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Exam 2.4.1 ResMeth and BasNut

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines basic research in scientific inquiry?

a)

Expands fundamental knowledge without immediate applications

b)

Solves specific practical problems in real contexts

c)

Tests hypotheses by manipulating variables

d)

Observes natural behaviors without intervention

2.

Applied research is primarily designed to do what?

a)

Solve specific problems using scientific methods

b)

Examine associations without inferring causation

c)

Advance theory without practical targets

d)

Describe phenomena without influencing them

3.

Which variable is deliberately changed to observe its effect?

a)

Dependent variable measured as outcome

b)

Independent variable manipulated by researcher

c)

Confounding variable external and misleading

d)

Control variable kept constant throughout

4.

In an experiment, the dependent variable is best described as the

a)

outcome measured in response to manipulation

b)

factor deliberately manipulated by the team

c)

constant factor maintained to prevent confounding

d)

external influence that biases both variables

5.

What is the main purpose of a control variable?

a)

Serve as the baseline without treatment

b)

Remain constant to reduce confounding effects

c)

Provide clear operational measurement

d)

Ensure outcomes respond to manipulation

6.

Which statement characterizes a confounding variable?

a)

A precise description of how to measure

b)

A baseline group not receiving treatment

c)

An external influence affecting both IV and DV

d)

A constant factor ensuring reliable results

7.

An operational definition should primarily accomplish which goal?

a)

Randomly assign subjects to reduce bias

b)

Provide a precise, replicable measurement description

c)

Manipulate variables to test hypotheses

d)

Ensure accuracy rather than consistency alone

8.

Probability sampling ensures what key property for each member of the population?

a)

Accurate description of measured variables

b)

Equal measurement reliability across groups

c)

Convenience-based inclusion judgment

d)

Known nonzero chance of selection

9.

Which technique is a non-probability sampling method?

a)

Cluster sampling selecting natural groups

b)

Systematic sampling with fixed intervals

c)

Stratified sampling across defined strata

d)

Snowball sampling via participant referrals

10.

Descriptive research primarily involves

a)

observing phenomena without attempts to influence

b)

manipulating variables to establish causality

c)

solving targeted practical problems in context

d)

inferring associations without direct causation

11.

Experimental research is distinguished by its use of

a)

association analysis without causation

b)

population lists called sampling frames

c)

random observation without intervention

d)

controlled manipulation of variables

12.

Correlational research aims to

a)

describe natural phenomena without influence

b)

manipulate variables to measure outcomes

c)

establish cause-and-effect relationships

d)

examine associations without inferring causation

13.

Which statement best describes a population in a study?

a)

Subset selected to participate

b)

Entire group under investigation

c)

List that identifies potential sources

d)

Group receiving the intervention

14.

A sampling frame refers to the

a)

baseline group without treatment

b)

precise measurement description

c)

list or source from which samples are drawn

d)

method for randomizing group assignment

15.

Which practice helps reduce selection bias in experiments?

a)

Blinding treatment allocation single or double

b)

Randomization assigning subjects to groups

c)

Replication repeating experiments for reliability

d)

Confidentiality protecting participant information

16.

What is the main function of a control group?

a)

Provide baseline without treatment exposure

b)

Conceal allocation to reduce bias

c)

Ensure accuracy in measuring constructs

d)

Receive the intervention during study

17.

Replication in research primarily enhances

a)

accuracy in measuring intended constructs

b)

consistency and reliability of findings

c)

precision of operational definitions

d)

ethical protection of private information

18.

Which scale has numeric values without a true zero, such as temperature in °C?

a)

Ordinal ranked categories only

b)

Interval numerical without true zero

c)

Ratio numerical with absolute zero

d)

Nominal non-numeric categories

19.

Which data type is most suitable for statistical analysis based on numerical values?

a)

Qualitative descriptive narratives

b)

Quantitative numeric measurements

c)

Ordinal ranked preferences

d)

Nominal category assignments

20.

