71.

When seawater freezes to form sea ice, what happens to the salinity of the surrounding liquid water?

a)

It decreases because salt is locked inside the ice

b)

It stays the same because freezing does not affect salt

c)

It increases because most salt is left behind in the liquid

d)

It fluctuates randomly with no consistent trend

72.

A coastal region experiences heavy river discharge for several weeks. What net effect on local ocean salinity is most consistent with the processes described?

a)

Salinity decreases because river water dilutes seawater near the mouth

b)

Salinity increases because sediments add salts to the ocean

c)

Salinity is unchanged because rivers primarily carry saltwater

d)

Salinity increases because river flow accelerates evaporation

73.

In a subtropical gyre with strong evaporation and minimal rainfall, which mechanism best explains the observed high surface salinity?

a)

Evaporation removes water and leaves salts behind, increasing salinity

b)

Melting sea ice injects salt into the surface layer, increasing salinity

c)

Precipitation adds freshwater that concentrates salt, increasing salinity

d)

River runoff delivers dissolved salts that outweigh water addition, increasing salinity

74.

A polar ocean sector transitions from winter to summer. Sea ice melts, and precipitation increases compared to winter. Based on the described processes, predict the combined effect on surface salinity and justify the direction of change.

a)

Salinity increases because melting ice and rain add freshwater that leaves more salt behind

b)

Salinity decreases because both melting ice and precipitation add freshwater that dilutes salts

c)

Salinity remains constant because melting ice offsets precipitation effects

d)

Salinity increases because freshwater input enhances density-driven mixing that brings saltier water up

75.

A researcher observes two adjacent basins: Basin A has intense evaporation and intermittent sea-ice formation; Basin B has frequent storms, river runoff, and seasonal ice melt. Which basin will likely have higher average surface salinity, and why?

a)

Basin A, because evaporation and freezing remove freshwater, concentrating salts

b)

Basin B, because storm mixing and runoff import dissolved salts from land

c)

Basin A, because precipitation during storms adds freshwater, lowering salinity

d)

Basin B, because melting ice excludes salts into the meltwater, increasing salinity

76.

Identify the two (2) main dissolved components in water:

a)

Na

b)

Cl

c)

Mg

d)

Ca

e)

K

77.

On average, sea surface salinity is:

a)

35 ppt

b)

1 ppt

c)

100 ppt

d)

50 ppt

e)

330 ppt

78.

The dead sea surface salinity is:

a)

35 ppt

b)

1 ppt

c)

100 ppt

d)

50 ppt

e)

330 ppt

79.

Which of the following will increase ocean salinity:

a)

Evaporation

b)

Sea ice formation

c)

Precipitation (Rain)

d)

Runoff

e)

Icebergs melting

80.

Which of the following will decrease ocean salinity:

a)

Evaporation

b)

Sea ice formation

c)

Precipitation (Rain)

d)

Runoff

e)

Icebergs melting

81.

A higher salinity leads to ​ (a)   density​

Choose from the below words
a greater
a lower
no change in
82.

Which sample of water has the highest density?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

They all have the same density

83.

A temperate rainforest coastline has lots of precipitation but not as much evaporation. Estimate the salinity in this region:

a)

30 ppt

b)

40 ppt

c)

45 ppt

d)

300 ppt

84.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

precipitation

Runoff from land

Icebergs melting

sea ice melting

evaporation

formation of sea ice

Increases ocean salinity
Decreases ocean salinity
85.

Which statement best defines a carbon sink in the context of Earth’s oceans?

a)

A system that releases more CO2 to the atmosphere than it absorbs

b)

A reservoir that absorbs and stores large amounts of atmospheric CO2

c)

A process that converts CO2 directly into methane in seawater

d)

A region where CO2 cannot dissolve due to high temperatures

86.

According to the passage, approximately what fraction of human-released CO2 since the Industrial Revolution has been absorbed by the oceans?

a)

About one-fourth

b)

About one-half

c)

About three-fourths

d)

Less than one-tenth

87.

