Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Exam 2 (Peds) Part 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the definition of toddlers according to the study guide?

a)

Children aged 1-3 years

b)

Children aged 3-5 years

c)

Children aged 6-12 months

d)

Children aged 4-6 years

2.

How much does weight gain slow to per year in toddlers?

a)

4-6 pounds per year

b)

1-2 pounds per year

c)

8-10 pounds per year

d)

10-12 pounds per year

3.

By what age should birth weight be quadrupled in toddlers?

a)

2.5 years old

b)

1 year old

c)

4 years old

d)

3 years old

4.

How much does height increase per year in toddlers?

a)

About 3 inches per year

b)

About 6 inches per year

c)

About 1 inch per year

d)

About 8 inches per year

5.

Which of the following best describes growth in toddlers?

a)

Linear

b)

Steplike

c)

Exponential

d)

None of the above

6.

What is the acceptable visual acuity for toddlers?

a)

20/40

b)

20/20

c)

20/10

d)

20/100

7.

What major concern is highlighted for toddlers in terms of sensory changes?

a)

Safety becomes a major concern

b)

Language development slows down

c)

Nutritional needs decrease

d)

Social skills are fully developed

8.

Which infections are common among toddlers?

a)

URIs, otitis media, and tonsillitis

b)

Hepatitis B, tuberculosis, and malaria

c)

Herpes zoster, shingles, and gout

d)

Cholera, typhoid, and dengue

9.

At what age should voluntary control of elimination (sphincter control) develop in toddlers?

a)

18-24 months

b)

6-12 months

c)

2-3 years

d)

4-5 years

10.

At what age should toddlers be able to throw a ball?

a)

By age 18 months

b)

By age 6 months

c)

By age 3 years

d)

By age 5 years

11.

Between which ages does locomotion and improved coordination occur in toddlers?

a)

Between ages 2 and 3

b)

Between ages 4 and 5

c)

Between ages 6 and 7

d)

Between ages 8 and 9

12.

At what ages does improved manual dexterity occur in toddlers?

a)

Ages 12-15 months

b)

Ages 6-9 months

c)

Ages 18-21 months

d)

Ages 24-27 months

13.

According to Erikson, which developmental conflict is associated with toddlers?

a)

Initiative vs guilt

b)

Autonomy vs shame and doubt

c)

Trust vs mistrust

d)

Industry vs inferiority

14.

What is negativism in toddlers?

a)

Saying yes to everything

b)

Saying no to everything

c)

Ignoring instructions

d)

Repeating actions

15.

Ritualization in toddlers provides a sense of _______.

a)

comfort

b)

confusion

c)

fear

d)

boredom

16.

Which of the following is NOT a developmental task of toddlers?

a)

A) Differentiation of self from others

b)

B) Ability to withstand delayed gratification

c)

C) Control bodily functions

d)

D) Abstract thinking

17.

At what age does Piaget's preconceptual phase begin?

a)

Birth

b)

1 year

c)

2 years

d)

4 years

18.

Problem solving in toddlers is based on what they hear or see, not on recall of past events.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

By what age do toddlers typically recognize sexual differences?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

20.

Skills for independence in toddlers may result in which of the following behaviors?

a)

Calm and passive

b)

Tyrannical and volatile

c)

Withdrawn and shy

d)

Overly compliant

21.

Which of the following is NOT a skill developed by toddlers?

a)

Feeding

b)

Playing

c)

Dressing/undressing self

d)

Reading

22.

What is the 'work' of childhood?

a)

Play

b)

Study

c)

Sleep

d)

Chores

23.

Which of the following magnifies physical and psychosocial development?

a)

Play

b)

Sleep

c)

Eating

d)

Toileting

24.

Name two types of play mentioned in the worksheet that help develop childhood skills.

a)

Imitation, tactile play

b)

Competitive, digital play

c)

Solitary, passive play

d)

Virtual, repetitive play

25.

Which of the following is a sign of readiness for toilet training?

a)

Voluntary sphincter control

b)

Ability to count to ten

c)

Ability to read

d)

Ability to jump

26.