Validity in measurement refers to

a)

repeatability of results under conditions

b)

accuracy in measuring intended constructs

c)

concealing treatment to reduce bias

d)

voluntary participation with full knowledge

21.

Which principle focuses on maximizing benefits and minimizing harms in human research?

a)

Justice and fair treatment for participants

b)

Beneficence through risk–benefit balance

c)

Respect for persons and autonomy

d)

Integrity with accurate data reporting

22.

What is the primary role of an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?

a)

Publish national ethical guidelines

b)

Award intellectual property protections

c)

Examine ethical soundness of protocols

d)

Fund promising research projects

23.

Which practice best demonstrates Respect for Persons in a study?

a)

Transparent reporting of methods

b)

Periodic compliance monitoring

c)

Fair selection of participants

d)

Voluntary informed consent process

24.

In the Philippine context, which body mandates ethical review for studies with human participants?

a)

Philippine Health Research Ethics Board

b)

Food and Agriculture Organization

c)

World Health Organization office

d)

Central Philippine University REC

25.

Which ethical challenge involves manipulating data to misrepresent findings?

a)

Weak data privacy safeguards

b)

Fabrication and falsification

c)

Plagiarism of ideas and words

d)

Conflicts of interest in funding

26.

Which safeguard is essential when researching vulnerable populations?

a)

Additional protections for autonomy

b)

Stricter data retention timelines

c)

Mandatory open-access publication

d)

Exclusive use of randomized trials

27.

What must participants receive to ensure informed consent?

a)

Assurance of eventual direct benefit

b)

Full disclosure of purposes and risks

c)

Guaranteed authorship on results

d)

Free medical care during the study

28.

Which action best aligns with Justice in participant selection?

a)

Choosing participants with higher literacy

b)

Ensuring equitable treatment and access

c)

Prioritizing high-risk populations

d)

Recruiting only easily available groups

29.

Ongoing monitoring by IRBs primarily aims to:

a)

Expand project budgets for safety

b)

Increase publication acceptance rates

c)

Train researchers in statistics

d)

Ensure continued compliance with ethics

30.

Which practice addresses Integrity and Honesty in research?

a)

Accurate reporting without fabrication

b)

Limiting public access to datasets

c)

Protecting trade secrets aggressively

d)

Avoiding recruitment from remote areas

31.

How do research ethics intersect with intellectual property in the Philippines?

a)

By mandating free reuse without attribution

b)

By prohibiting authorship for junior staff

c)

By recognizing researchers’ rights to original works

d)

By requiring all studies to be patented

32.

Which policy best promotes responsible authorship regarding IP?

a)

Encouraging transparency in managing conflicts

b)

Requiring anonymous reporting of results

c)

Restricting data sharing across institutions

d)

Eliminating citations in published articles

33.

Which statement best distinguishes Positivism from Post-Positivism in scientific research?

a)

Post-Positivism rejects empirical evidence entirely

b)

Positivism claims objective truth is fully observable

c)

Positivism embraces falsification and uncertainty

d)

Post-Positivism assumes knowledge is purely subjective

34.

In food science, which study most aligns with Interpretivism?

a)

Running shelf-life tests with accelerated aging

b)

Exploring cultural meanings of traditional dishes

c)

Modeling heat transfer in retort processing

d)

Measuring microbial counts in packaged salads

35.

Pragmatism in research primarily emphasizes which outcome?

a)

Choosing methods that solve practical problems

b)

Adhering strictly to one methodological tradition

c)

Seeking metaphysical certainty about phenomena

d)

Eliminating all qualitative interpretations

36.

Which approach is most appropriate for sensory evaluation that reports panel scores and variance?

a)

Quantitative Research

b)

Qualitative Research

c)

Mixed-Methods Research

d)

Interpretivist Inquiry

37.

A project combines instrumental texture measurements with consumer interviews to guide product development. Which approach is this?

a)

Positivist Experimentation

b)

Quantitative Research

c)

Qualitative Research

d)

Mixed-Methods Research

38.

Which method best fits Interpretivism for studying consumer behavior?

a)

Structured ethnographies

b)

High-throughput microbiology

c)

Finite element simulations

d)

Randomized controlled trials

39.