When atmospheric CO2 contacts the ocean surface, what immediate chemical change described in the text helps remove CO2 from the atmosphere?

a)

Formation of methane gas bubbles

b)

Conversion to carbonic acid after dissolving in seawater

c)

Precipitation of pure carbon crystals

d)

Oxidation to carbon monoxide

88.

Which condition enhances the physical (solubility) pump, allowing more CO2 to be transported to the deep ocean?

a)

Warm, less dense tropical water that rises quickly

b)

Cold, dense polar water that sinks and can remain deep for centuries

c)

Shallow coastal water warmed by tides and sunlight

d)

Freshwater lenses that float above seawater and evaporate

89.

Refer to the diagram showing arrows between atmospheric CO2, dissolved CO2, and deep sequestration. Which process is primarily illustrated, and what key mechanism does it depend on?

a)

Biological pump relying on photosynthesis by phytoplankton

b)

Physical carbon pump relying on gas exchange and sinking of cold, dense water

c)

Volcanic degassing relying on eruption-driven mixing

d)

Anthropogenic injection relying on engineered pipelines

90.

Which sequence best describes the biological pump as presented in the text?

a)

CO2 dissolves, forms methane, and escapes to the atmosphere

b)

Phytoplankton use CO2 for photosynthesis; organisms die and sink; carbon is stored in sediments

c)

Corals release CO2 during calcification; gases rise and warm surface waters

d)

Shellfish dissolve carbonate shells at the surface; carbon is released to air

91.

In the context of long-term carbon storage described, what are bioclastic sedimentary rocks and how do they form?

a)

Rocks formed from cooled magma enriched in CO2

b)

Rocks produced when deep-ocean basalts absorb carbonic acid

c)

Rocks created when hard parts of marine organisms are compacted and cemented on the ocean floor

d)

Evaporite deposits formed by precipitation of halite and gypsum from seawater

92.

Which statement best defines ocean acidification as described in the passage?

a)

The process by which oceans release excess carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, raising global pH

b)

A chemical change in seawater caused by increased absorption of atmospheric CO2 that lowers ocean pH

c)

The dilution of seawater salts due to melting ice, increasing ocean alkalinity

d)

A biological process where marine organisms add acids to water during respiration

93.

When CO2 dissolves in seawater, which immediate product forms before it dissociates?

a)

Carbonic acid (H2CO3)

b)

Carbonate (CO32-)

c)

Calcium carbonate (CaCO3)

d)

Hydroxide (OH)

94.

What is the direct chemical reason that ocean pH decreases during acidification?

a)

Formation of additional calcium ions that consume hydroxide

b)

Production of hydrogen ions from carbonic acid dissociation

c)

Oxidation of dissolved oxygen into ozone near the surface

d)

Precipitation of carbonate minerals that remove bicarbonate

95.

Which outcome is most directly linked to reduced availability of carbonate ions in acidified waters?

a)

Enhanced photosynthesis in phytoplankton

b)

Greater formation of calcium carbonate shells and skeletons

c)

Difficulty for corals, clams, oysters, and some plankton to build shells

d)

Increased ocean salinity throughout the water column

96.

Consider the described chain of effects: rising atmospheric CO2 → more CO2 dissolved in seawater → formation of carbonic acid → release of hydrogen ions. Which systems-level consequence follows from this chain according to the passage?

a)

More stable coral reef growth due to thicker skeletons

b)

Shifts in ocean biodiversity as species’ behavior and survival change

c)

Rapid neutralization of acidity by sea ice formation

d)

Immediate recovery of shellfish populations due to increased bicarbonate

97.

Which statement best explains why coral reefs can erode faster than they rebuild under increasing acidity?

a)

Acidic water strengthens coral skeletons, promoting overgrowth that later collapses

b)

Weakening of coral skeletons under acidic conditions makes them more prone to breakdown and erosion

c)

Corals switch to silica-based skeletons that dissolve rapidly in alkaline water

d)

Higher pH causes carbonate to precipitate on corals, smothering growth

98.