A child is able to stay dry for how many hours as a sign of toilet training readiness?

a)

2 hours

b)

1 hour

c)

4 hours

d)

30 minutes

27.

Willingness to please parents is a sign of readiness for toilet training.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of readiness for toilet training?

a)

Curiosity about adults' toilet habits

b)

Impatient with wet or soiled diapers

c)

Ability to stay dry for 30 minutes at a time

d)

Voluntary sphincter control

29.

Toddlers don't resent an infant but do resent the changes in routine that a sibling brings.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

List one way to reduce sibling rivalry response according to the worksheet.

a)

Preparing the toddler when he or she becomes aware of pregnancy

b)

Ignoring the toddler's feelings about the new baby

c)

Encouraging competition between siblings

d)

Punishing the toddler for jealousy

31.

Providing a realistic idea of what a newborn will be like (NOT a new friend or playmate) helps reduce what?

a)

Sibling rivalry response

b)

Parental anxiety

c)

Feeding difficulties

d)

Sleep disturbances

32.

Which of the following is a common behavior during temper tantrums?

a)

Kicking

b)

Screaming

c)

Breath holding

d)

All of the above

33.

Temper tantrums usually last how many minutes or less?

a)

5 minutes or less

b)

10 minutes or less

c)

15 minutes or less

d)

20 minutes or less

34.

Effective management of temper tantrums includes consistency and developmentally appropriate expectations.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

What are two strategies to manage negativism in preschool children?

a)

Offer two appropriate choices; Reduce opportunity for child to say no

b)

Ignore the child's feelings; Increase restrictions

c)

Punish the child for saying no; Remove all choices

d)

Allow unlimited choices; Encourage saying no frequently

36.

What is the age range defined as 'Preschool Age'?

a)

3-6 years old

b)

1-3 years old

c)

6-12 years old

d)

12-18 years old

37.

How much weight and height do preschool children typically gain per year?

a)

4-5 pounds per year, growth of 2-3 inches per year

b)

1-2 pounds per year, growth of 5-6 inches per year

c)

8-10 pounds per year, growth of 4-5 inches per year

d)

6-7 pounds per year, growth of 1 inch per year

38.

During preschool years, physical growth rate slows and stabilizes.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of physical proportions in preschool children?

a)

Slender but sturdy

b)

Graceful, agile, posture erect

c)

Males and females very different in size and proportion

d)

All of the above

40.

By age 3, which gross motor behaviors should a child be able to perform?

a)

Walking, running, climbing, jumping

b)

Writing letters, reading books, tying shoes

c)

Solving math problems, reciting poems, drawing shapes

d)

Riding a bicycle, swimming, playing chess

41.

By age 4, which gross motor skills are typically mastered?

a)

Skips and hops on one foot, catches a ball

b)

Rides a bicycle without training wheels

c)

Writes full sentences

d)

Ties shoelaces

42.

By age 5, which activities should a preschool child be able to do?

a)

Skips on alternate feet, jumps rope, learns to skate and swim

b)

Writes in cursive, solves algebra problems, drives a bicycle

c)

Reads novels, types on a computer, cooks meals

d)

Performs advanced gymnastics, plays chess, paints portraits

43.

What is the major theme of personal/social behavior in preschoolers?

a)

Self assertion

b)

Obedience to authority

c)

Complete independence

d)

Advanced logical reasoning

44.

At what ages do children become independent in dressing, eating, and toileting?

a)

By ages 4-5

b)

By ages 2-3

c)

By ages 6-7

d)

By ages 8-9

45.

Preschoolers have a desire to ________.

a)

please

b)

argue

c)

ignore

d)

compete

46.

Which of the following is NOT a part of preschool/kindergarten experience? (I decided to not touch or edit this AI generated slop question because it made me laugh)

a)

Learning group cooperation

b)

Peer group experiences

c)

Readiness for academics

d)

Driving a car

47.

Preschoolers are CONCRETE THINKERS and may be easily confused or misinterpret sayings.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

What is a characteristic of language development at ages 4-5?

a)

Four and five word sentences

b)

Babbling only

c)

No verbal communication

d)

Single word responses

e)

Two-word phrases

49.

