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EPIDEMIOLOGY

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The gold standard study design for evaluating effectiveness of an intervention is

a)

Case–control study

b)

Cohort study

c)

Randomized controlled trial

d)

Cross‑sectional study

2.

Attack rate is a type of

a)

Prevalence rate

b)

Incidence rate

c)

Mortality rate

d)

Case fatality rate

3.

Natural history of disease includes

a)

Pre‑pathogenesis and pathogenesis

b)

Diagnosis and treatment only

c)

Prevention and cure

d)

Disability limitation only

4.

The “Iceberg phenomenon” indicates

a)

Only visible cases exist

b)

Hidden burden of disease

c)

No subclinical cases

d)

Rapid transmission

5.

Which committee recommended integration of preventive and curative services in India?

a)

Bhore Committee

b)

Mudaliar Committee

c)

Chadha Committee

d)

Kartar Singh Committee

6.

Environmental air pollution has been strongly associated with all of the following adverse effects, EXCEPT:

a)

Skin cancer

b)

Myocardial infarction

c)

Mucosal irritation

d)

Chronic bronchitis

7.

Match List‑I (Disease) with List‑II (Reservoir): Brucellosis — choose the correct reservoir from i) Dogs, ii) Pigs, iii) Cattle, iv) Squirrel

a)

Dogs

b)

Pigs

c)

Cattle

d)

Squirrel

8.

Match List‑I (Disease) with List‑II (Reservoir): K.F.D. — choose the correct reservoir from i) Dogs, ii) Pigs, iii) Cattle, iv) Squirrel

a)

Dogs

b)

Pigs

c)

Cattle

d)

Squirrel

9.

Match List‑I (Disease) with List‑II (Reservoir): Japanese Encephalitis — choose the correct reservoir from i) Dogs, ii) Pigs, iii) Cattle, iv) Squirrel

a)

Dogs

b)

Pigs

c)

Cattle

d)

Squirrel

10.

Match List‑I (Disease) with List‑II (Reservoir): Rabies — choose the correct reservoir from i) Dogs, ii) Pigs, iii) Cattle, iv) Squirrel

a)

Dogs

b)

Pigs

c)

Cattle

d)

Squirrel

11.

Read the passage describing the global response to the H1N1 (swine flu) outbreak in 2009. Based on the passage: The first case of swine flu (H1N1) influenza was reported in which country?

a)

USA

b)

England

c)

Mexico

d)

Japan

e)

China

12.

Read the passage describing the global response to the H1N1 (swine flu) outbreak in 2009. Based on the passage: By the time of the outbreak, the number of countries affected by H1N1 influenza in terms of morbidity and mortality was

a)

More than 60

b)

Between 41–60

c)

Between 21–40

d)

Between 10–20

e)

Less than 10

13.

Read the passage describing the global response to the H1N1 (swine flu) outbreak in 2009. Based on the passage: At Hyderabad International Airport, which preventive measure was implemented by health authorities to stop the spread of H1N1 infection?

a)

Voluntary testing

b)

Compulsory testing

c)

Ban on international travel

d)

Compulsory vaccination

e)

Quarantine of all travelers

14.

Read the passage describing the global response to the H1N1 (swine flu) outbreak in 2009. Based on the passage: The following factors helped in controlling H1N1 infection within a short period, except:

a)

Disease was not highly lethal

b)

Effective action taken at international level

c)

Most cases responded to drugs

d)

House‑to‑house survey for early detection

e)

Awareness campaigns about hygiene

15.

Read the passage describing the global response to the H1N1 (swine flu) outbreak in 2009. Based on the passage: The following problems were anticipated regarding the H1N1 pandemic, except:

a)

Mutation of the virus

b)

Drug resistance

c)

Non‑availability of an effective vaccine

d)

Non‑availability of confirmatory test

e)

Potential co‑infection with seasonal flu

16.

The occurrence of a group of illnesses of similar nature at a rate above the expected number is called

a)

Epidemic

b)

Endemic

c)

Pandemic

d)

Enzootic

e)

Sporadic

17.

