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Final Exam 2022

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The two most abundant components of dry air are:

a)

oxygen and carbon dioxide.

b)

oxygen and water vapor.

c)

carbon dioxide and water vapor.

d)

nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

e)

nitrogen and oxygen.

2.

The two factors that are most important in determining the density of air are:

a)

temperature and salinity.

b)

nitrogen and water vapor content.

c)

temperature and water vapor content.

d)

temperature and ozone.

e)

carbon dioxide and water vapor content.

3.

Winds blowing out of the north toward the south in the southern hemisphere will appear to:

a)

be deflected toward the east.

b)

be deflected toward the west.

c)

circulate counterclockwise.

d)

circulate clockwise.

e)

travel in a straight line.

4.

A tropical maritime air mass is likely to be:

a)

dry and cold.

b)

dry and warm.

c)

wet and cold.

d)

wet and the same temperature.

e)

wet and warm.

5.

A cold air mass moving into an area occupied by relatively warm air is called a/an:

a)

cold front.

b)

high pressure system.

c)

low pressure system.

d)

occluded front.

e)

warm front.

6.

Inter-tropical Convergence Zone

a)

located at 23.5° N latitude

b)

located at 23.5° S latitude

c)

located at 30° S latitude

d)

area where warm, moist air rises close to the equator

e)

prevailing wind pattern at temperate latitudes

7.

Tropic of Cancer

a)

located at 23.5° N latitude

b)

located at 23.5° S latitude

c)

located at 30° S latitude

d)

area where warm, moist air rises close to the equator

e)

prevailing wind pattern at temperate latitudes

8.

Trade winds

a)

located at 23.5° N latitude

b)

located at 23.5° S latitude

c)

located at 30° S latitude

d)

area where warm, moist air rises close to the equator

e)

prevailing wind pattern at temperate latitudes

9.

All of the following are true of the movement of Earth's atmosphere except:

a)

a column of cool, dense air produces high pressure at the Earth's surface.

b)

a column of warm, less dense air produces low pressure at the Earth's surface.

c)

cool air is denser than warm air so it tends to sink toward the Earth's surface.

d)

the movement of air within the atmospheric convection cells generates the Earth's major wind belts.

e)

warm air is less dense than cool air so it tends to sink toward the Earth's surface.

10.

The strength of a hurricane is ranked from 1 to 5 on the:

a)

Coriolis Scale.

b)

Fujita Scale.

c)

Moh's Scale.

d)

Richter Scale.

e)

Saffir-Simpson Scale

11.

The largest loss of life from a hurricane is usually due to:

a)

high winds.

b)

intense precipitation.

c)

low atmospheric pressure.

d)

storm surge.

12.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

ecliptic

b)

vernal equinox

c)

autumnal equinox

d)

westerlies

e)

summer solstice

13.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

maximum sustained winds

b)

minimum central pressure

c)

sea surface salinity

d)

storm surge

e)

storm diameter

14.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

nitrogen

b)

albedo

c)

oxygen

d)

troposphere

e)

water vapor

15.

Near the poles, more energy is reflected back into space than is absorbed.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Warm air can hold more water vapor than cold air.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

A wedge shaped boundary between two air masses with different densities is typical for a cold front.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Coriolis deflection is highest at the equator (0 degree latitude).

a)

True

b)

False

19.

The Coriolis effect describes how moving objects on Earth appear to follow curved paths due to Earth's rotation.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The autumnal equinox occurs when the sun is directly overhead along the equator in March.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The lowermost portion of the atmosphere where most weather occurs is called the:

a)

stratosphere.

b)

troposphere.

c)

ozone layer.

d)

tropopause.

e)

upper atmosphere.

22.

A person experiences a popping feeling in their ears during the takeoff or landing of an airplane or while driving on steep mountain roads due to changes in the ________ of the atmosphere.

a)

density

b)

temperature

c)

movement

d)

water vapor content

e)

pressure

23.

The horse latitudes boundary occurs in which of the following regions?

a)

5 to 30 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

30 to 60 degrees

d)

60 degrees

e)

60 to 90 degrees

24.