By age 6, children can understand all parts of ________ and can identify opposites.

a)

speech

b)

music

c)

math

d)

stories

50.

Which of the following is a part of the development of body image in preschoolers?

a)

Increasing awareness of self and others

b)

Poorly defined body boundaries

c)

Poor understanding of internal anatomy

d)

All of the above

51.

Initiative vs guilt is a developmental stage in preschoolers.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Seeking professional help for parenting is recommended for which type of childhood problem?

a)

Aggressive behavior

b)

Toilet training

c)

Sibling rivalry

d)

Negativism

53.

What does HALT stand for in the context of early childhood health problems?

a)

Hungry, Angry, Lonely, Tired

b)

Happy, Active, Laughing, Talking

c)

Healthy, Alert, Learning, Thriving

d)

Hopeful, Attentive, Loving, Trusting

54.

Which of the following should be checked first in a child with speech issues?

a)

Hearing

b)

Nutrition

c)

Sleep

d)

Injury prevention

55.

What is dyslalia?

a)

Incorrect pronunciation

b)

Hearing loss

c)

Visual impairment

d)

Memory loss

56.

Which evaluation tool is used for speech issues in early childhood?

a)

Denver Articulation Speech Program

b)

Bayley Scales of Infant Development

c)

Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children

d)

Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scales

57.

What is the approximate nutritional requirement for preschool children?

a)

90 kcal/kg

b)

120 kcal/kg

c)

60 kcal/kg

d)

150 kcal/kg

58.

What is the recommended daily fluid requirement for preschool children?

a)

100 ml/kg daily

b)

50 ml/kg daily

c)

200 ml/kg daily

d)

30 ml/kg daily

59.

What is the average sleep duration per night for preschool children?

a)

12 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

15 hours

60.

Why are sleep rituals important for preschool children?

a)

They help establish healthy sleep patterns.

b)

They make children more energetic before bedtime.

c)

They reduce the need for any bedtime routine.

d)

They encourage children to stay up late.

61.

Name two safety measures to prevent injuries in early childhood.

a)

Bicycle helmets, gun safety-locks

b)

Skipping seat belts, sharp toys

c)

Leaving medicines accessible, open windows

d)

No supervision, broken playground equipment

62.

Fill in the blank: Cultural differences can affect sleep, such as ________.

a)

co-sleeping

b)

jet lag

c)

snoring

d)

sleepwalking

63.

Fill in the blank: Cleaning products are considered ________ agents if ingested.

a)

injurious

b)

nutritious

c)

harmless

d)

beneficial

64.

Fill in the blank: Hydrocarbons, such as ________, are considered injurious agents if ingested.

a)

gasoline

b)

water

c)

sugar

d)

salt

65.

What is the first step in emergency treatment for poisoning? Fill in the blank: Always call the ________ before initiating any interventions.

a)

Poison control center

b)

Fire department

c)

Local pharmacy

d)

Ambulance service

66.

Ipecac is recommended for in-home use during gastric decontamination.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Fill in the blank: ________ is commonly used for gastric decontamination in poisoning cases.

a)

Activated charcoal

b)

Sodium bicarbonate

c)

Normal saline

d)

Potassium permanganate

68.

You should initiate a blind sweep for foreign objects during emergency treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Fill in the blank: The most common heavy metal poisoning is caused by ________.

a)

lead

b)

mercury

c)

arsenic

d)

cadmium

70.

Lead poisoning correlates with:

a)

infection

b)

anemia

c)

leukocytosis

d)

bilirubinemia

71.

Lead poisoning is treated using _____ therapy, with the first-line drug being calcium disodium edetate.

a)

chemo

b)

chelation

c)

antibiotic

d)

steroidal

72.

Lead poisoning can lead to a dysfunction of which electrolyte?

a)

Calcium

b)

Chloride

c)

Bicarbonate

d)

Potassium

73.

What is the most common form of child maltreatment?

a)

Physical abuse

b)

Emotional abuse

c)

Neglect

d)

Sexual abuse

74.

SATA: Select all of the visual red flags of child abuse.

a)

bite marks

b)

burns

c)

bruising on abdomen

d)

bruising on knees and forearms

e)

bruising on the neck

75.