Which scenario illustrates a pragmatic strategy in food technology?

a)

Using only surveys to maintain consistency

b)

Avoiding quantitative data to respect culture

c)

Blending shelf-life tests with customer feedback

d)

Focusing solely on theoretical modeling

40.

Quantitative research in food science typically employs which tools?

a)

Participant narratives and meanings

b)

Statistical analyses and measurements

c)

Open-ended focus group dialogues

d)

Thematic coding of interviews

41.

Which statement best distinguishes research design from method in scientific studies?

a)

Design is logistics only, method is theory building

b)

Design is data analysis only, method is hypothesis testing

c)

Design is a list of instruments used, method is sampling steps

d)

Design is a preplanned study blueprint, method is technical procedures

42.

In quantitative research, which practice most accurately characterizes the approach to design?

a)

Researchers specify a formal plan before data collection

b)

Researchers avoid a structured plan to remain flexible

c)

Researchers combine qualitative viewpoints with numbers

d)

Researchers allow tactics to change as insights emerge

43.

Which description aligns with qualitative research design evolution during a study?

a)

Design defined by statistical tests only

b)

Predefined design constrained by instrumentation

c)

Fixed design that never changes

d)

Emergent design shaped by ongoing decisions

44.

What is the primary rationale for using mixed methods in research design?

a)

To replace qualitative viewpoints entirely

b)

To achieve breadth and depth of understanding

c)

To eliminate quantitative analysis

d)

To avoid triangulation of findings

45.

Which quantitative design focuses on describing what exists and its frequency?

a)

Descriptive design for existing phenomena

b)

Interpretive design for meaning-making

c)

Participatory design with co-developed plans

d)

Illuminative design for one aspect

46.

Which design examines whether a change in one variable relates to change in another without manipulation?

a)

Predictive exploratory modeling

b)

Correlational study of variable relationships

c)

Experimental study with manipulated variables

d)

Quasi-experimental study using existing groups

47.

Which approach manipulates independent variables to infer causal links under controlled conditions?

a)

Survey design observing already-occurred events

b)

Experimental design with control and measurement

c)

Investigative design tracing phenomena

d)

Interpretive design focusing on meanings

48.

What defines a quasi-experimental design compared with true experimental design?

a)

Uses existing groups and cautiously infers causation

b)

Uses random assignment and strong causal claims

c)

Avoids control groups and focuses on description

d)

Eliminates measurement of dependent variables

49.

Which nonexperimental design examines events in naturally occurring groups after they have happened?

a)

Experimental design measuring manipulated variables

b)

Survey design assessing already-occurred events

c)

Participatory design co-developed with participants

d)

Instrumental design creating new tools

50.

Which mixed methods tactic explicitly aims to achieve triangulation using both data types?

a)

Use quantitative data to explain words

b)

Use numbers to replace interviews

c)

Use qualitative methods without numbers

d)

Use both methods to reach triangulation

51.

Which activity in qualitative research reflects the researcher as key data collection instrument?

a)

Role of the researcher as responsible data collector

b)

Random assignment to treatment and control groups

c)

Use of prevalidated numerical scales exclusively

d)

Blind hypothesis testing without field notes

52.

Which component is more typical of quantitative methods than qualitative methods?

a)

Use of apparatus and standardized procedures

b)

Emergent design shaped by participants’ realities

c)

Thick description from data representation

d)

Participant co-development of research plan

53.

Which statement best captures the purpose of sensitization in qualitative designs?

a)

Descriptive efforts to encourage reader participation

b)

Numerical categorization of dependent variables

c)

Statistical procedures to quantify reliability

d)

Randomization to reduce selection bias

54.

When establishing research questions at the second level, what is the primary focus?

a)

Explaining why relationships or differences exist

b)

Generating action plans and program goals

c)

Exploratory description beginning with “what is”

d)

Measurement of dependent and independent variables

55.

