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Medical Emergencies - Shock and Musculoskeletal Emergencies

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Shock is best defined as a condition of

a)

Sudden loss of consciousness

b)

Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to cellular hypoxia

c)

Acute infection of the bloodstream

d)

Cardiac arrhythmia

2.

The primary pathophysiological problem in shock is

a)

Reduced oxygen delivery to tissues

b)

Increased blood glucose level

c)

Excessive fluid in the body

d)

Increased metabolic rate

3.

Which organ is most sensitive to prolonged shock?

a)

Liver

b)

Skin

c)

Brain

d)

Skeletal muscle

4.

A common early clinical sign of shock is

a)

Hypertension

b)

Warm and flushed skin

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia

5.

Which of the following is a typical feature of hypovolemic shock?

a)

Bounding pulse

b)

Slow respiratory rate

c)

Dilated pupils with high blood pressure

d)

Cold, clammy skin

6.

Reduced urine output in a shocked patient indicates

a)

Impaired organ perfusion

b)

Normal kidney function

c)

Increased renal perfusion

d)

Excessive fluid intake

7.

Which combination of signs is MOST suggestive of shock?

a)

Fever, hypertension, bradycardia

b)

Pale skin, rapid pulse, low blood pressure

c)

Warm skin, normal pulse, normal BP

d)

Cyanosis with hypertension

8.

Shock caused by severe blood loss is classified as

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Septic shock

c)

Hypovolemic shock

d)

Neurogenic shock

9.

Cardiogenic shock is primarily due to

a)

Loss of blood volume

b)

Severe allergic reaction

c)

Systemic infection

d)

Failure of the heart to pump effectively

10.

Anaphylactic shock is an example of

a)

Distributive shock

b)

Hypovolemic shock

c)

Cardiogenic shock

d)

Obstructive shock

11.

Septic shock results mainly from

a)

Myocardial infraction

b)

Widespread infection and vasodilation

c)

Severe dehydration

d)

Spinal cord injury

12.

Neurogenic shock is most commonly associated with

a)

Severe hemorrhage

b)

Myocardial failure

c)

Spinal cord injury

d)

Allergic reaction

13.

The FIRST priority in managing a patient with shock is to

a)

Administer antibiotics

b)

Control pain

c)

Measure urine output

d)

Ensure airway and breathing

14.

Which position is commonly used to improve venous return in shock (if not contraindicated)?

a)

Supine with legs elevated

b)

Sitting upright

c)

Prone position

d)

Lateral position

15.

Oxygen therapy in shock is important because it

a)

Lowers blood pressure

b)

Improves tissue oxygenation

c)

Reduced blood loss

d)

Treats the underlying cause

16.

Intravenous fluid administration in hypovolemic shock aims to

a)

Reduce heart rate

b)

Increase body temperature

c)

Replace lost blood volume

d)

Prevent infection

17.

Which of the following should be avoided in a shocked patient?

a)

Keeping the patient warm

b)

Monitoring vital signs

c)

Giving food or oral fluids

d)

Providing oxygen

18.

A key indicator that emergency management of shock is effective is

a)

Increased skin pallor

b)

Decreased level of consciousness

c)

Persistent tachycardia

d)

Improved blood pressure and urine output

19.

Musculoskeletal emergencies primarily involve injuries to the

a)

Cardiovascular system

b)

Nervous system

c)

Bones, muscles, joints, and connective tissues

d)

Respiratory system

20.

Which of the following is considered a musculoskeletal emergency?

a)

Stroke

b)

Myocardial infraction

c)

Asthma attack

d)

Fracture of the femur

21.

The MOST common cause of musculoskeletal injuries is

a)

Trauma

b)

Infection

c)

Congenital abnormality

d)

Metabolic disorder

22.

Which of the following may lead to musculoskeletal injury?

a)

Viral infection

b)

Falls and road traffic accidents

c)

Endocrine disorders

d)

Nutritional deficiency only

23.

A fraction in which the bone breaks through the skin is called

a)

Closed fracture

b)

Greenstick fracture

c)

Open fracture

d)

Pathological fracture

24.

A greenstick fracture is MOST commonly seen in

a)

Elderly patients

b)

Athletes

c)

Pregnant women

d)

Children

25.

A fracture caused by disease that weakens the bone is known as

a)

Pathological fracture

b)

Simple fracture

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

Impacted fracture

26.

A comminuted fracture refers to

a)

Bone broken into several fragments

b)

Bone bent but not broken

c)

Bone broken into two pieces

d)

Partial fracture of bone

27.

Which of the following is a classic sign of fracture?

a)

Fever

b)

Deformity

c)

Jaundice

d)

Cyanosis

28.

Crepitus felt during assessment indicates

a)

Muscle spasm

b)

Air in soft tissues

c)

Bone ends rubbing together

d)

Joint dislocation

29.

Which assessment should be performed FIRST in a trauma patient with suspected fracture?

a)

Range of motion

b)

Pain scoring

c)

Skin inspection

d)

Neurovascular status

30.

A serious early complication of long bone fracture is

a)

Fat embolism

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

Joint stiffness

d)

Muscle wasting

31.

Compartment syndrome occurs due to

a)

Infection of bone

b)

Increased pressure within a closed muscle compartment

c)

Loss of bone density

d)

Nerve compression in the spine

32.

A head injury is best described as

a)

Injury limited to the scalp only

b)

Injury to facial bones only

c)

Any trauma to the skull and brain

d)

Injury causing immediate death

33.

Loss of consciousness following head injury suggests

a)

Minor scalp injury

b)

Simple laceration

c)

Muscle strain

d)

Brain involvement

34.

The FIRST priority in head injury management is to

a)

Maintain airway and cervical spine immobilization

b)

Control bleeding

c)

Assess pupil reaction

d)

Administer analgesics

35.

Which position is recommended for an unconscious head injury patient (if no spinal injury suspected)?

a)

Sitting upright

b)

Recovery position

c)

Supine with legs elevated

d)

Prone position

36.

A suspected spinal injury patient should be

a)

Allowed to sit up

b)

Moved immediately without support

c)

Immobilized and handled carefully

d)

Given oral fluids

37.

Which sign suggests possible spinal cord injury?

a)

Numbness or paralysis below injury level

b)

Localized swelling

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Headache

38.

A muscle strain refers to

a)

Inflammation of tendon

b)

Overstretching or tearing of muscle fibers

c)

Dislocation of joint

d)

Fracture of bone

39.

Tendon injury commonly results in

a)

Bone deformity

b)

Fever

c)

Loss of movement of the affected part

d)

Skin discolouration only

40.

A common complication of untreated muscle injury is

a)

Hypertension

b)

Renal failure

c)

Anemia

d)

Chronic pain and stiffness

41.

Which of the following may occur if tendon injuries are not properly managed?

a)

Permanent loss of function

b)

Improved strength

c)

Faster healing

d)

Increased bone density

42.

Myositis ossificans is a complication characterized by

a)

Bone infection

b)

Abnormal bone formation within muscle

c)

Muscle inflammation

d)

Joint dislocation