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Patient Care pp. 13-17

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best explains why accurate and timely documentation is critical in clinical settings?

a)

It mainly serves marketing and public relations

b)

It is a legal record and supports reimbursement

c)

It helps with break scheduling for staff

d)

It replaces clinical assessments and exams

2.

In a SOAP note, which entry belongs in the Subjective section?

a)

Plan to initiate gait training tomorrow

b)

Therapist notes decreased hip strength 3/5

c)

Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg at rest

d)

Patient reports dizziness after standing up

3.

Which best differentiates subjective from objective data?

a)

Subjective is confidential; objective is public info

b)

Subjective is patient-reported; objective is clinician-measured

c)

Subjective must be cited; objective cannot be cited

d)

Subjective is always numerical; objective is descriptive

4.

Which item correctly matches the SOAP component with its focus?

a)

Plan: current measurable observations

b)

Assessment: clinician’s analysis of progress

c)

Subjective: clinician’s diagnosis summary

d)

Objective: future interventions to modify

5.

A key purpose of encounter forms (superbills) is to:

a)

Capture visit details for billing and coding

b)

Record only informal staff notes

c)

Replace electronic health records entirely

d)

Store inventory for clinic supplies

6.

Which is a common documentation error that should be avoided?

a)

Noting patient response to treatment

b)

Omitting significant findings from notes

c)

Recording both systolic and diastolic values

d)

Using approved medical abbreviations

7.

When making a late entry in a paper chart, the correct approach is to:

a)

Add a clearly dated late entry notation

b)

Leave the omission uncorrected

c)

Erase and rewrite the original entry

d)

Backdate to match the original session

8.

Which statement about EHR systems for physical therapy is most accurate?

a)

They make paper charts legally invalid

b)

They prevent all documentation errors automatically

c)

They eliminate the need for clinical judgment

d)

They streamline data entry and retrieval for care

9.

Which action improves timeliness and accuracy of charting?

a)

Enter notes in real time or same day

b)

Wait until week’s end to summarize

c)

Rely on memory instead of measurements

d)

Skip documenting minor vital signs

10.

Which temperature finding in an adult requires immediate reporting by a technician?

a)

97.9°F after drinking cold water

b)

100.4°F or higher measured accurately

c)

100.0°F measured tympanically at work

d)

98.6°F measured orally after resting

11.

When assessing a regular adult pulse at the radial artery, how long should you count to obtain rate accurately?

a)

10 seconds then multiply by six

b)

Full minute without multiplication

c)

15 seconds then multiply by four

d)

30 seconds without multiplication

12.

Which respiratory rate would be considered normal for a resting adult?

a)

22–28 breaths per minute

b)

8 breaths per minute

c)

12–20 breaths per minute

d)

30 breaths per minute

13.

Which blood pressure value is at or above the reportable threshold for adults in this setting?

a)

140/90 mmHg

b)

118/78 mmHg

c)

90/60 mmHg

d)

128/84 mmHg

14.

Which statement best describes normal pediatric ranges compared to adults?

a)

Children generally have higher normal blood pressures

b)

Children generally have higher resting pulses

c)

Children generally have lower body temperatures

d)

Children generally have lower respiratory rates

15.

A 17-year-old athlete has a resting pulse of 54 bpm with no symptoms. What is the best action?

a)

Report immediately as a critical low pulse

b)

Start rescue breathing and call emergency services

c)

Reassess after vigorous exercise

d)

Document as low but acceptable with conditioning

16.

When counting respirations, which technique is recommended for accuracy?

a)

Count while the patient talks to relax them

b)

Observe for 10 seconds and extrapolate

c)

Tell the patient you are timing breaths

d)

Watch chest or abdomen for 30–60 seconds

17.

Which stage of pressure injury is characterized by red, non-blanchable skin that does not fade when pressed?

a)

Stage 1 pressure injury

b)

Stage 2 pressure injury

c)

Stage 3 pressure injury

d)

Stage 4 pressure injury

e)

Unstageable pressure injury

18.