Which distinction best separates factor naming questions from relationship questions in research design?

a)

Selecting the measurement instrument carefully

b)

Defining the study population in detail

c)

Exploring association between two variables

d)

Determining ethical approval requirements

e)

Labeling a single variable precisely

56.

A clear research question should avoid yes/no answers. What is the primary reason for this guideline?

a)

It reduces sample size requirements

b)

It encourages measurable nuance in outcomes

c)

It ensures faster data collection timelines

d)

It eliminates the need for literature review

e)

It guarantees causal inference conclusions

57.

Which criterion directly assesses feasibility when judging a research question?

a)

Interest to the wider community

b)

Alignment with policy implications

c)

Availability of time and resources

d)

Novelty compared to past studies

e)

Complexity beyond simple answers

58.

After framing a research question, what is the recommended next step to strengthen the study focus?

a)

Merge multiple topics for wider coverage

b)

Delay evaluation until data collection

c)

Revise variables into broader categories

d)

Replace quantitative methods with qualitative

e)

Create testable hypotheses from the question

59.

Which feature indicates a research question is too broad for effective study?

a)

States a predictive relationship clearly

b)

Uses established operational definitions

c)

Needs multiple distinct subfields to answer

d)

Includes a measurable dependent variable

e)

Specifies a narrow population subgroup

60.

Which level of inquiry is represented by asking, “What are testosterone levels among patients with condition X?”

a)

Descriptive factor naming level

b)

Comparative relationship level

c)

Explanatory causal level

d)

Evaluative policy level

e)

Predictive modeling level

61.

Which revision best improves clarity of a research question about hormone differences between groups?

a)

Add multiple unrelated health outcomes

b)

Change to a yes-or-no confirmation

c)

Increase jargon without definitions

d)

Specify the variables and target population

e)

Remove the comparison group entirely

62.

Which component transforms a general question into a focused study plan?

a)

Background anecdotes without sources

b)

Hypotheses predicting variable relations

c)

Open-ended interviews with no protocol

d)

Random sampling without criteria

e)

Ethical consent forms alone

63.

In the touch therapy example, which variable is an outcome measure rather than an intervention detail?

a)

Type of incubator confinement

b)

Observable reduction in stress

c)

Specific therapist qualifications

d)

Sequence of therapy sessions

e)

Duration of gentle stroking

64.

Which question from the touch therapy study tests a relationship rather than naming a factor?

a)

Therapy location within the hospital

b)

Significant effect differences between groups

c)

Seconds of stroking per session

d)

Extent of perceptible therapy effects

e)

How infants respond to gentle touch

65.

When organizing a literature review thematically, what is the main advantage for refining research questions?

a)

Guarantees larger experimental samples

b)

Eliminates the need for methodology sections

c)

Ensures strict chronological accuracy

d)

Highlights diverse perspectives by concept

e)

Replaces data analysis with summaries

66.

Which organization method groups studies by shared concepts or models to explain a topic?

a)

Geographic organization by study location

b)

Methodological organization by data types

c)

Thematic organization around core ideas

d)

Chronological organization across publication years

67.

What is the primary goal of a Review of Related Literature in research?

a)

Summarize and synthesize evidence

b)

List every source ever published

c)

Replace original data collection

d)

Promote the author’s perspective

68.

Which CRAAP criterion asks whether the source directly addresses your research question?

a)

Accuracy of information

b)

Authority of the author

c)

Relevance to the topic

d)

Currency of publication date

69.

For medical and technology topics, which publication window is generally recommended to ensure up-to-date sources?

a)

Last 10 years universally

b)

Last 5 years typically

c)

Last 3–4 years maximum

d)

Last 1–2 years only

70.

Which question best evaluates Authority in the CRAAP test?

a)

Does the source match your topic?

b)

What are the author’s qualifications?

c)

Is the source peer-reviewed?

d)

When was the source published?

71.

A literature review organized chronologically would most likely be structured by which feature?

a)

Theoretical frameworks used

b)

Publication dates and periods

c)

Methods and instruments

d)

Regions and populations studied

72.

