wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chapter 7

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A clinician focuses on lowering a patient’s hallucinations using antipsychotic medication but does not address housing insecurity that worsens symptoms. This most reflects:

a)

Biomedical approach

b)


Biopsychosocial approach

c)

Humanistic approach

d)

Social cognitive approach

2.

A treatment plan includes medication, CBT for coping skills, and connecting the patient to a support group + family psychoeducation. This is best described as:

a)

A) Biomedical only

b)

B) Biopsychosocial with direct + indirect therapy

c)


C) Biopsychosocial with indirect therapy only

d)

D) Biomedical with indirect therapy

3.

The DSM-5 primarily classifies disorders based on:

a)

A) Etiology

b)

B) Treatment response

c)

C) Symptom patterns

d)

D) Neuroimaging findings

4.

Which is a positive symptom of psychotic disorders?

a)

A) Avolition

b)

B) Flat affect

c)

C) Hallucinations

d)

D) Anhedonia

5.

Which is a negative symptom most classically linked to schizophrenia?

a)

Delusions

b)

Disturbance of affect

c)

Echolalia

d)

Thought insertion

6.

A patient states: “The TV anchor is sending me secret instructions.” This is most consistent with:

a)

Delusion of reference

b)

Delusion of persecution

c)

Delusion of grandeur

d)

Derealization

7.

A patient believes neighbors are plotting to poison them and monitoring their mail. This is most consistent with:

a)

Delusion of grandeur

b)

Delusion of persecution

c)

Thought broadcasting

d)

Illness anxiety disorder

8.

A patient insists they are a divine messenger chosen to save humanity. This is most consistent with:

a)

Delusion of reference

b)

Delusion of grandeur

c)

Thought withdrawal

d)

Somatic symptom disorder

9.

A patient says: “Everyone can hear my thoughts through the air.” This is:

a)

Thought insertion

b)

Thought broadcasting

c)

Thought withdrawal

d)

Delusion of persecution

10.

A patient says: “Someone is putting thoughts into my head.” This is:

a)

Thought insertion

b)

Thought withdrawal

c)

Thought broadcasting

d)

Delusion of reference

11.

A patient says: “Someone is removing thoughts from my mind.” This is:

a)

Thought broadcasting

b)

Thought insertion

c)

Thought withdrawal

d)

Delusion of grandeur

12.

A patient hears voices arguing about them, with no external stimulus. This is:

a)

Auditory hallucination

b)

Delusion of reference

c)

Neologism

d)

Loose associations

13.

A patient sees “spiders crawling on the wall” during alcohol withdrawal. This is most consistent with:

a)

Negative symptoms

b)

Visual hallucinations

c)

Word salad

d)

Catatonia

14.

A patient’s speech shifts abruptly between loosely connected topics, making it difficult to follow. This is:

a)

Loosening of associations

b)

Echopraxia

c)

Blunted affect

d)

Avolition

15.

A patient’s speech is incoherent with jumbled words and no meaningful structure. This is:

a)

Word salad

b)

Echolalia

c)

Thought broadcasting

d)

Depersonalization

16.

A patient invents new words that others don’t recognize. This is:

a)

Neologisms

b)

Echolalia

c)

Echopraxia

d)

Catatonia

17.

A patient cannot manage hygiene, bills, and appointments due to psychosis. This is:

a)

Disorganized behavior

b)

Delusion of grandeur

c)

Avolition

d)

Derealization

18.

A patient repeatedly mimics the clinician’s movements during an interview. This is:

a)

Echolalia

b)

Echopraxia

c)

Loosening of associations

d)

Flat affect

19.

A patient repeats the clinician’s words back verbatim. This is:

a)

Echopraxia

b)

Echolalia

c)

Neologisms

d)

Avolition

20.

A patient maintains a rigid posture for hours and resists being moved. This behavior is most consistent with:

a)

Catatonia

b)

Panic disorder

c)

Somatic symptom disorder

d)

Conversion disorder

21.

A patient shows almost no facial expression and speaks in a monotone regardless of topic. This finding is best described as

a)

Flat affect

b)

Inappropriate affect

c)

Avolition

d)

Anhedonia

22.

A patient laughs uncontrollably while describing the death of a parent. This is an example of:

a)

Blunted affect

b)

Inappropriate affect

c)

Avolition

d)

Delusions of reference

23.

A patient demonstrates markedly reduced motivation to engage in goal-directed behavior. This symptom is known as

a)

Anhedonia

b)

Avolition

c)

Flight of ideas

d)

Psychomotor agitation

24.

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia, continuous signs of disturbance must be present for at least:

a)

One month

b)

Three months

c)

Six months

d)

One year

25.

The diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia require that the six-month period include at least one month of:

a)

Negative symptoms only

b)

Mood symptoms

c)

Positive symptoms

d)

Catatonic behavior

26.

The phase of schizophrenia characterized by social withdrawal, role impairment, and odd behavior prior to diagnosis is the:

a)

Active phase

b)

Prodromal phase

c)

Residual phase

d)

Catatonic phase

27.

Following an acute psychotic episode, a patient regains clarity and feels distressed about past behavior. This describes the:

a)

Prodromal phase

b)

Residual phase

c)

Active phase

d)

Latent phase

28.

A patient experiences hallucinations and delusions for 10 days and then returns fully to baseline. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Brief psychotic disorder

b)

Schizophreniform disorder

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Delusional disorder

29.

A patient presents with schizophrenia-like symptoms lasting two months. The most appropriate diagnosis is

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Schizophreniform disorder

c)

Brief psychotic disorder

d)

Delusional disorder

30.

A patient experiences persistent delusions for six weeks with otherwise normal functioning. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Delusional disorder

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

Schizoaffective disorder

d)

Schizophreniform disorder

31.

Psychotic symptoms occurring alongside major mood episodes suggest which diagnosis?

a)

Bipolar I disorder

b)

Schizoaffective disorder

c)

Delusional disorder

d)

Major depressive disorder

32.

Which disorder is most strongly associated with increased dopamine signaling?

a)

Parkinson’s disease

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

Alzheimer’s disease

d)

Major depressive disorder

33.

Most antipsychotic medications reduce psychotic symptoms primarily by:

a)

Increasing dopamine release

b)

Blocking dopamine receptors

c)

Increasing acetylcholine

d)

Blocking serotonin reuptake exclusively

34.

Which factor is considered a risk factor for schizophrenia?

a)

High acetylcholine levels

b)

Birth trauma with hypoxemia

c)

Low melatonin

d)

Early childhood depression

35.

Which exposure is associated with increased risk of schizophrenia?

a)

Adolescent marijuana use

b)

Vitamin D supplementation

c)

Low dietary protein

d)

Excessive aerobic exercise

36.

The mnemonic used to recall depressive symptoms is:

a)

DIG FAST

b)

SIG E CAPS

c)

PEN

d)

OCEAN

37.

A major depressive episode requires at least:

a)

Four symptoms lasting one week

b)

Five symptoms lasting two weeks

c)

Six symptoms lasting one month

d)

Nine symptoms lasting six months

38.

Which symptom must be present to diagnose a major depressive episode?

a)

Suicidal ideation

b)

Psychomotor agitation

c)

Depressed mood or anhedonia

d)

Appetite disturbance

39.

A patient reports five depressive symptoms including anhedonia but denies sadness. This still qualifies as MDD because:

a)

Sadness is not required if anhedonia is present

b)


Sleep disturbance substitutes for sadness

c)

Appetite changes replace sadness

d)

Guilt replaces sadness

40.

Persistent depressive disorder requires depressed mood for at least:

a)

Six months

b)

One year

c)

Two years

d)


Five years

41.

A child with chronic irritability and frequent temper outbursts across settings is most likely diagnosed with:

a)

Bipolar I disorder

b)

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

c)

Cyclothymic disorder

d)

Major depressive disorder

42.

Depression occurring only during winter months is best classified as:

a)

Persistent depressive disorder

b)

Major depressive disorder with seasonal onset

c)

Cyclothymic disorder

d)

Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

43.

Depressive symptoms occurring shortly after childbirth due to hormonal changes describe:

a)

Schizoaffective disorder

b)

Postpartum depression

c)

Conversion disorder

d)

Panic disorder

44.

According to the monoamine theory, mania is associated with:

a)

Low serotonin and norepinephrine

b)

High serotonin and norepinephrine

c)

Low dopamine only

d)

High acetylcholine

45.

Seven days of elevated mood with marked impairment defines a:

a)

Hypomanic episode

b)

Manic episode

c)

Cyclothymic episode

d)


Major depressive episode

46.

A hypomanic episode must last at least:

a)

One day

b)

Four days

c)

Seven days

d)

Two weeks

47.

Which symptom is included in the DIG FAST mnemonic?

a)

Guilt

b)

Talkativeness

c)


Flat affect

d)

Avolition

48.

A patient has manic episodes but no depressive episodes. The diagnosis is:

a)

Bipolar II disorder

b)

Bipolar I disorder

c)

Cyclothymic disorder

d)

Major depressive disorder

49.

Bipolar II disorder requires the presence of:

a)

Manic episodes only

b)

Hypomanic episodes only

c)

Major depressive episodes and hypomanic episodes

d)

Major depressive episodes and manic episodes

50.