Based on the passage, which scenario would most likely disrupt marine food webs?

a)

Decline of small shell-forming organisms that sit at the base of the food chain

b)

Temporary decrease in sea surface temperature during winter

c)

Increase in dissolved oxygen from enhanced wave action

d)

Growth of seagrasses that use bicarbonate during photosynthesis

99.

According to the passage, what best describes the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?

a)

A single solid island of trash floating on the ocean surface

b)

A massive region with dispersed debris, largely tiny plastic pieces mixed in water

c)

A narrow line of waste along the California coastline only

d)

A temporary slick that appears only after storms

100.

Which estimate for the size of the Great Pacific Garbage Patch is provided in the passage?

a)

About 16,000 square kilometers, similar to the size of Hawaii

b)

About 1.6 million square kilometers, roughly twice Texas or three times France

c)

About 620 square miles, similar to a small county

d)

About 62 million square kilometers, nearly the entire Pacific

101.

What are microplastics as described in the passage?

a)

Large intact bottles and nets that are easy to see and collect

b)

Tiny pieces of plastic that are often too small to see easily

c)

Natural sand grains produced by coral reefs

d)

Metal fragments from ships that rust into the water

102.

Where is the Great Pacific Garbage Patch located, and what oceanic feature maintains it?

a)

Between Japan and Alaska, maintained by tidal bores

b)

Between Hawaii and California, maintained by the North Pacific Gyre

c)

South of New Zealand, maintained by El Niño currents

d)

Near the equator off Ecuador, maintained by upwelling jets

103.

Why do plastics in the patch persist and become microplastics over time, according to the passage?

a)

They are quickly dissolved by salt, leaving no residue

b)

They do not break down easily; sunlight and waves gradually fragment them into smaller pieces

c)

They are consumed immediately by fish, removing them from the water

d)

They sink rapidly to the seafloor and decompose within weeks

104.

According to the section, which source contributes the largest share to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?

a)

Land-based litter carried by rain and wind

b)

Waste intentionally dumped from beaches

c)

Emissions from coastal power plants

d)

Natural seaweed accumulations

105.

Which item is specifically identified as a major component of marine-source debris and can entangle animals?

a)

Ghost nets made of lost fishing gear

b)

Glass bottles from cruise ships

c)

Metal cans from offshore platforms

d)

Wooden pallets from cargo ships

106.

Which scenario best exemplifies improper waste management leading to ocean pollution?

a)

A landfill located near a river allows trash to escape into waterways

b)

A fishing boat loses catch during a storm

c)

A city enacts a plastic bag fee at grocery stores

d)

An offshore platform incinerates its waste according to regulations

107.

Which outcome is directly described as a biological harm from plastics in the patch?

a)

Sea turtles, fish, and seabirds mistake plastic for food and become ill or die

b)

Coral reefs grow faster due to additional surfaces

c)

Whales avoid the region entirely due to noise pollution

d)

Algae blooms are eliminated by plastic shading

108.

A coastal community expects more debris in the ocean after a category 4 hurricane. Which reasoning aligns with the text?

a)

Storms and natural disasters can sweep large amounts of plastic and debris from land into the sea

b)

Hurricanes dissolve plastics before they reach the ocean

c)

Only tsunamis, not hurricanes, move trash into marine gyres

d)

Storm-driven currents keep debris near beaches rather than offshore

109.

Which action directly reduces the amount of new plastic entering the ocean by limiting single-use items?

a)

Using more disposable bags for convenience

b)

Choosing reusable bottles, bags, and containers

c)

Burning plastics in open pits near beaches

d)

Shipping trash to other countries for sorting

110.

A city wants to stop trash from reaching rivers during storms. Based on the guidance, which combined approach best applies the concept of prevention?

a)

Expanding landfills while allowing street littering to continue

b)

Keeping storm drains clear and organizing local cleanups

c)

Waiting for national laws before acting locally

d)

Focusing only on offshore cleanup vessels

111.

