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Anatomy Fall Midterm Review - All Units

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In identifying that cells make up tissues which make up organs which make up organ systems in the human organism, which one of the essential concepts of A&P are you illustrating?

a)

Hierarchy of structural organization

b)

Complementary structure and function

c)

Homeostasis

2.

In recognizing that the heart valves cause the one-way blood flow that effectively delivers oxygen, which one of the essential concepts of A&P do you understand?

a)

Hierarchy of structural organization

b)

Complementary structure and function

c)

Homeostasis

3.

What are examples that represent an anatomical study?

a)

Calculating lung capacity

b)

Observing the ligaments that support the knee

c)

Measuring blood sugar levels after eating

d)

Tracking heart rate while excerising

4.

What are examples that would not represent an anatomical study?

a)

Comparing the size of different mammals femurs

b)

Measuring blood pressure before and after a meal

c)

Dissecting a section of the brain

d)

Identifying the muscles of the abdomen

5.

Which of the systems is responsible for rapid, short term communication?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Skeletal system

c)

Digestive system

d)

Nervous system

6.

A group of tissues working together to cause a common function is known as a:

a)

Organism

b)

Organ system

c)

Organ

d)

Cell

7.

What are examples of negative feedback?

a)

Sweating to lower body temperature

b)

Insulin lowering blood sugar

c)

Contractions during childbirth

d)

Blood clotting

8.

What are examples of positive feedback?

a)

Shivering to raise body temperature

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Calcitonin lowering blood calcium levels

d)

Contractions during childbirth

9.

The plane that divides anterior from posterior is the __________ plane.

a)

oblique

b)

sagittal

c)

transverse

d)

frontal

10.

The diaphragm separates the ___________ and ___________ cavities.

a)

thoracic ; abdominal

b)

pelvic ; abdominal

c)

cranial ; spinal

d)

pelvic ; thoracic

11.

The membrane which forms the lining directly on the surface of the heart is the

a)

parietal peritoneum

b)

visceral pericardium

c)

visceral pleura

d)

parietal pericardium

12.

Letter A -

a)

umbilical

b)

sural

c)

cranial

d)

pectoral

13.

Letter B -

a)

coxal

b)

popliteal

c)

femoral

d)

sacral

14.

Letter C

a)

Pectoral

b)

Cervical

c)

Sacral

d)

Umbilical

15.

Letter D

a)

Sacral

b)

Lumbar

c)

Thoracic

d)

Plantar

16.

Letter E

a)

Cranial

b)

Femoral

c)

Cervical

d)

Sural

17.

Letter F

a)

Popliteal

b)

Pectoral

c)

Umbilical

d)

Scapular

18.

Letter G

a)

Femoral

b)

Metacarpal

c)

Digital

d)

Patellar

19.

Letter H

a)

Tarsal

b)

Popliteal

c)

Perineal

d)

Vertebral

20.

Letter I

a)

Antecubital

b)

Cervical

c)

Cranial

d)

Thoracic

21.

Which layer of skin contains features that give us our no slip grip and forms fingerprints?

a)

Reticular layer

b)

Hypodermis

c)

Papillary layer

d)

Stratum corneum

22.

What are characteristics of the epidermis?

a)

Avascular

b)

Water proof

c)

Dead keratinized cells

d)

All of the above

23.

Goosebumps or the “hair standing on end” occur because of the contraction of?

a)

Sudoriferous glands

b)

Frontalis

c)

Nerve receptors

d)

Arrector pili muscles

24.

  _______ along with sweating, is involved in cooling down the body.

a)

Shivering

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Insulin

25.

Letter A

a)

dermis

b)

epidermis

c)

hair follicle

d)

nerve receptor

26.

Letter B

a)

blood vessels

b)

dermis

c)

Arrector pili muscles

d)

hypodermis

27.

Letter C

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hypodermis

d)

Sebaceous gland

28.

Letter D -

a)

Arrector pili muscle

b)

Pacinian corpuscle

c)

Nerve ending

d)

Hair follicle

29.

Letter E

a)

Cutaneous blood vessels

b)

Sebaceous gland

c)

Arrector pili muscle

d)

Dermis

30.

Letter F

a)

Arrector pili muscle

b)

Dermis

c)

Cutaneous blood vessels

d)

Epidermis

31.

Which one of following is NOT a correctly matched function of bones?

a)

Storage: of fat and minerals

b)

Protection: produces hormones that initiate fight or flight in response to threats

c)

Hematopoiesis: blood cell formation

d)

Support: Internal framework

32.