SATA: Select all of the radiologic red flags of child abuse.

a)

spiral fractures

b)

complex skull fractures

c)

subdural hematomas

d)

digit fractures

e)

retinal hemorrhages

76.

Which is true about shaken baby syndrome?

a)

There are often no visible signs of external injury

b)

This disorder rarely causes internal bleeding

c)

It is almost impossible to give a child shaken baby syndrome

d)

Usually babies are shaken on accident

77.

Who is most likely to abuse a child?

a)

the mother

b)

the father

c)

the sister

d)

the sister's boyfriend

78.

Because of the immaturity of neonatal kidneys, the urine that newborns produce is _____.

a)

concentrated

b)

dilute

c)

filled with ketones

d)

filled with casts

79.

SATA: Select the steps for calculating a child's fluid INTAKE requirements.

a)

Convert child's weight into kilograms

b)

Allow 100 ml/kg for first 10 kg

c)

Allow 50 ml/kg for second 10 kg

d)

Allow 20 ml/kg for remaining body weight

e)

Multiply by 1 and 2 to confirm the range

80.

Edema is common in pediatrics.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

What should be at the bedside of a pediatric patient undergoing hypovolemic shock?

a)

venturi mask

b)

non-rebreather

c)

oxymask

d)

nasal cannula

82.

The RN should be prepared to give the child with hypovolemic shock a bolus of ___ at a dosage of ___ ml/kg STAT.

a)

LR, 10

b)

NS, 50

c)

LR, 100

d)

NS, 20

e)

D5W, 25

83.

Patients in septic shock may present with a brisk capillary refill.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

One indicator of septic shock are elevated levels of:

a)

calcium

b)

lactate

c)

phosphate

d)

hydrogen

85.

The first line treatment for anaphylactic shock is:

a)

albuterol

b)

atrovent

c)

epinephrine

d)

norepinephrine

86.

What should the RN and HCP consider in a patient with non-hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock who has still not improved after the third isotonic bolus?

a)

Diuretics

b)

Beta 2 Agonists

c)

Colloids

d)

Glucocorticoids

87.

The Rule of Nines is used for burn assessments. What qualities of burns does this method assess?

a)

severity

b)

depth

c)

body surface area

d)

type

88.

What is the Parkland formula used for?

a)

Skin repair in burns

b)

Antibiotic dosage in burns

c)

Fluid replacement in burns

d)

Body surface area affected in burns

89.

The Parkland formula is: 4 x %BSA x weight in kg = volume of LR required.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

How much of the volume of LR acquired from the Parkland formula be given during the first 8 hours of treatment?

a)

1/2

b)

1/3

c)

1/4

d)

3/4

91.

How long after the first portion of the LR volume from the Parkland formula is administered should the second half be given?

a)

For the next 8 hours

b)

For the next 12 hours

c)

For the next 24 hours

d)

For the next 16 hours

92.

Pediatric urosepsis REQUIRES IV antibiotics.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Acute Glomerulonephritis can cause generalized ______ due to decreased GFR.

a)

dehydration

b)

edema

c)

hypovolemia

d)

fever

94.

The most common presentation of glomerular injury in children is:

a)

nephrotic syndrome

b)

hyperalbuminemia

c)

hypolipidemia

d)

pyelonephritis

95.

What is the drug of choice to treat nephrotic syndrome?

a)

amoxicillin

b)

penicillin

c)

prednisone

d)

doxycycline

96.

Nephrotic syndrome is closely associated with massive ____ loss from the urinary system.

a)

potassium

b)

calcium

c)

protein

d)

ketone

97.

Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is a ______ renal disease.

a)

infectious

b)

autoimmune

c)

genetic

d)

viral

98.

SATA: What should be reduced or lowered in a pediatric patient with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

a)

protein

b)

sodium

c)

calcium

d)

magnesium

e)

carbohydrates

99.

Children with fever, acidosis, and burns all have _____ fluid requirements.

a)

increased

b)

decreased

100.

Children with renal failure, heart failure, and increased ICP have _____ fluid requirements.

a)

increased

b)

decreased