Registration of pregnancy within 12 weeks is the primary responsibility of

a)

ASHA worker — Accredited Social Health Activist

b)

Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM)

c)

Medical Officer at the Primary Health Centre

d)

Anganwadi Worker

e)

Staff Nurse

18.

Under the National Programme, the NCD (Non-Communicable Disease) clinic is established at: A. Health and Wellness Centre B. Community Health Centre C. Regional Hospital D. Urban Primary Care Unit E. NCD Mobile Health Unit

a)

Health and Wellness Centre

b)

Community Health Centre

c)

Regional Hospital

d)

Urban Primary Care Unit

e)

NCD Mobile Health Unit

19.

Which of the following epidemiological features are true about AIDS? (a) HIV can be transmitted by mosquito bites. (b) Maternofetal transmission is the most common mode of transmission. (c) I.V. drug users are at increased risk. (d) Health-care workers are at higher risk of getting infection. Code: 1. (a), (b) and (d) are correct 2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct 3. (c) and (d) are correct 4. (b) and (c) are correct 5. All of the above

a)

(a), (b) and (d) are correct

b)

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

c)

(c) and (d) are correct

d)

(b) and (c) are correct

e)

All of the above

20.

Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index combining the following indicators: (a) Life expectancy at birth (b) Infant mortality rate (c) GNI per capita in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) in US dollars (d) Mean years of schooling (e) Expected years of schooling Code: A. (a), (b) and (c) are correct B. (b), (c) and (d) are correct C. (a), (b) and (d) are correct D. (a), (c) and (d) are correct

a)

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

b)

(b), (c) and (d) are correct

c)

(a), (b) and (d) are correct

d)

(a), (c) and (d) are correct

21.

Primordial prevention is/includes: (a) Primary prevention in purest sense (b) Prevention after risk factors have developed in population (c) Efforts directed towards encouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles (d) Main intervention through individual and mass education (e) Policies and community measures to reduce emergence of risk factors Code: 1. (a), (b) and (c) are correct 2. (a), (b) and (d) are correct 3. (a), (c) and (d) are correct 4. (b), (c) and (d) are correct

a)

(a), (b) and (c) are correct

b)

(a), (b) and (d) are correct

c)

(a), (c) and (d) are correct

d)

(b), (c) and (d) are correct

22.

Pick the correct chronological order for the following Health Committees: (a) Mudaliar Committee (b) Bhore Committee (c) Mukerji Committee (d) Kartar Singh Committee Code: A. (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct B. (b), (a), (c), (d) are correct C. (a), (b), (d), (c) are correct D. (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct

a)

(a), (b), (c), (d) are correct

b)

(b), (a), (c), (d) are correct

c)

(a), (b), (d), (c) are correct

d)

(a), (c), (b), (d) are correct

23.

Arrange the interventions focused on newborns under the National Health Mission in chronological order: (a) Facility Based Newborn Care (FBNC) (b) Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram (NSSK) (c) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) (d) Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI) Code: A. (d), (a), (b), (c) are correct B. (a), (c), (b), (d) are correct C. (d), (b), (a), (c) are correct D. (a), (d), (b), (c) are correct

a)

(d), (a), (b), (c) are correct

b)

(a), (c), (b), (d) are correct

c)

(d), (b), (a), (c) are correct

d)

(a), (d), (b), (c) are correct

24.

Match List I (Types of RCT) with List II (Factors for study of association) — item (a): List I: (a) Clinical trial. List II: (i) Cigarette smoking and lung cancer (ii) Physical activity and coronary heart disease (iii) Iodised salt and cretinism (iv) Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality. Which factor best matches the type of RCT for item (a)?

a)

Cigarette smoking and lung cancer

b)

Physical activity and coronary heart disease

c)

Iodised salt and cretinism

d)

Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality

25.

Match List I (Types of RCT) with List II (Factors for study of association) — item (b): List I: (b) Preventive trial. List II: (i) Cigarette smoking and lung cancer (ii) Physical activity and coronary heart disease (iii) Iodised salt and cretinism (iv) Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality. Which factor best matches the type of RCT for item (b)?

a)

Cigarette smoking and lung cancer

b)

Physical activity and coronary heart disease

c)

Iodised salt and cretinism

d)

Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality

26.