Hematopoiesis is carried out in the __________

a)

yellow bone marrow

b)

liver

c)

epiphyseal plate

d)

red bone marrow

33.

The _____________ is to bone as a coat is to you

a)

endosteum

b)

periosteum

c)

perimysium

d)

epimysium

34.

Your joints can move with smooth friction reduced motion due to __________ on the ends of the bones.

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

reticular cartilage

c)

articular cartilage

d)

irregular connective tissue

35.

Longitudinal growth ceases when the ________________ plates ossify

a)

epiphyseal

b)

endochondral

c)

cranial

d)

periosteum

36.

Which type of fracture is typically only seen in children?

a)

Comminuted fractures

b)

Greenstick fractures

c)

Depression fractures

d)

Impact fractures

37.

In a compound fracture, what are additional complications?

a)

hypothermia

b)

infection

c)

brain damage

d)

pannus

38.

If you are a post-menopausal aged woman, which bone disorder you are most likely develop?

a)

gouty arthritis

b)

Osteoporosis

c)

Ricketts

d)

Fibromyalgia

39.

A person who has a blood cell cancer, such as leukemia, has uncontrolled cell growth in the region of the bone called -

a)

heart

b)

melanocytes

c)

abdomen

d)

red bone marrow

40.

Letter A

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Spongy bone

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Epiphyseal plate

41.

Letter B

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Spongy bone

d)

Epiphyseal line

42.

Letter C

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Spongy bone

d)

Epiphyseal line

43.

Letter D

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Spongy bone

d)

Epiphyseal line

44.

Which fracture is most likely to occur from a fall with an outstretched arm?

a)

b)

c)

d)

45.

1Which fracture is most likely to cause an infection?

a)

b)

c)

d)

46.

Which fracture is most likely to occur in a child?

a)

b)

c)

d)

47.

Which fracture is most likely to occur in an older adult?

a)

b)

c)

d)

48.

Which of these are a hinge joint?

a)

Neck

b)

Elbow and knee

c)

Hip and shoulder

49.

Which of these are a ball and socket joint?

a)

Neck

b)

Elbow and knee

c)

Hip and shoulder

50.

Which of these are a pivot joint?

a)

Neck

b)

Elbow and knee

c)

Hip and shoulder

51.

fibrocartilage discs that subdivide a joint cavity to improve stability

a)

articular cartilage

b)

menisci

c)

synovial fluid

d)

synovial membrane

52.

Lubricating liquid that also nourishes articular cartilage

a)

articular cartilage

b)

menisci

c)

synovial fluid

d)

synovial membrane

53.

produces synovial fluid, inner portion of articular capsule

a)

articular cartilage

b)

menisci

c)

synovial fluid

d)

synovial membrane

54.

protects & cushions ends of bone

a)

articular cartilage

b)

menisci

c)

synovial fluid

d)

synovial membrane

55.

What is the contractile unit of a muscle?

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Myofiber

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

Motor neuron

56.

In muscles, ______ are the thin myofilaments and _________ are the thick myofilaments

a)

troponin ; actin

b)

myosin ; actin

c)

tropomyosin ; myosin

d)

actin ; myosin

57.

What are the 3 major functions of muscles?

a)

movement

b)

heat generation

c)

posture maintenance

d)

all of the above

58.

The attachment site attached to immovable bone is the muscle’s

a)

insertion

b)

origin

c)

head

d)

tendon

59.

The attachment site attached to the movable bone is the muscle’s

a)

insertion

b)

origin

c)

destination

d)

fixator

60.

The bulk of a muscle’s body lies ________ to the joint it crosses.

a)

proximal

b)

distal

c)

anterior

d)

lateral

61.

During contractions the _______ moves towards the __________.

a)

origin ; insertion

b)

fixator ; synergist

c)

insertion ; origin

d)

agonist ; synergist

62.

Ability to receive and respond to stimulus

a)

extensibility

b)

elasticity

c)

contractility

d)

excitability

63.

Ability to shorten forcibly

a)

extensibility

b)

elasticity

c)

contractility

d)

excitability

64.

Ability to be stretched or extended

a)

extensibility

b)

elasticity

c)

contractility

d)

excitability

65.

Ability to resume resting length (recoil)

a)

extensibility

b)

elasticity

c)

contractility

d)

excitability

66.