Cyclothymic disorder requires fluctuating symptoms for at least:

a)

Six months

b)

One year

c)

Two years

d)

Five years

51.

Fear is best defined as:

a)

Persistent worry about many domains

b)

Response to immediate threat

c)

Intrusive thoughts

d)

Avoidance behavior

52.

Anxiety differs from fear because anxiety is:

a)

A response to immediate danger

b)

Fear of future or anticipated threats

c)

Always irrational

d)

Always pathological

53.

An irrational fear of elevators without concern about judgment is most consistent with:

a)

Social anxiety disorder

b)

Specific phobia

c)

Agoraphobia

d)

Generalized anxiety disorder

54.

Separation anxiety disorder is characterized by fear that:

a)

The individual will be judged negatively

b)

The caregiver or individual will be harmed if separated

c)

The individual has a medical illness

d)

The individual must perform rituals

55.

Social anxiety disorder differs from specific phobia because it involves:

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Fear of negative evaluation

c)

Disorganized thinking

d)

Avoidance of enclosed spaces

56.

Selective mutism involves:

a)

Sudden amnesia

b)

Inability to speak in specific social contexts

c)

Compulsive rituals

d)

Obsessive fear of illness

57.

Physiologically, panic attacks result from

a)

Parasympathetic activation

b)

Sympathetic nervous system misfiring

c)

Dopamine blockade

d)

Acetylcholine excess

58.

Panic disorder is defined by:

a)

Persistent worry for six months

b)

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks

c)

Fear of social situations

d)

Fear of contamination

59.

Agoraphobia is fear of situations where:

a)

Social judgment may occur

b)

Escape may be difficult

c)

Illness may develop

d)

Specific objects are present

60.

Generalized anxiety disorder requires excessive worry lasting at least:

a)

One month

b)

Three months

c)

Six months

d)

Two years

61.

Obsessive–compulsive disorder is characterized by:

a)

Delusions and hallucinations

b)

Obsessions that increase anxiety and compulsions that reduce it

c)

Perfectionism without distress

d)

Social withdrawal

62.

Obsessions and compulsions in OCD are typically:

a)

Ego-syntonic

b)

Ego-dystonic

c)

Psychotic

d)

Mood-congruent

63.

A key diagnostic requirement for OCD is that compulsions:

a)

Are pleasurable

b)

Cause functional impairment

c)

Always involve cleaning

d)

Occur only during stress

64.

Body dysmorphic disorder involves:

a)

Fear of social evaluation

b)

Preoccupation with perceived physical flaws

c)

Obsessions with disaster

d)

Flashbacks of trauma

65.

Trichotillomania requires which diagnostic feature?

a)

Delusions lasting one month

b)

Repeated unsuccessful attempts to stop hair pulling

c)

Two years of symptoms

d)

Presence of obsessions

66.

PTSD symptom clusters include:

a)

Intrusion, avoidance, arousal, negative cognition

b)


DIG FAST

c)

SIG E CAPS

d)

Positive and negative symptoms

67.

Trauma symptoms lasting less than one month are classified as:

a)

PTSD

b)

Acute stress disorder

c)

Dissociative disorder

d)

Panic disorder

68.

Dissociative disorders differ from psychotic disorders because they typically involve:

a)

Intact reality testing

b)


Delusions

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Catatonia

69.

Dissociative amnesia refers to:

a)

Memory loss due to brain injury

b)

Inability to recall experiences without neurological cause

c)

Fear of illness

d)

Avoidance behavior

70.

Dissociative fugue involves:

a)

Panic attacks

b)

Sudden travel with identity confusion

c)

Ritualistic behaviors

d)

Mood swings

71.

Dissociative identity disorder is characterized by:

a)

Delusions only

b)

Two or more identities controlling behavior

c)

Persistent worry

d)

Compulsions

72.

Depersonalization involves feeling detached from:

a)

The environment

b)

One’s own body or mind

c)

Other people

d)

Reality due to delusions

73.

Derealization involves feeling detached from:

a)

One’s body

b)

The surrounding environment

c)

Memories

d)

Future plans

74.

Somatic symptom disorder requires:

a)

Absence of symptoms

b)

Disproportionate concern about physical symptoms

c)


Psychotic symptoms

d)

Mood episodes

75.

Illness anxiety disorder is characterized by:

a)

Severe physical symptoms

b)

Preoccupation with having a serious illness

c)

Compulsive washing

d)

Delusions

76.

Conversion disorder involves:

a)

Fixed false beliefs

b)

Neurological-like symptoms without neurological cause

c)

Intrusive thoughts

d)

Excessive worry

77.

La belle indifférence refers to:

a)

Severe guilt

b)

Lack of concern about serious symptoms

c)

Emotional blunting from medication

d)

Manic euphoria

78.