Of the following statements about the doldrums, which is NOT true?

a)

The doldrums are the wind boundary between the trade winds and the prevailing westerlies.

b)

There is usually little wind but a lot of rain associated with the doldrums.

c)

The doldrums are an area of low atmospheric pressure.

d)

The doldrums are the boundary between the northeast trade winds and the southeast trade winds.

e)

This is also known as the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ).

25.

The air in the center of the eye of the hurricane is ________ air moving ________.

a)

warm moist; upward

b)

warm moist; downward

c)

cool dry; upward

d)

cool dry; downward

26.

Considering our current technology, how much of the U.S. energy needs could realistically be supplied by renewable wind energy?

a)

5%

b)

20%

c)

70%

d)

35%

e)

50%

27.

Which of the following is a major disadvantage to the use or production of wind power?

a)

the equipment needed to generate the power

b)

variation of wind speed

c)

wildlife is greatly affected by turbines

d)

the energy storage method

28.

Earth's atmosphere is heated primarily by __________.

a)

re-radiation of solar energy from Earth's surface back into the atmosphere as infrared radiation

b)

conduction of heat from Earth's surface

c)

solar energy interacting with the ionosphere

d)

latent heat of condensation in storms

e)

solar energy interacting with the stratosphere

29.

Based on the characteristics, what is the name of the wind belt being described as strong, steady winds, generally from the east?

a)

Trade winds

b)

Prevailing winds

c)

Polar easterlies

d)

None of the above

30.

In coastal regions, sea breezes happen ________ and land breezes happen ________.

a)

in the morning; at night

b)

at night; in the morning

c)

at night; in the afternoon

d)

in the afternoon; at night

31.

Sediment samples from deep beneath the ocean floor are recovered by __________.

a)

dredging

b)

rotary drilling

c)

gravity coring

d)

instrumented probes

e)

grab sampling

32.

Which type of marine sediments include siliceous and calcareous oozes?

a)

Cosmogenous

b)

Biogenous

c)

Lithogenous

d)

Hydrogenous

33.

Volcanic ash is considered to be which type of marine sediment?

a)

Cosmogenous

b)

Lithogenous

c)

Hydrogenous

d)

Biogenous

34.

Examine the five words and/or phrases and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the one option that does not fit the pattern.

a)

Hydrogenous

b)

Lithogenous

c)

Calcareous

d)

Cosmogenous

e)

Biogenous

35.

Marine sediments that originate in the warm tropical surface ocean would create deposits in the deep sea composed primarily of ___________.

a)

calcium carbonate

b)

metal sulfides

c)

volcanic ash

d)

quartz sand

e)

silica

36.

The most abundant mineral in lithogenous sediments is __________.

a)

gypsum

b)

quartz

c)

halite

d)

aragonite

e)

calcite

37.

Sediment that begins as rocks on continents or islands is called ________.

a)

biogenous sediment

b)

lithogenous (terrigenous) sediment

c)

hydrogenous sediment

d)

cosmogenous sediment

38.

Sandstone is an example of which of the following sediment types?

a)

Biogenous Sediment

b)

Cosmogenous Sediment

c)

Hydrogenous Sediment

d)

Lithogenous Sediment

39.

Stromatolites are an example of which of the following sediment types?

a)

Biogenous Sediment

b)

Cosmogenous Sediment

c)

Hydrogenous Sediment

d)

Lithogenous Sediment

e)

Terrigenous Sediment

40.

Phosphate-rich nodules form in:

a)

estuaries.

b)

abyssal plains.

c)

mid-ocean ridges.

d)

intermediate to shallow depth water.

e)

hydrothermal vent areas.

41.

The dissolution of the thick tests of foraminifers below the CCD is an example of the ________ of biogenous sediment.

a)

destruction

b)

erosion

c)

ecology

d)

dilution

e)

productivity

42.

The settling of the thick tests of foraminifers into the seafloor is an example of the ________ of biogenous sediment.

a)

destruction

b)

erosion

c)

ecology

d)

dilution

e)

productivity

43.