What is the purpose of fishing gear recovery programs in reducing the Great Pacific Garbage Patch?

a)

To sink plastic deeper so it is less visible

b)

To collect or recycle old nets and gear to prevent ghost nets from drifting

c)

To increase fish catch to fund cleanup

d)

To replace plastic nets with heavier metal nets

112.

An environmental agency is upgrading its recycling system and constructing better-engineered landfills. Which goal from the strategies does this most directly support?

a)

Improve waste management to prevent leakage into waterways

b)

Reduce fishing effort to curb overfishing only

c)

Educate boaters to avoid protected areas

d)

Install more offshore oil platforms

113.

A coastal community has limited funds. They can either (A) launch small local cleanups and clear storm drains monthly or (B) wait two years for a proposed large ocean barrier project. Which choice aligns better with preventing trash from entering the ocean sooner, given the strategies described?

a)

Option A, because preventing litter through local cleanups and drain maintenance stops waste before it reaches waterways

b)

Option B, because large ocean barriers work only after trash accumulates offshore

c)

Both are equally preventive because both operate offshore

d)

Neither option contributes to prevention; only laws matter

114.

Which pairing best connects a strategy with the mechanism it uses to limit plastic pollution growth?

a)

Education and laws—ban ocean dumping and inform the public to change behaviors

b)

Cleanup projects—discourage reusable containers to increase recycling rates

c)

Reduce plastic use—encourage single-use items for hygiene

d)

Fishing gear recovery—promote discarding nets at sea to avoid dock fees

115.

According to the FAO, what proportion of the world’s fish stocks are overfished, meaning fish are being caught faster than they can reproduce?

a)

About 7%

b)

About 33%

c)

About 40%

d)

About 60%

116.

Which statement best describes the status of the remaining global fish stocks besides the overfished portion, based on FAO data?

a)

Most are underfished, leaving a large buffer for recovery.

b)

Most are fished at maximum sustainable levels, leaving little room for error.

c)

Most are unmanaged and unmonitored, so their status is unknown.

d)

Most are protected in no-take marine reserves.

117.

Which species experienced a decline of over 90% in the last 50 years, illustrating the severity of overfishing on popular species?

a)

Bluefin tuna

b)

Atlantic cod

c)

Pacific salmon

d)

Mahi-mahi

118.

What does the text identify as a major economic consequence of overfishing for the global economy?

a)

An increase of $83 billion per year in fishing subsidies

b)

A loss of $83 billion per year in revenue from depleted fish populations

c)

A one-time $83 billion cost to retrofit fishing vessels

d)

An $83 billion annual increase in seafood prices paid by consumers

119.

Up to what fraction of fish caught worldwide are unintended species (bycatch), often including dolphins, turtles, and sharks?

a)

Up to 10%

b)

Up to 20%

c)

Up to 30%

d)

Up to 40%

120.

If current overfishing trends continue, what risk does the FAO warn about by 2050, and who is particularly threatened?

a)

Collapse of many major fish stocks, threatening food security for over 3 billion people who rely on fish as a primary protein source

b)

Complete recovery of most fish stocks, threatening coastal tourism for millions

c)

Minor declines in fish stocks, threatening luxury seafood markets only

d)

Stabilization of fish stocks, threatening freshwater fisheries rather than marine ones

121.

Which set of actions is listed as part of sustainable fishing practices designed to solve overfishing?

a)

Increasing net sizes, expanding fish markets, and subsidizing fuel

b)

Setting catch limits, protecting certain areas, banning destructive methods like bottom trawling, and promoting environmentally responsible aquaculture

c)

Opening all waters to fishing, eliminating quotas, and focusing on high-value species

d)

Encouraging recreational fishing only and banning commercial fishing globally

122.

As a consumer seeking to support ocean recovery, which choice aligns with the guidance provided?

a)

Buy only imported seafood to reduce local pressure on fish stocks

b)

Choose sustainably sourced seafood, looking for certification labels like the Marine Stewardship Council (MSC)

c)

Avoid seafood entirely, since all fisheries are overfished

d)

Prefer species at the top of the food web to stabilize ecosystems