Which action strengthens an RRL by demonstrating critical engagement with prior studies?

a)

Avoid any critique to stay neutral

b)

Analyze strengths and weaknesses

c)

Summarize findings without synthesis

d)

Exclude contradictory evidence

73.

Which CRAAP element focuses on whether the source is biased or intended to persuade?

a)

Authority criterion

b)

Purpose criterion

c)

Currency criterion

d)

Relevance criterion

74.

You find a humanities source published eight years ago, peer‑reviewed, and directly relevant. Which evaluation is most reasonable?

a)

Reject because peer review is insufficient

b)

Accept since humanities can use 5–10 years

c)

Accept because relevance is high

d)

Reject due to age alone

75.

Which statement best describes the primary purpose of a research protocol?

a)

Provide a flexible, informal outline for study

b)

Offer a clear, structured plan for conducting research

c)

Summarize previous studies without procedures

d)

Serve only as a budget proposal for funding

76.

What is the main role of the objectives or research questions section?

a)

List investigators and affiliations

b)

State clear, measurable goals linked to methods

c)

Estimate costs and sources of funding

d)

Provide a narrative literature review

77.

Which component ensures accountability by naming investigators, study site, and funding body?

a)

Time frame or schedule

b)

General information

c)

References list

d)

Budget and resources

78.

A concise abstract that outlines problem, design, population, methods, and significance belongs in which section?

a)

Title page and project summary

b)

Study design and methodology

c)

Data management and statistical analysis

d)

Ethical considerations

79.

Which section explains sampling methods, inclusion/exclusion criteria, materials, and procedures?

a)

Time frame or schedule

b)

Study design and methodology

c)

Ethical considerations

d)

Rationale and background

80.

Which plan demonstrates that findings will be interpreted accurately and objectively?

a)

Title page and project summary

b)

Budget and resources plan

c)

General information section

d)

Data management and statistical analysis plan

81.

Which ethical practice is essential for research with human participants?

a)

IRB approval and informed consent procedures

b)

Skipping risk minimization for feasibility

c)

Only anonymizing data after publication

d)

Allowing investigators to self-certify ethics

82.

Why include updated and credible references in a protocol?

a)

To replace the need for methodology

b)

To justify higher budget requests

c)

To strengthen the study’s scientific foundation

d)

To serve as the primary data source

83.

Which statistical elements are appropriate to specify in the Data Management and Statistical Analysis section?

a)

Timeline milestones for report writing

b)

Only names of investigators and site

c)

Sample size estimation and planned tests

d)

Random anecdotes and opinions

84.

Which statement best distinguishes qualitative from quantitative data in research?

a)

Both are words but qualitative are computed

b)

Both are numbers but quantitative are descriptive

c)

Qualitative are words; quantitative are numbers

d)

Qualitative are numbers; quantitative are words

85.

What is the main goal of data collection in research?

a)

Ensure validity, reliability, objectivity

b)

Eliminate all confounding variables

c)

Avoid using any secondary sources

d)

Maximize sample size only

86.

Primary data are characterized by which feature?

a)

Aggregated from company databases

b)

Derived from statistical repositories

c)

Obtained from previous publications

d)

Collected first time, original and fresh

87.

Structured observation is defined by which attribute?

a)

Researcher joins the participant group

b)

Open, flexible, exploratory style

c)

Planned with variables and a checklist

d)

Observer remains non-interactive

88.

In non-participant observation, the researcher primarily does what?

a)

Conducts phone interviews

b)

Manipulates the environment

c)

Becomes part of the group

d)

Observes without interacting

89.

Which advantage is commonly associated with observation methods?

a)

Guarantees ethical neutrality

b)

Captures all details perfectly

c)

Always eliminates observer bias

d)

Good for behaviors not self-reported

90.

A key disadvantage of observation methods is most likely what?

a)

High cost of digital libraries

b)

Limited theoretical background

c)

Respondent literacy requirements

d)

Observer bias and recording difficulty

91.

A structured interview primarily uses which format?

a)

Standardized questions

b)

Open conversational prompts

c)

Mixed flexible structure

d)

Phone convenience only

92.