The most likely place to find abundant manganese nodules is on the:

a)

continental rise.

b)

crest of a mid-ocean ridge.

c)

abyssal plain far from a continent.

d)

continental shelf.

e)

All of the above locations contain manganese nodules.

44.

You take a sediment sample from the ocean floor at a depth of 5500 m. The area has low biological productivity and the CCD is at 4500 m depth. Your sample will probably consist of __________.

a)

calcareous ooze

b)

clay

c)

coral

d)

siliceous ooze

e)

sand

45.

The K-T boundary contained an unusual clay layer with high proportions of which element?

a)

Mercury

b)

Platinum

c)

Gold

d)

Iridium

e)

Rhodium

46.

In general, polar neritic sediment tends to have more ________.

a)

silt and sand than in tropical waters

b)

coral debris than in tropical waters

c)

gravel than in tropical waters

d)

clay than in temperate waters

e)

shell fragments than in temperate waters

47.

A very important way to increase the settling rate of fine particles in the open ocean is via:

a)

deposit feeders.

b)

precipitation.

c)

fecal pellets.

d)

wind.

e)

carbonate dissolution.

48.

The sediments that are produced in areas of high primary productivity are indicated by the number(s):

a)

3.

b)

3 & 4.

c)

2 & 3.

d)

1.

e)

2.

49.

Calcareous oozes are represented by the number(s):

a)

4.

b)

3 & 4.

c)

2 & 3.

d)

1.

e)

2.

50.

China currently supplies about 90% of which of the following resources?

a)

Manganese nodules and crusts

b)

Gas hydrates

c)

Sand and gravel

d)

Phosphorite

e)

Rare-earth elements

51.

The ancient remains of which of the following, buried before they could decompose, are the source of today's petroleum deposits?

a)

Dinosaurs

b)

Fish and amphibians

c)

Peat and coal

d)

Land based plants

e)

Microscopic organisms

52.

Which of the following is thought to have enriched ocean floor sediments with rare-earth elements?

a)

Sea floor methane seeps

b)

Clathrate formation

c)

Deep-sea hotsprings

d)

Groundwater leaching

e)

Nodule and crust creation

53.

Which of the following contains the most organic carbon on Earth?

a)

Fossil Fuels

b)

Living organisms

c)

Gas hydrates

d)

Peat

e)

Soil

54.

If the calcium carbonate sediments get deposited at depths below the CCD,

a)

the sediment grows as it accumulates more CaCO3 mineral

b)

the sediment very gradually chemically changes into siliceous minerals

c)

the sediment dissolves

d)

the sediments get subducted into the trenches

55.

All of the following are hydrogenous sediments except:

a)

evaporites.

b)

halites.

c)

manganese nodule.

d)

phosphates.

e)

stromatolites.

56.

All of the following are true concerning neritic sediment deposits except:

a)

they may contain coarse-grained sand and rock fragments in the sediments.

b)

they may contain sediments of lithogenous origin.

c)

they may contain sediments transported from rivers onto the continental shelf.

d)

they may form in shallow coastal waters.

e)

they are primarily composed of calcareous deposits of biological origin.

57.

High-energy environments are most likely to deposit which one of the following?

a)

clay-sized particles

b)

cosmogenous sediments

c)

large particles such as gravel

d)

manganese nodules

e)

silt-sized particles

58.

Which of the following contains calcium carbonate (CaCO3)?

a)

diatoms

b)

foraminiferans

c)

methane hydrates

d)

manganese nodules

e)

radiolarians

59.

Which of the following contains silica (SiO2)?

a)

coccolithophores

b)

corals

c)

foraminiferans

d)

manganese nodules

e)

radiolarians

60.

The type of marine sediment that forms the thickest deposits worldwide is:

a)

abyssal clay deposits.

b)

manganese nodule deposits.

c)

neritic, lithogenous sediment deposits.

d)

neritic siliceous sediment deposits.

e)

pelagic biogenous calcareous deposits.