Personality disorders must impair functioning in at least two of the following domains:

a)

Cognition, emotion, interpersonal function, impulse control

b)

Sleep, appetite, energy, mood

c)

Memory, attention, language, perception

d)

Delusions, hallucinations, catatonia

79.

Personality disorders are generally considered:

a)

Ego-dystonic

b)

Ego-syntonic

c)

Episodic

d)

Acquired after trauma only

80.

Cluster A personality disorders are described as:

a)

Dramatic and emotional

b)

Anxious and fearful

c)

Odd and eccentric

d)

Mood-dependent

81.

Paranoid personality disorder is marked by:

a)

Social detachment

b)

Pervasive distrust and suspicion

c)

Attention-seeking behavior

d)

Perfectionism

82.

Schizotypal personality disorder involves:

a)

Magical thinking and ideas of reference

b)

Manic episodes

c)

Dissociative fugue

d)

Flat affect

83.

Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by:

a)

Fear of rejection

b)

Detachment from social relationships

c)

Grandiosity

d)

Aggression

84.

Cluster B personality disorders are described as:

a)

Odd

b)

Anxious

c)

Dramatic, emotional, erratic

d)

Withdrawn

85.

Antisocial personality disorder involves:

a)

Fear of abandonment

b)

Disregard for others’ rights

c)

Perfectionism

d)

Social withdrawal

86.

Borderline personality disorder includes

a)

Stable relationships

b)

Instability in mood, identity, and relationships

c)


Delusions

d)

Emotional detachment

87.

Splitting is most characteristic of:

a)

Antisocial PD

b)

Borderline PD

c)

Histrionic PD

d)

Narcissistic PD

88.

Histrionic personality disorder is marked by:

a)

Emotional withdrawal

b)

Attention-seeking and dramatic behavior

c)

Ritualistic behavior

d)

Suspiciousness

89.

Narcissistic personality disorder involves:

a)

Low self-esteem with no grandiosity

b)

Grandiosity with fragile self-esteem

c)

Fear of abandonment

d)

Avoidance of attention

90.

Cluster C personality disorders are described as:

a)

Odd

b)

Dramatic

c)

Anxious and fearful

d)

Psychotic

91.

Avoidant personality disorder involves:

a)

Lack of desire for relationships

b)

Desire for relationships but fear of rejection

c)

Aggression

d)

Grandiosity

92.

Dependent personality disorder involves:

a)

Need for control

b)

Excessive reliance on others

c)

Emotional detachment

d)

Fear of crowds

93.

Obsessive–compulsive personality disorder differs from OCD because OCPD is:

a)

Episodic

b)

Ego-syntonic and lifelong

c)

Driven by obsessions

d)

Triggered by trauma

94.

Which best distinguishes OCD from OCPD?

a)

OCD is ego-dystonic; OCPD is ego-syntonic

b)

OCD lacks compulsions

c)

OCPD involves hallucinations

d)

OCPD is episodic

95.

Alzheimer’s disease most commonly presents initially with:

a)

Motor tremor

b)

Memory loss and disorientation

c)

Hallucinations

d)

Mood swings

96.

Which pathology is associated with Alzheimer’s disease?

a)

Dopamine depletion

b)

β-amyloid plaques

c)

Increased acetylcholine

d)

Substantia nigra degeneration

97.

Neurofibrillary tangles are composed of:

a)

Hyperphosphorylated tau

b)

β-amyloid

c)

Dopamine

d)

Serotonin

98.

Parkinson’s disease results from dopamine loss in the:

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Substantia nigra

c)

Amygdala

d)

Cerebellum

99.

Shuffling gait, pill-rolling tremor, and masklike facies indicate:

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Major depressive disorder

100.

l-DOPA improves Parkinson’s symptoms by:

a)

Blocking dopamine receptors

b)

Acting as a dopamine precursor

c)

Increasing acetylcholine

d)

Reducing serotonin

Similar Resources on Wayground

FINAL EXAM-ON PATHOLOGIC OB

100 questions

FINAL EXAM-ON PATHOLOGIC OB

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Org Chem Lab Review

100 questions

Org Chem Lab Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

DH 102- Final Review

98 questions

DH 102- Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Exam 1 (MedSurg) - Diabetes

100 questions

Exam 1 (MedSurg) - Diabetes

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Exam 2 (MedSurg): Urinary Problems

100 questions

Exam 2 (MedSurg): Urinary Problems

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Pharm Final Quiz 4 (Antimicrobial Agents)

105 questions

Pharm Final Quiz 4 (Antimicrobial Agents)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Health Promotion And Maintenance

100 questions

Health Promotion And Maintenance

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Vis bio part 1

100 questions

Vis bio part 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

University