A wound shows partial-thickness skin loss with a shallow open sore. What stage is this pressure injury?

a)

Stage 1 with intact skin

b)

Stage 4 with exposed bone

c)

Stage 2 with shallow sore

d)

Stage 3 with deep crater

e)

Unstageable with eschar

19.

Full-thickness tissue loss revealing fat but not bone or muscle best describes which pressure injury stage?

a)

Stage 3 full-thickness loss

b)

Stage 4 exposed tendon

c)

Stage 2 blister formation

d)

Stage 1 superficial redness

e)

Unstageable obscured base

20.

A pressure ulcer has full-thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Which stage is it?

a)

Stage 1 intact redness

b)

Stage 3 subcutaneous fat

c)

Stage 2 shallow ulcer

d)

Unstageable obscured base

e)

Stage 4 exposed structures

21.

A wound base is covered with black eschar, making depth undeterminable. What is the correct classification?

a)

Stage 3 deep crater

b)

Stage 2 shallow sore

c)

Stage 1 redness only

d)

Unstageable pressure injury

e)

Stage 4 exposed bone

22.

During wound cleaning, what is the correct direction to minimize contamination?

a)

From distal to proximal

b)

From wound edge inward

c)

From center outward

d)

From clean area outward

e)

From least to most contaminated

23.

Foam dressings are best indicated for which wound characteristic?

a)

Highly contaminated wounds

b)

Necrotic wounds requiring enzymes

c)

Shallow, non-draining wounds

d)

Wounds with moderate exudate

e)

Dry wounds needing moisture

24.

Transparent films are most suitable for which situation?

a)

Heavily exudative wound

b)

Bleeding post-op incision

c)

Shallow non-draining wound

d)

Infected undermined wound

e)

Deep tunneling wound

25.

Which combination correctly matches wound type with a common cause?

a)

Diabetic ulcers—excess arterial perfusion

b)

Traumatic wounds—immobility on bony areas

c)

Venous stasis ulcers—inadequate venous return

d)

Pressure ulcers—acute thermal burns

e)

Surgical wounds—electrical injury only

26.

Which finding should be reported immediately as a sign of possible wound infection or complication?

a)

Increased pain and foul odor

b)

Mild pink granulation

c)

Stable dry eschar

d)

Scant clear drainage

e)

Edges approximated well

27.

Tunneling and undermining are best described as which phenomena?

a)

Dry scab formation over surface

b)

Superficial epithelial budding

c)

Raised keloids forming externally

d)

Narrow passageways under skin or wider area under edges

e)

Surface blisters at wound edge

28.

Which practice is most appropriate when securing a dressing?

a)

Secure with medical tape or wrap as directed

b)

Wrap tightly to restrict blood flow

c)

Avoid following facility protocol for flexibility

d)

Use any tape regardless of skin integrity

e)

Leave edges loose to allow air entry

29.

Which observation best indicates Trendelenburg gait during stance phase?

a)

Knee remains fully extended during stance

b)

Pelvis drops on swing side during stance

c)

Pelvis elevates bilaterally during stance

d)

Trunk flexes forward throughout stance

30.

During a patient interview, which action best encourages fuller responses while maintaining rapport?

a)

Use rapid yes–no questions for efficiency

b)

Use open-ended questions with calm demeanor

c)

Focus only on current pain score rating

d)

Avoid discussing aggravating factors entirely

31.

Which pair correctly matches an abnormal posture with its description?

a)

Kyphosis: lateral spinal curvature

b)

Scoliosis: decreased coronal curvature

c)

Kyphosis: excessive thoracic curvature

d)

Lordosis: decreased lumbar curvature

32.

A grade of 5 on the Manual Muscle Testing (MMT) scale indicates which performance?

a)

Trace contraction without joint movement

b)

No visible or palpable muscle activation

c)

Movement through partial gravity range

d)

Full strength against maximal resistance

33.