61.
What drives tectonic plate movement? 
a)
gravity
b)
coriolis effect
c)

mantle

convection currents

d)
the earth's magnetic core
62.
What are the two types of crust?
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and basin
c)
lower and upper
d)
thick and thin
63.
According to Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift, 
a)
Earth's surface is made up of seven major landmasses
b)
the continents DO NOT move
c)
Earth is slowly cooling and shrinking
d)
the continents were once joined together in a single landmass
64.

Which layer of the Earth produces the Earth's magnetic field?

a)

Outer core

b)

Inner core

c)

Mantle

d)

Crust

65.
What type of evidence was NOT used by Alfred Wegener to support his continental drift hypothesis?
a)
evidence from landforms
b)
evidence from fossils
c)
evidence from human remains
d)
evidence from climate
66.
Most geologists rejected Alfred Wegener's idea of continental drift because...
a)
it did not agree with their current theory
b)
Wegener was interested in what Earth was like millions of years ago
c)
Wegener used several different types of evidence to support his hypothesis
d)
Wegener could not identify the force that moved the continents
67.
In Seafloor Spreading, molten material rises from the mantle and erupts or flows out 
a)
along the edges of all the continents
b)
along mid-ocean ridges
c)
in the deep ocean trenches
d)
in the north and south poles
68.
What discovery caused scientists to rethink Wegener's continental drift theory?
a)
discovery of earthquake activity in California
b)
discovery of the ring of fire in the Pacific Ocean
c)
discovery of seafloor spreading in the Atlantic Ocean
d)
discovery of deep trenches off the coast of South America
69.
Investigation of seafloor spreading showed what about the age of the seafloor?
a)
the oldest seafloor is at the ridge
b)
youngest seafloor is destroyed at the ridge
c)
youngest seafloor is farthest from the ridge
d)
oldest seafloor is farthest from the ridge
70.

Earth's internal processes are driven primarily by what?

a)

Heat and convection currents

b)

Ocean currents

c)

Weathering and erosion

d)

Earthquakes and volcanoes

71.

Present day fossils of similar organisms are found on different continents. This supports the theory of continental drift how?

a)

The environment of these organisms was once connected when continents were joined

b)

The organisms were avian and could flew over a wide range

c)

The organisms often migrated

d)

The organisms had a large population that was widespread

72.

Some fossils found on Antarctica required a tropical climate to live. How does this support the theory of continental drift?

a)

The climate at the poles of the earth is cold, meaning that Antarctica used to be closer to the equator.

b)

The climate at the poles of the earth was once warm

c)

The equator used to be at the poles of the earth

d)

The earth's orientation was once such that the poles of the earth were closer to the sun

73.

The book The History of Ocean Basins, which contained the idea of seafloor spreading, was written by geologist:

a)

Harry Hess

b)

Frederick Vine

c)

Alfred Wegener

d)

John T. Wilson

74.

Why don't present day continents fit perfectly together?

a)

erosion of coastlines and changes in the sea level

b)

They have been twisted by earthquakes

c)

Fossils

d)

Human actions have changed the shape of coastlines

75.

Which of these boundaries is responsible for creating volcanic arcs?

a)

Continental - Continental Convergence

b)

Oceanic - Continental Convergence

c)

Mid Ocean Ridges

d)

Oceanic - Oceanic Convergence

76.

Which of these creates a trench? Select all that apply.

a)

Oceanic - Oceanic Convergence

b)

Continental - Continental Convergence

c)

Continental - Oceanic Convergence

d)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

77.

When one tectonic plate is pulled under another and into the mantle, it's called:

a)

A Subduction Zone

b)

A Transform Boundary

c)

A Ridge

d)

A Folded Mountain

78.

A boundary that doesn't create or destroy crust is called a:

a)

Transform Boundary

b)

Convergent Boundary

c)

Divergent Boundary

d)

Rift Valley

79.

When a divergent boundary happens under continental crust, it's called a:

a)

Rift Valley

b)

Block Mountain

c)

Folded Mountain

d)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

80.

Volcanoes are most likely to occur along a _______.

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

All of the above

81.

The Himalayan mountains were formed because of a _______.

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

All of the above

82.

Observe the photo below. What process is in the photo?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

None of the above

83.