A muscle that stabilizes a motion, aids the antagonist

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

synergist

d)

fixator

67.

Muscle responsible for producing a movement

a)

antagonists

b)

agonist

c)

synergist

d)

fixator

68.

A muscle that helps the prime mover

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

synergist

d)

fixator

69.

Reverses or opposes a motion

a)

antagonist

b)

agonist

c)

synergist

d)

fixator

70.

Letter A

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Temporalis

c)

Frontalis

d)

Quadriceps

71.

Letter B

a)

Orbicularis oris

b)

Grastrocnemius

c)

Rectus abdominus

d)

Masseter

72.

Letter C

a)

Sternocleidomastoid

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Pectoralis major

d)

Deltoid

73.

Letter D

a)

Latissimus dorsi

b)

Gluteus maximus

c)

Hamstring

d)

Deltoid

74.

Letter E

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Extensor radialis

d)

Brachialis

75.

Letter AB

a)

External oblique

b)

Adductor

c)

Rectus abdominus

d)

Gracialis

76.

Letter AD

a)

Flexor digitorum

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Sternocleidomastoid

77.

Letter BC

a)

Zygomaticus

b)

Masseter

c)

Gluteus medius

d)

Trapezius

78.

Letter AE

a)

Frontalis

b)

Deltoid

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Sternocleidomastoid

79.

Letter AC

a)

Rectus abdominus

b)

External oblique

c)

Sartorius

d)

Latissimus dorsi

80.

Letter BD

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Femoralis

d)

Soleus

81.

Letter A

a)

Deltoid

b)

Trapezius

c)

Triceps brachii

d)

Hamstring

82.

Letter B

a)

Biceps brachii

b)

Peroneus longus

c)

Brachiradialis

d)

Triceps brachii

83.

Letter C

a)

Trapezius

b)

Latissimus dorsi

c)

Gluteus medius

d)

Gastrocnemius

84.

Letter D

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Gluteus medius

c)

Hamstring

d)

Gluteus maximus

85.

Letter E

a)

Deltoid

b)

Sartorius

c)

Gluteus maximus

d)

Gluteus minumus

86.

Letter AB

a)

Quadriceps

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Tibialis posterior

d)

Hamstring

87.

Letter AC

a)

Extensor digitorum

b)

Sartorius

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Gracialis

88.

Letter AD

a)

Soleus

b)

Sartorius

c)

Gluteus maximus

d)

Pectoralis minor

89.

Name the 3 primary functions of the nervous system.

a)

Sensory input, integration, motor output

b)

Reproduction, sensory input, integrateion

c)

Sensory input, protection, integration

d)

Movement, integration, motor output

90.

Neurons can _____________ while neuroglial cell can __________.

a)

Conduct ; transmit

b)

replicate ; conduct

c)

insulate ; protect

d)

conduct ; replicate

91.

Which type of neuron transmits a nerve impulse toward the CNS?

a)

Sensory/afferent neurons

b)
Glial cells
c)

Interneurons / association neurons

d)

Motor / efferent neurons

92.

Write the steps of impulse conduction through a neuron in order beginning with the dendrite.

a)

Dendrite -> cell body -> axon -> synapse

b)

Dendrite -> axon -> cell body -> synapse

c)

Dendrite -> synapse -> cell body -> axon

d)

Dendrite -> axon -> cell body -> synapse

93.

Name the small space between a neuron and its target cell that prevents continuous stimulation of a neuron.

a)

Synapse

b)

Synaptic cleft

c)

Dendrite

d)

Myelin sheath

94.

The association neurons are found completely within the ______ and are responsible for ____________.

a)

CNS ; sensory input

b)

PNS ; integration/reflexes

c)

CNS ; integration/reflexes

d)

PNS ; motor output

95.

What is sensory input?

a)

The gathering of information from the internal and external environment

b)

All of the above

c)

Processing and interpreting of sensory information and determining whether a response is needed

d)

Activating a muscle or gland in response to sensory information

96.

What is motor output?

a)

Processing and interpreting sensory information

b)

Activating muscles or glands in response to sensory information

c)

Gathering information from the internal and external environment

d)

The speed at which a muscle can contract

97.

What is integration?

a)

Activating muscles or glands in response to sensory information

b)

Processing and interpreting of sensory information

c)

Gathering information from the internal and external environment

d)

Generating voltage through the movement of charged ions

98.