Semi-structured interviews are best described as what?

a)

Unscripted free conversation

b)

Strict checklist and fixed wording

c)

Mix of structured and flexible questions

d)

Entirely conducted via telephone

93.

Which feature most distinguishes a focused interview?

a)

Concentrates on specific topics

b)

Relies on large random samples

c)

Ensures complete numerical data

d)

Uses mechanical recording devices

94.

Questionnaires with open-ended items allow respondents to do what?

a)

Receive interviewer guidance

b)

Express ideas freely

c)

Avoid giving any answers

d)

Select fixed options

95.

A schedule method is preferable when respondents are what?

a)

Interested in closed questions

b)

Seeking anonymity online

c)

Part of laboratory experiments

d)

Illiterate or unable to fill forms

96.

Which is a notable advantage of the questionnaire method?

a)

Cost-effective and scalable

b)

Always yields high response

c)

Eliminates misinterpretation

d)

Provides unlimited depth

97.

Which technique is explicitly a group interview exploring perceptions?

a)

Telephone interview

b)

Focus group discussions

c)

Controlled observation

d)

Mechanical device tracking

98.

Secondary data are best defined as what?

a)

Previously collected by others

b)

Original data from your study

c)

Numerical results without context

d)

Unpublished field notes only

99.

Which is a published source of secondary data?

a)

Personal diaries from participants

b)

Private emails from respondents

c)

Government and institutional reports

d)

Raw lab notebooks unshared

100.

Which advantage makes secondary data useful for historical work?

a)

Ensures perfect alignment

b)

Provides background framework

c)

Forces new data collection

d)

Eliminates sampling error

101.

Operationally, statistics can be defined as what?

a)

Summary numerical figures from samples

b)

A poetic description of phenomena

c)

Ethical rules for human subjects

d)

Qualitative thematic categories

102.

In research terminology, what is a variable?

a)

Entire collection under study

b)

Fixed constant in all groups

c)

Numerical summary of a population

d)

Characteristic that can change

103.

What does the term population refer to in a study?

a)

Portion or part of the group

b)

Single measurement from a sample

c)

Totality of elements under study

d)

Only individuals in experiments

104.

Which example fits electronic or digital secondary sources?

a)

Handwritten field schedules

b)

Face-to-face structured interviews

c)

Physical laboratory instruments

d)

Online databases like Scopus

105.

Controlled observation typically occurs where?

a)

Public policy hearings

b)

Exclusive phone environments

c)

Only online survey panels

d)

Laboratory or natural setting

106.

Which disadvantage is linked to questionnaires?

a)

Guaranteed accurate deep insights

b)

Mandatory interviewer presence

c)

Possible misinterpretation, low response

d)

Prohibitive cost and time

107.

An unpublished secondary source may include which item?

a)

International organization datasets

b)

Trade reports and market books

c)

National newspapers and magazines

d)

Institutional archives and theses

108.

Which variable type is expressed in numbers and measures quantity or amount?

a)

Categorical variable describing qualities

b)

Quantitative variable measuring amount

c)

Nominal variable with unordered labels

d)

Ordinal variable with ranked categories

109.

Which example best fits a quantitative variable in food research?

a)

Flavor category such as fruity

b)

Protein percentage in yogurt

c)

Gender of taste panelists

d)

Brand name of cereal product

110.

Discrete quantitative variables are characterized by which property?

a)

Only two categories exist

b)

Categories have logical ranking

c)

Countable values without fractions

d)

Values take any value within a range

111.

Which measurement is a continuous quantitative variable?

a)

Product type such as dairy

b)

Number of bacteria colonies counted

c)

Pass or fail classification outcome

d)

Moisture content measured over time

112.

Nominal categorical variables are defined by which feature?

a)

More than two categories, no order

b)

Two categories only, binary choice

c)

Measured as numeric quantities

d)

Categories with logical rankings

113.