Match List I (Types of RCT) with List II (Factors for study of association) — item (c): List I: (c) Risk factor trial. List II: (i) Cigarette smoking and lung cancer (ii) Physical activity and coronary heart disease (iii) Iodised salt and cretinism (iv) Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality. Which factor best matches the type of RCT for item (c)?

a)

Cigarette smoking and lung cancer

b)

Physical activity and coronary heart disease

c)

Iodised salt and cretinism

d)

Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality

27.

Match List I (Types of RCT) with List II (Factors for study of association) — item (d): List I: (d) Cessation experiment. List II: (i) Cigarette smoking and lung cancer (ii) Physical activity and coronary heart disease (iii) Iodised salt and cretinism (iv) Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality. Which factor best matches the type of RCT for item (d)?

a)

Cigarette smoking and lung cancer

b)

Physical activity and coronary heart disease

c)

Iodised salt and cretinism

d)

Aspirin and cardiovascular mortality

28.

Suggested norms for health personnel — item (a): List I (Health Personnel): (a) Nurses. List II (Suggested Norms): (i) 1 per 10,000 population (ii) 1 per 5,000 population (iii) 1 per 30,000 population (iv) 1 per 1,000 population. Which norm best matches item (a)?

a)

1 per 10,000 population

b)

1 per 5,000 population

c)

1 per 30,000 population

d)

1 per 1,000 population

29.

Suggested norms for health personnel — item (b): List I (Health Personnel): (b) Health Assistant. List II (Suggested Norms): (i) 1 per 10,000 population (ii) 1 per 5,000 population (iii) 1 per 30,000 population (iv) 1 per 1,000 population. Which norm best matches item (b)?

a)

1 per 10,000 population

b)

1 per 5,000 population

c)

1 per 30,000 population

d)

1 per 1,000 population

30.

Suggested norms for health personnel — item (c): List I (Health Personnel): (c) Lab Technician. List II (Suggested Norms): (i) 1 per 10,000 population (ii) 1 per 5,000 population (iii) 1 per 30,000 population (iv) 1 per 1,000 population. Which norm best matches item (c)?

a)

1 per 10,000 population

b)

1 per 5,000 population

c)

1 per 30,000 population

d)

1 per 1,000 population

31.

Suggested norms for health personnel — item (d): List I (Health Personnel): (d) ASHA. List II (Suggested Norms): (i) 1 per 10,000 population (ii) 1 per 5,000 population (iii) 1 per 30,000 population (iv) 1 per 1,000 population. Which norm best matches item (d)?

a)

1 per 10,000 population

b)

1 per 5,000 population

c)

1 per 30,000 population

d)

1 per 1,000 population

32.

The most appropriate initial study design for finding the strength of association in the above-mentioned scenario is: A. Cross-sectional study B. Case–control study C. Cohort study D. Interventional study E. Ecological study

a)

Cross-sectional study

b)

Case–control study

c)

Cohort study

d)

Interventional study

e)

Ecological study

33.

What measure will be calculated to assess the strength of association in the above-mentioned scenario using the selected study design? A. Relative risk B. Attributable risk C. Population attributable risk D. Odds ratio E. Risk ratio

a)

Relative risk

b)

Attributable risk

c)

Population attributable risk

d)

Odds ratio

e)

Risk ratio

34.

While constructing the Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI), which among the following indicators is NOT used? 1. Per Capita Income 2. Infant Mortality Rate 3. Life expectancy (at age one) 4. Basic literacy 5. None of the above

a)

Per Capita Income

b)

Infant Mortality Rate

c)

Life expectancy (at age one)

d)

Basic literacy

e)

None of the above

35.

In an outbreak setting, which of the following is used as the numerator to calculate the overall attack rate in a population? A. Number of new cases B. Number of new cases plus old cases C. Number of old cases D. Number of primary cases E. Total population at risk

a)

Number of new cases

b)

Number of new cases plus old cases

c)

Number of old cases

d)

Number of primary cases

e)

Total population at risk

36.