What plate boundary is in the photo below?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

None of the above

84.

What is an example of a Transform Plate boundary

a)

Himalaya Mountain Range

b)

San Andreas Fault

c)

Mariana Trench

d)

Grand Canyon

85.

Which type of plate is denser?

a)

Continental

b)

Oceanic

86.

Which rock type is the continental plate made of?

a)

Balsalt

b)

Chalk

c)

Granite

d)

Sandstone

87.

What is a hotspot?

a)

The location of volcanoes at plate boundaries.

b)

Volcanoes at a conservative plate boundary.

c)

Volcanoes at a convergent plate boundary.

d)

Volcanoes that exist in the middle of tectonic plates.

88.

Name the plate labelled "C"

a)

north american plate

b)

nazca plate

c)

indian plate

d)

african plate

89.

What is the name of the tectonic plate labelled "D"

a)

Eurasian plate

b)

North America plate

c)

Antarctica plate

d)

Cocos plate

90.

What is the name of the tectonic plate labelled "D"

a)

Eurasian plate

b)

North America plate

c)

Antarctica plate

d)

Cocos plate

91.

Name the tectonic plate labelled "K"

a)

Juan De Fuca

b)

Nazca

c)

Carribean

d)

Cocos

92.

Plate B is also known as ?

a)

Antarctica plate

b)

African plate

c)

South American plate

d)

Eurasian plate

93.

This plate labelled "M" is called the .................?

a)

Nazca plate

b)

Cocos plate

c)

Juan De Fuca plate

d)

Carribean plate

94.

"N" is the __________________ plate

a)

Pacific plate

b)

Antarctica plate

c)

Eurasian plate

d)

Indo-Australian plate

95.

The plate labelled "A" is the ______________ plate

a)

Pacific plate

b)

Arabian plate

c)

Philippines plate

d)

Carribean plate

96.

"G" is the ____________________ plate

a)

North American

b)

Cocos

c)

Nazca

d)

Juan de Fuca

e)

South American

97.

If the rate and direction of plate movement remain the same for the next 50 million years, what would then be an accurate prediction?

a)

Rifting of the Eurasian plate to form a juvenile ocean

b)

Subsidence of the Himalayan Mountains

c)

Suturing of the Atlantic Ocean

d)

Merging of California onto Alaska

98.

Which of the following is an example of the embryonic stage of the Wilson Cycle?

a)

East Africa

b)

Atlantic Ocean

c)

Mediterranean Sea

d)

Himalayas

99.

Which stage of the Wilson cycle is the Atlantic Ocean currently in?

a)

Declining stage

b)

Embryonic stage

c)

Mature stage

d)

Juvenile stage

100.

Of the Hawaiian Island Chain, which island is the youngest in age?

a)

Kauai

b)

Molokai

c)

Hawaii (Big Island)

d)

Maui

101.

Deep ocean currents are driven primarily by ________ and caused by ________.

a)

density differences; the Coriolis effect and land

b)

density differences; differences in salinity and temperature

c)

latitude; differences in salinity and land

d)

wind; the Coriolis effect and land

e)

wind; gravity and density

102.

Which of the following is a direct method for measuring surface currents?

a)

pressure gradients

b)

radio altimeters

c)

dynamic topography maps

d)

propeller flow meter

103.

Ocean surface currents transfer about ________ of the total amount of heat from the tropics to the poles.

a)

1/4

b)

1/3

c)

1/2

d)

2/3

e)

4/3

104.

Surface ocean currents are driven primarily by ________ and modified by ________.

a)

density differences; the Coriolis effect and land

b)

density differences; differences in salinity and temperature

c)

latitude; differences in salinity and land

d)

wind; the Coriolis effect and land

e)

wind; gravity and density

105.

Equatorial currents are driven by _________.

a)

Coriolis Force

b)

density

c)

Ekman transport

d)

Trade Winds

e)

westerlies

106.

Identify the mismatched pair from the choices below

a)

Agulhas Current, West Australia Current

b)

Brazil Current, Benguela Current

c)

Canary Current, Gulf Stream

d)

Kuroshio Current, California Current

e)

Labrador Current, Humboldt Current

107.