Which is an example of an ordinal variable in sensory studies?

a)

Food color categories selected

b)

Sensory scores on a 1–9 scale

c)

Brand names listed alphabetically

d)

Shelf life in measured days

114.

The independent variable in an experiment serves which role?

a)

Unintended factor causing bias

b)

Outcome measured by researcher

c)

Factor manipulated or changed

d)

Factor kept constant for fairness

115.

Which is primarily a dependent variable example in product testing?

a)

Texture intensity measured

b)

Cooking temperature selected

c)

Storage time set by protocol

d)

Mixing speed kept constant

116.

A control variable is best described as which statement?

a)

Unobserved construct inferred indirectly

b)

Measured response to manipulation

c)

Variable combined into composite index

d)

Factor kept constant to ensure fairness

117.

Which scenario illustrates a confounding variable?

a)

Room humidity altering crispiness

b)

Ranking satisfaction levels from low to high

c)

Using post-hoc tests after ANOVA

d)

Calculating an overall acceptability index

118.

A latent variable in consumer research is typically measured how?

a)

By frequency counts in categories

b)

Direct observation of behavior

c)

Single numeric reading from instrument

d)

Through indicators like survey items

119.

Which statement describes a composite variable?

a)

Calculated as a single nominal label

b)

Represents a binary yes or no choice

c)

Made by averaging two or more measures

d)

Derived from regression residuals

120.

Which parametric test compares means of two independent groups?

a)

Independent samples t-test

b)

Paired t-test for repeated samples

c)

Mann–Whitney U for ranked data

d)

Chi-square test for categories

121.

Which test is appropriate for comparing before-and-after measurements on the same subjects?

a)

Kruskal–Wallis H for ranks

b)

One-way ANOVA across three groups

c)

Paired t-test for related samples

d)

Independent samples t-test groups

122.

One-way ANOVA is used primarily to do what?

a)

Predict one variable from another

b)

Compare means among three or more groups

c)

Assess linear relation between two variables

d)

Test association of categorical variables

123.

Two-way ANOVA allows researchers to examine which effect?

a)

Association between nominal categories

b)

Effects of two factors and interaction

c)

Correlation between two continuous variables

d)

Only main effect of one factor

124.

Pearson’s correlation coefficient r indicates what feature of data?

a)

Expected cell frequencies threshold

b)

Strength of linear relationship

c)

Difference in group means significance

d)

Monotonic rank association

125.

Simple linear regression models the outcome using which form?

a)

Y equals a plus bX regression

b)

Median difference in ranked pairs

c)

H-statistic for ordinal groups

d)

Chi-square statistic for frequencies

126.

Multiple regression is most suitable when you need to do what?

a)

Assess nominal category associations

b)

Predict outcome using several predictors

c)

Compare medians across three rankings

d)

Test differences between two independent groups

127.

The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is best used for which design?

a)

Paired ordinal measurements repeated

b)

Linear relation of continuous variables

c)

Two independent categorical groups

d)

Three unrelated ranked groups compared

128.

Kruskal–Wallis H test serves as an alternative to which parametric method?

a)

Pearson’s correlation of variables

b)

One-way ANOVA across groups

c)

Two-way ANOVA with interactions

d)

Independent samples t-test method

129.

Spearman’s rank correlation evaluates what type of relationship?

a)

Difference in medians for two groups

b)

Association between nominal categories

c)

Predictive linear model with intercept

d)

Monotonic association between ranked variables

130.

Chi-square test is appropriate for analyzing which data type pairing?

a)

Continuous outcome predicted by factors

b)

Ordinal variables repeated measures

c)

Two continuous variables correlation

d)

Nominal variables association patterns

131.

Friedman test should be applied when which condition holds?

a)

Comparing texture rankings across three trials

b)

Assessing linear relation of two continuous variables

c)

Testing difference between two independent groups

d)

Estimating slope in regression equation

132.

Parametric tests generally assume which data conditions?

a)

Ordinal scales with medians used

b)

Nominal categories with counts

c)

Non-normal distributions with ranks

d)

Quantitative, normal, equal variances

133.