Which one of the following is NOT a measure of association for cohort studies? A. Rate Ratio (RR) B. Odds Ratio (OR) C. Attributable Risk (AR) D. Population Attributable Risk (PAR) E. Risk Ratio

a)

Rate Ratio (RR)

b)

Odds Ratio (OR)

c)

Attributable Risk (AR)

d)

Population Attributable Risk (PAR)

e)

Risk Ratio

37.

Match the ‘Five Year Plans’ (List I) with initiatives taken (List II) — item (a): List I: (a) The First Five Year Plan. List II: (i) Extension Education Approach (ii) Family Planning Clinics were opened (iii) The mass camp approach (iv) Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme. Which initiative best matches item (a)?

a)

Extension Education Approach

b)

Family Planning Clinics were opened

c)

The mass camp approach

d)

Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme

38.

Match the ‘Five Year Plans’ (List I) with initiatives taken (List II) — item (b): List I: (b) The Second Five Year Plan. List II: (i) Extension Education Approach (ii) Family Planning Clinics were opened (iii) The mass camp approach (iv) Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme. Which initiative best matches item (b)?

a)

Extension Education Approach

b)

Family Planning Clinics were opened

c)

The mass camp approach

d)

Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme

39.

Match the ‘Five Year Plans’ (List I) with initiatives taken (List II) — item (c): List I: (c) The Third Five Year Plan. List II: (i) Extension Education Approach (ii) Family Planning Clinics were opened (iii) The mass camp approach (iv) Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme. Which initiative best matches item (c)?

a)

Extension Education Approach

b)

Family Planning Clinics were opened

c)

The mass camp approach

d)

Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme

40.

Match the ‘Five Year Plans’ (List I) with initiatives taken (List II) — item (d): List I: (d) The Fourth Five Year Plan. List II: (i) Extension Education Approach (ii) Family Planning Clinics were opened (iii) The mass camp approach (iv) Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme. Which initiative best matches item (d)?

a)

Extension Education Approach

b)

Family Planning Clinics were opened

c)

The mass camp approach

d)

Inclusion of sterilization in F.P. Programme

41.

Which among the following is/are NOT the salient features of the current Indian population? (a) Large size and fast growth (b) Second stage of demographic transition (c) Rapidly rising density (d) Sex ratio composition favourable to female (e) Bottom-weak age structure Code Options: A. (a), (b) and (d) only B. (a) and (b) only C. (b) and (c) only D. (d) and (e) only

a)

(a), (b) and (d) only

b)

(a) and (b) only

c)

(b) and (c) only

d)

(d) and (e) only

42.

The strongest evidence for causality comes from ________ research method. A. Experimental B. Causal-comparative C. Correlation D. Ethnography E. Empirical

a)

Experimental

b)

Causal-comparative

c)

Correlation

d)

Ethnography

e)

Empirical

43.

Sequence the following steps of the community organisation process: (a) Identifying needs (b) Exploring the resources (c) Prioritising the needs (d) Developing programmes Code Options: A. (a), (b), (c), (d) B. (a), (c), (b), (d) C. (b), (a), (c), (d) D. (c), (b), (a), (d) E. (b), (c), (a), (d)

a)

(a), (b), (c), (d)

b)

(a), (c), (b), (d)

c)

(b), (a), (c), (d)

d)

(c), (b), (a), (d)

e)

(b), (c), (a), (d)

44.

Identify the correct sequence in the International Classification of Impairments, Disabilities, and Handicaps (ICIDH) framework: A. Impairment → Disease → Disability → Handicap B. Handicap → Disease → Impairment → Disability C. Disease → Disability → Impairment → Handicap D. Disease → Impairment → Disability → Handicap E. Disability → Impairment → Disease → Handicap

a)

Impairment → Disease → Disability → Handicap

b)

Handicap → Disease → Impairment → Disability

c)

Disease → Disability → Impairment → Handicap

d)

Disease → Impairment → Disability → Handicap

e)

Disability → Impairment → Disease → Handicap

45.