What is a dendrite?

a)

Structure that receives impulses and transmits them to the cell body

b)

Structure that transmits impulses from the cell body to the target cell

c)

Structure that processes and interprets impulses.

d)

Space in between a neuron and its target cell

99.

What is the cell body of a neuron?

a)

The structure that conducts electrical impulses

b)

The metabolic control center of the cell

c)

The structure that detects sensory information

d)

The structure that stores neurotransmitters

100.

What is an axon?

a)

A protective coating that speeds up nerve impulses

b)

A structure that conducts impulses from the cell body to the target cell

c)

The structure that detects sensory stimuli

d)

The structure that processes sensory information

101.

What is an axon terminal?

a)

Structure that detects stimuli

b)

Structure that conducts impulses away from the cell body

c)

Structure that stores neurotransmitters

d)

Structure that transmits signals towards the cell body

102.

What is the neurilemma?

a)

Space in between a neuron and its target cell

b)

Site that detects stimuli

c)

Site where the electrical impulses are actually generated

d)

Site of neurotransmitter storage

103.

What is a synapse?

a)

An electrical impulse generate by neurons.

b)

The space separating a neuron and its target cell

c)

Entire junction of a neuron, its target cell, and the space separating them.

d)

A protective coating that speeds up signal transduction

104.

What is a synaptic cleft?

a)

The structure that stores neurotransmitters

b)

The space separating a neuron from its target cell

c)

The structure that conducts impulses towards the cell body

d)

The target cell of a neuron

105.

What is a glioma?

a)

A type of white blood cell that protects nerve cells

b)

A tumor formed from the glial cells in the nervous system

c)

A neuron that is replicating out of control

d)

The structure that generates electricity in the brain

106.

What is a neurotransmitter?

a)

Structures that perform integration in the CNS

b)

Chemical messengers released by neurons to communicate with their target cell

c)

Electrical impulses generated by sensory neurons

d)

Structures that transmit electrical impulses away from the cell body

107.

What is a myelin sheath?

a)

A protective coating that speeds up nerve signal transduction

b)

Where electrical signals are actually generated on a neuron

c)

A structure that helps nerves replicate when they are worn out

d)

A structure that detects sensory stimuli

108.

What is saltatory conduction?

a)

The processing and interpreting of sensory information in the brain

b)

Electrical impulses skipping over myelin sheaths as they travel down an axon

c)

The type of signal transduction that unmyelinated nerves must do

d)

The passing of neurotransmitters from a neuron to its target cell

109.

What does it mean when a nerve is polarized?

a)

When a neuron is resetting after generating an action potential.

b)

When a neuron is at rest and maintaining a negative charge

c)

When a neuron has been stimulated and is increasing its charge

d)

When a neuron is firing off an impulse and rapidly increases its charge

110.

What is an action potential?

a)

When electrical impulses skip over myelin sheaths

b)

Waves of voltage changes that travel down a neuron and release neurotransmitters

c)

A neurons ability to respond to stimuli

d)

When a neuron is at rest waiting for stimuli

111.

What is irritability?

a)

The ability of a neuron to convert electrical impulses into chemical messages

b)

The ability of a neuron to respond to stimuli and convert them into electrical impulses

c)

The ability to transmit an impulse to a target cell

d)

How I feel after doing this many quizizz questions

112.

What is conductivity?

a)

The ability of a neuron to produce neurotransmitters

b)

The ability of a neuron to regenerate after an injury

c)

The ability of a neuron to transmit electrical impulses and send signals to target cells

d)

The ability of a neuron to respond to stimuli and convert them to electrical signals

113.

What is a node of Ranvier?

a)

The structures that detect sensory stimuli

b)

The gaps between myelin sheaths on an axon

c)

Where myelin is produced on a neuron

d)

The site on neurotransmitter storage

114.

A -

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Cell body

d)

Nucleus

115.

B -

a)

Cell body

b)

Dendrite

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Axon

116.

C -

a)

Axon hillock

b)

Axon terminal

c)

Dendrite

d)

Myelin sheath

117.

D (entire structure)

a)

Myelin sheath

b)

Node of Ranvier

c)

Axon

d)

Cell body

118.

E

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Synapse

d)

Axon terminal

119.

F (gap)

a)

Neuron

b)

Myelin sheath

c)

Axon

d)

Node of Ranvier

120.

G

a)

Myelin sheaths

b)

Axon

c)

Axon terminal

d)

Cell body

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