Which deep tendon reflex grade reflects hyperactive response?

a)

2+ on the reflex grading scale

b)

0 on the reflex grading scale

c)

4+ on the reflex grading scale

d)

1+ on the reflex grading scale

34.

Before palpation for tissue assessment, which step is essential for safe, patient-centered care?

a)

Explain process and obtain consent first

b)

Begin quickly to reduce discomfort

c)

Palpate one side only for efficiency

d)

Skip comparisons to avoid bias

35.

Which action is the priority first aid for external hemorrhage?

a)

Remove soaked dressings immediately

b)

Keep limb elevated above the heart

c)

Apply a tourniquet as first measure

d)

Apply direct pressure to the wound

36.

Which sequence accurately represents the initial CPR approach for an unresponsive adult with no pulse?

a)

Assess pulse only, then reassess responsiveness

b)

Check airway, give breaths, start compressions

c)

Call EMS, give breaths, check pulse again

d)

Start compressions, ensure airway, provide breaths

37.

For single-rescuer CPR, which compression-to-ventilation ratio is correct across ages?

a)

15 compressions to 1 breath

b)

30 compressions to 2 breaths

c)

15 compressions to 2 breaths

d)

30 compressions to 1 breath

38.

What is the recommended hand placement for chest compressions in a child during single-rescuer CPR?

a)

One or two hands on lower half sternum

b)

Two hands on center above nipple line

c)

Two thumbs encircling chest for all ages

d)

Two fingers on lower half of sternum

39.

During gait assessment, recognizing antalgic gait primarily reflects which patient behavior?

a)

Pelvic hiking during initial contact

b)

Reduced stance time due to pain

c)

Exaggerated arm swing bilaterally

d)

Increased step length to compensate

40.

Which sequence correctly orders the steps for initiating CPR when a person is unresponsive and not breathing normally?

a)

Breathing, Airway, Circulation sequence

b)

Defibrillation, Airway, Breathing sequence

c)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation sequence

d)

Circulation, Airway, Breathing sequence

41.

For a single rescuer performing CPR on any age, what is the standard compression‑to‑ventilation ratio?

a)

15 compressions to 2 breaths

b)

10 compressions to 1 breath

c)

30 compressions to 2 breaths

d)

20 compressions to 2 breaths

42.

What compression rate should be maintained during CPR for all age groups?

a)

120–140 compressions per minute

b)

100–120 compressions per minute

c)

80–100 compressions per minute

d)

60–80 compressions per minute

43.

A single rescuer is providing CPR to an infant under 1 year. Which hand placement and depth are correct?

a)

One hand on lower sternum, about 2 inches

b)

Two hands at the center, at least 2 inches

c)

Two thumbs encircling chest, about 2 inches

d)

Two fingers below nipple line, about 1.5 inches

44.

Which statement best describes age‑specific hand placement for chest compressions with one rescuer?

a)

Adults: lower half sternum; Children: center chest; Infants: two fingers

b)

Adults: lower ribs; Children: xiphoid area; Infants: heel of hand

c)

Adults: center chest; Children: lower half sternum; Infants: two fingers

d)

Adults: upper sternum; Children: center chest; Infants: two thumbs

45.

Which action should occur first after confirming scene safety for an unresponsive person with no normal breathing and no pulse?

a)

Deliver two rescue breaths immediately

b)

Begin chest compressions promptly

c)

Check for injuries before compressions

d)

Place the person in recovery position

46.

Which combination of compression depth and hand use is recommended for children aged 1–12 years during CPR?

a)

One or two hands, about 2 inches deep

b)

Two hands, at least 2 inches deep

c)

Thumbs‑encircling technique, 1 inch deep

d)

Two fingers, about 1.5 inches deep

47.

In two‑rescuer infant CPR, what is the recommended hand technique for compressions?

a)

Heel of one hand on sternum

b)

Two fingers on lower sternum

c)

Two thumbs encircling the chest

d)

Two hands pressing center chest