Identify the correct sequence regarding the stages of an outbreak investigation.

a)

Establish the existence of an outbreak → Verify the diagnosis → Define and identify cases → Describe and orient data in terms of time, place, and person → Develop hypotheses → Evaluate hypotheses → Implement control and prevention measures → Communicate findings

b)

Verify the diagnosis → Establish the existence of an outbreak → Define and identify cases → Describe and orient data → Develop hypotheses → Evaluate hypotheses → Implement control measures → Communicate findings

c)

Establish the existence of an outbreak → Define and identify cases → Verify the diagnosis → Describe and orient data → Develop hypotheses → Evaluate hypotheses → Implement control measures → Communicate findings

d)

Define and identify cases → Establish the existence of an outbreak → Verify the diagnosis → Describe data → Develop hypotheses → Evaluate hypotheses → Implement control measures → Communicate findings

e)

Establish the existence of an outbreak → Verify the diagnosis → Define and identify cases → Describe and orient data → Implement control measures → Develop hypotheses → Evaluate hypotheses → Communicate findings

46.

Select the main conceptual focus for Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY).

a)

Strengthening maternal and newborn nutrition and care

b)

Reducing the burden of mental health disorders in the community

c)

Reducing long-term non-communicable disease burden

d)

Community-level outreach integrating women’s and family health

47.

Select the main conceptual focus for National Mental Health Programme (NMHP).

a)

Strengthening maternal and newborn nutrition and care

b)

Reducing the burden of mental health disorders in the community

c)

Reducing long-term non-communicable disease burden

d)

Community-level outreach integrating women’s and family health

48.

Select the main conceptual focus for National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS).

a)

Strengthening maternal and newborn nutrition and care

b)

Reducing the burden of mental health disorders in the community

c)

Reducing long-term non-communicable disease burden

d)

Community-level outreach integrating women’s and family health

49.

Select the main conceptual focus for Swasth Nari, Sashakt Parivar Abhiyaan.

a)

Strengthening maternal and newborn nutrition and care

b)

Reducing the burden of mental health disorders in the community

c)

Reducing long-term non-communicable disease burden

d)

Community-level outreach integrating women’s and family health

50.

To benefit most from globalization, what is primarily needed by developing countries?

a)

External development programs

b)

Strategies and change processes from international agencies

c)

Social, political, and military support

d)

Collaborative effort transcending national boundaries

51.

The numerator is NOT a part of the denominator in:

a)

Rate

b)

Ratio

c)

Proportion

d)

Percentage

52.

The ‘Age Pyramid’ of developing countries is characterized by which of the following?

a)

Narrow base and bulge in middle

b)

Narrow base and broad at top

c)

Broad base and broad at top

d)

Broad base and tapering top

53.

The suitable reasons for developing the National Health Policy, 2017 includes all, except:

a)

Growing burden of NCDs

b)

Emergence of a robust healthcare industry

c)

Implementing Millennium Development Goals of the United Nations

d)

High catastrophic health expenditure

54.

The Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog mainly for:

a)

Fostering cooperative federalism

b)

Making better five-year plans

c)

Convergence of various sectors

d)

Prioritising problems through district bodies

55.

The National Institute of Health and Family Welfare (NIHFW) under the MOHFW serves as an apex training institute for in-service candidates. The similar structure at the state level is:

a)

State Institute of Health and Family Welfare

b)

State Health System Resource Centre

c)

State Program Management Unit

d)

State Health Society

56.

ICD codes are used in epidemiology and research primarily for:

a)

Predicting hereditary and polygenic disorders at the population level, independent of environmental exposures

b)

Standardizing morbidity and mortality data, facilitating international comparisons, trend analysis, and burden of disease estimation

c)

Guiding individual-level therapeutic interventions and prescribing evidence-based treatment protocols

d)

Monitoring healthcare infrastructure performance, resource allocation, and hospital administrative efficiency

57.

Sensitivity of a diagnostic test refers to:

a)

The ability of the test to identify true negatives

b)

The ability of the test to identify true positives

c)

The proportion of all positive results that are correct

d)

The proportion of all negative results that are correct

58.

Which of the following is considered a structural social determinant of health?

a)

Personal health behaviors

b)

Access to healthcare services

c)

Income inequality and social class

d)

Individual exercise habits

59.

Which of the following innovations is part of strengthening health information systems in India?

a)

Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)

b)

National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)

c)

eSanjeevani Telemedicine Initiative

d)

National Health Policy, 2017