Compared to western boundary currents, eastern boundary currents are ________.

a)

broad and deep

b)

broad and slow

c)

deep and swift

d)

narrow and deep

e)

shallow and swift

108.

The Ekman spiral is caused by ________.

a)

density differences in the water column

b)

the win and gravity

c)

the wind and the Coriolis effect

d)

the pycnocline

e)

pressure gradients

109.

Which type of current flow moves in a circular path around a subtropical convergence, reflecting Ekman transport, gravity, and the Coriolis effect?

a)

Counter-current circulation

b)

Density- driven circulation

c)

Geostrophic circulation

d)

Thermohaline circulation

110.

Western intensification causes ________.

a)

a steeper slope of surface water in the western section of the gyre as compare to the eastern section of the gyre

b)

equatorial countercurrents

c)

the center of the gyre to be shift to the west

d)

very swift western boundary currents

e)

all of the choices are the result of westward intensification

111.

The Brazil Current is associated with which Gyre?

a)

North Pacific Gyre

b)

North Atlantic Gyre

c)

Indian Ocean Gyre

d)

South Atlantic Gyre

112.

How many subtropical gyres are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

113.

Warm currents flowing ________ on the ________ sides of continents produce warm, humid conditions.

a)

poleward; eastern

b)

poleward; western

c)

toward the equator; eastern

d)

toward the equator; western

114.

Deep-water currents move ________ volumes of water and are much ________ than surface currents.

a)

larger; faster

b)

larger; slower

c)

smaller; faster

d)

smaller; slower

115.

An increase in seawater density can be caused by a ________ in temperature or a(n) ________ in salinity.

a)

decrease; decrease

b)

decrease; increase

c)

increase; decrease

d)

increase; increase

116.

Which of the following currents contributes to the South Eastern United States being humid?

a)

Brazil Current

b)

California Current

c)

Gulf Stream

d)

North Atlantic Current

e)

North Equatorial Current

117.

Surface waters are pushed away from land and replaced by nutrient-rich deep water through ________.

a)

convergence

b)

downwelling

c)

land breezes

d)

upwelling

e)

sea breezes

118.

Which conditions in the ocean promote high productivity?

a)

warm water, rich nutrients

b)

warm water, poor nutrients

c)

cold water, poor nutrients

d)

cold water, rich nutrients

119.

Which of the following is true of surface water circulation near Antarctica?

a)

a gyre is formed here

b)

two circumpolar currents dominate it, one current that moves water to the east and one current that moves water to the west.

c)

It is dominated by water flow directly away from the polar region toward the north.

d)

The surface ocean has no strong currents

e)

The circulation of water around the Antarctic continent is driven by density differences.

120.

During winter months, monsoon winds over the Indian Ocean ________.

a)

flow from land to sea and are dry

b)

flow from sea to land and are wet

c)

flow from land to sea and are wet

d)

flow from sea to land and are dry

121.

The El Niño Southern Oscillation can best be described as ________.

a)

relative changes between two different atmospheric pressure systems at high altitude

b)

the relationship between sea surface temperature and changing atmospheric pressure

c)

tidal differences between coastal Peru and Darwin, Australia

d)

variation in wind speed over the Pacific Ocean

e)

wind speed and wind direction differences along the equator

122.

The main current in Antarctic waters is the ________ Current.

a)

Antarctic Circumpolar

b)

Benguela

c)

Malvinas

d)

South Australian

e)

South Equatorial

123.

The Sargasso Sea is the water that circulates around the rotation center of the ________ gyre

a)

Indian Ocean

b)

North Atlantic

c)

North Pacific

d)

South Atlantic

e)

South Pacific

124.

Which feature forms right after liquid slush develops?

a)

Pancake ice

b)

Ice floes

c)

Pressure ridges

d)

Icebergs

125.

) Deep ocean currents occur in the deep zone below the pycnocline, so they influence about ________ of all ocean water.

a)

90%

b)

80%

c)

70%

d)

60%

e)

50%

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