In correlation analysis, an r value closer to +1 implies what?

a)

Strong positive linear relationship

b)

Weaker negative association observed

c)

No relationship between variables

d)

Strong monotonic rank correlation

134.

When expected frequency per cell is less than 5, which test assumption becomes problematic?

a)

Assumptions for chi-square analysis

b)

Conditions for independent t-test

c)

Requirements for Pearson’s correlation

d)

Normality assumption of ANOVA

135.

Which criterion best evaluates a Title & Abstract in a research report?

a)

Highly technical, dense, exceeds scope and detail

b)

Focuses on citations and formatting exclusively

c)

Concise, informative, reflects purpose and scope

d)

Narrative style, creative language, minimal data

136.

A strong Introduction should primarily demonstrate which quality?

a)

Logical, relevant background and rationale

b)

Extensive statistical analysis and tests

c)

Detailed budget and procurement plan

d)

Personal opinions of the researcher

137.

When assessing Objectives, what question is most appropriate?

a)

Do they include all possible variables?

b)

Are they longer than the abstract text?

c)

Do they align with methodology and results?

d)

Are they more ambitious than the literature?

138.

Which check best ensures the Methodology section is sound?

a)

Focuses on researcher’s personal workflow

b)

Minimizes replication details for brevity

c)

Contains numerous acronyms and jargon

d)

Methods appropriate and clearly described

139.

In evaluating Results, which item indicates proper presentation quality?

a)

Charts colorful but missing legends

b)

Narrative summaries without any figures

c)

Tables/graphs labeled with units and significance

d)

Only raw data files appended unprocessed

140.

A valid Discussion should ensure interpretations are which of the following?

a)

Focused on methods repetition

b)

Speculative and loosely related

c)

Linked to objectives or literature

d)

Centered on formatting guidelines

141.

Which check is most appropriate for verifying References?

a)

Limited to sources from one decade

b)

Primarily blog posts and opinion pieces

c)

Updated, credible, properly formatted

d)

Alphabetized but missing key details

142.

Which term best describes the science of nourishing the body and studying nutrients’ roles in growth and maintenance?

a)

Health, focusing on complete well-being

b)

Diet, the sum of foods consumed

c)

Wellness, pursuit of full potential

d)

Nutrition, the science of nourishment

143.

Which statement best defines wellness in the context of nutrition and lifestyle?

a)

Strict adherence to calorie counting

b)

Conscious pursuit of integrated living

c)

Elimination of all dietary fats

d)

Passive avoidance of stressors

144.

Which description most accurately defines nutrient density?

a)

Energy intake relative to energy expenditure

b)

Calorie content relative to portion size

c)

Essential nutrients relative to calorie content

d)

Nutrients per serving regardless of calories

145.

Which option correctly defines energy balance?

a)

Rate of digestion in gastrointestinal tract

b)

Ratio of macronutrients in a diet

c)

Relationship between intake and expenditure

d)

Calories per gram of each nutrient

146.

Which food category refers to items not processed or altered from their natural state?

a)

Processed foods with preservatives

b)

Functional foods with bioactive compounds

c)

Fortified foods with added nutrients

d)

Natural foods unprocessed or unaltered

147.

Which example represents whole foods consumed in their natural form?

a)

Candy and soft drinks

b)

Enriched flour-based products

c)

Vegetables, fruits, and grains

d)

Instant noodles with additives

148.

Ultra-processed foods are best characterized by which feature?

a)

Minimal processing, no additives

b)

Multiple processes and many additives

c)

Organic growth without pesticides

d)

Nutrients restored after processing

149.

Which statement accurately differentiates fortified from enriched foods?

a)

Fortified adds new nutrients; enriched restores lost

b)

Fortified restores lost; enriched adds new

c)

Both remove synthetic additives

d)

Both add only vitamins A and D

150.

Which classification fits foods produced using environmentally friendly, ethical farming practices?

a)

Sustainable foods from ethical practices

b)

Organic foods with no synthetic inputs

c)

Slow food from regional traditions

d)

Functional foods with health compounds