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Abnormal Psychology Chapter 7-12

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines schizophrenia?

a)

A personality trait variation with stable relationships

b)

A neurodegenerative disease causing motor paralysis

c)

A temporary mood disorder without cognitive changes

d)

A chronic psychotic disorder with functional impairment

2.

When does schizophrenia most commonly emerge?

a)

Late adulthood after retirement

b)

Immediately after birth in neonates

c)

Middle childhood around age eight

d)

Late adolescence or early adulthood

3.

Which feature is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Anhedonia with diminished pleasure

b)

Hallucinations involving hearing voices

c)

Avolition with reduced motivation

d)

Flat affect with limited expression

4.

Delusions are best described as:

a)

Fixed false beliefs not grounded in reality

b)

Brief doubts that resolve with evidence

c)

Sensory misperceptions due to external stimuli

d)

Accurate interpretations of unusual events

5.

Which is a common type of delusion noted in schizophrenia?

a)

Seasonal variation with winter onset

b)

Somatic focus on muscle cramps

c)

Persecutory themes of being targeted

d)

Language impairment with aphasia

6.

Auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia often involve:

a)

Rhythmic tinnitus from ear pathology

b)

Musical ear syndrome after hearing loss

c)

Voices commenting, criticizing, or commanding

d)

External sounds misheard as animal calls

7.

Negative symptoms primarily reflect:

a)

Reduction or absence of normal functioning

b)

Exaggeration of perceptual experiences

c)

Acute agitation during manic episodes

d)

Enhanced creativity and social fluency

8.

Which set lists negative symptoms?

a)

Pressured speech, flight of ideas

b)

Hypervigilance, panic attacks

c)

Grandiose ideas, referential beliefs

d)

Avolition, flat affect, anhedonia

9.

Avolition most closely means:

a)

Heightened emotional expressiveness

b)

Lack of motivation for goal-directed behavior

c)

Intrusive thoughts that feel implanted

d)

Increased pleasure from daily activities

10.

Which statement about genetic risk is accurate?

a)

MZ twin concordance around forty-four percent

b)

No familial aggregation is observed

c)

Single gene fully explains inheritance

d)

Adoption eliminates genetic vulnerability

11.

What does a 44% MZ twin concordance imply?

a)

Genetics alone fully determines occurrence

b)

Risk is identical in all siblings and cousins

c)

Genes increase vulnerability but do not guarantee

d)

Environmental factors are irrelevant to onset

12.

The genetic architecture of schizophrenia is best characterized as:

a)

Mitochondrial inheritance from mothers

b)

Monogenic trait with one causal variant

c)

Y-linked pattern limited to males

d)

Polygenic risk with many small effects

13.

Which statement reflects gene–environment interaction?

a)

Environment only affects recovery, not onset

b)

Environmental stressors are unnecessary for onset

c)

Genetic vulnerability requires environmental triggers

d)

Genes alone fully explain symptom patterns

14.

According to the dopamine hypothesis, positive symptoms reflect:

a)

Deficiency of acetylcholine in cortex

b)

Overactivity at dopamine D2 receptors

c)

Underactivity of serotonin transporters

d)

Hyperactivity of norepinephrine in brainstem

15.

Antipsychotic medications primarily reduce:

a)

Cortisol levels to reduce stress response

b)

Oxytocin to decrease social bonding

c)

Dopamine signaling to alleviate symptoms

d)

GABA inhibition to increase arousal

16.

Glutamate dysfunction in schizophrenia is linked to:

a)

Purely positive symptoms without cognition

b)

Cognitive deficits and negative symptoms

c)

Peripheral neuropathy and motor weakness

d)

Enhanced episodic memory and recall

17.

Which structural brain finding is associated with schizophrenia?

a)

Thickened corpus callosum across hemispheres

b)

Cerebellar hypertrophy with increased folds

c)

Increased hippocampal volume and density

d)

Enlarged ventricles indicating less brain tissue

18.

Reduced prefrontal cortex activity is most likely to impair:

a)

Auditory acuity in pure tone testing

b)

Executive functions such as planning

c)

Basic reflex arcs and spinal responses

d)

Olfactory perception and smell detection

19.

Which belief can lead families to attribute schizophrenia to non-medical causes in Malaysia?

a)

Spiritual possession or black magic

b)

Genetic mutation in dopamine genes

c)

Childhood exposure to lead paint

d)

Diet high in refined carbohydrates

20.

What effect does adolescent cannabis use have on schizophrenia risk in genetically vulnerable individuals?

a)

Has no measurable effect

b)

Only affects negative symptoms

c)

Increases the risk substantially

d)

Eliminates the risk entirely

21.

Which household context is associated with higher expressed emotion (EE) and relapse?

a)

Short-term clinical residency

b)

Living alone in a studio

c)

Extended family households

d)

University dormitory housing

22.

How does criticism or over-involvement in families typically impact relapse rates?

a)

Has no impact on relapse

b)

Increases relapse rates

c)

Eliminates relapse risk

d)

Improves medication responses

23.

Which statement best describes expressed emotion (EE) in schizophrenia management?

a)

High EE predicts greater relapse

b)

High EE reduces hallucinations

c)

Low EE causes medication side effects

d)

EE is unrelated to family dynamics

24.

Which intervention is specifically aimed at reducing expressed emotion in families?

a)

Mindfulness-only retreats

b)

Electroconvulsive therapy

c)

Family psychoeducation

d)

High-dose benzodiazepines

25.

What primary benefit do long-acting injectable antipsychotics provide?

a)

Reduce non-compliance with medication

b)

Eliminate all delusional beliefs

c)

Increase family involvement strongly

d)

Replace psychosocial therapies entirely

26.

Which therapy helps patients challenge delusional beliefs and cope with hallucinations?

a)

Dialectical Behaviour Therapy

b)

Cognitive Behavioural Therapy

c)

Interpersonal Therapy

d)

Exposure and Response Prevention

27.

Which training aims to improve independence and community reintegration for schizophrenia?

a)

Social skills and vocational training

b)

Only pharmacological dosing changes

c)

Strict bed rest for several weeks

d)

High-intensity aerobic programs

28.

Which pharmacological example represents a first-generation antipsychotic?

a)

Lithium is a typical antipsychotic

b)

Sertraline is an atypical antipsychotic

c)

Clozapine is a typical antipsychotic

d)

Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic

29.

Which pharmacological example represents a second-generation antipsychotic?

a)

Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic

b)

Haloperidol is an atypical antipsychotic

c)

Fluoxetine is an atypical antipsychotic

d)

Valproate is an atypical antipsychotic

30.

Which psychosocial interventions are listed as part of treatment strategies?

a)

CBT, family therapy, social skills

b)

EMDR, ketamine infusions, yoga

c)

Biofeedback, herbalism, fasting

d)

Psychoanalysis, hypnosis, diets

31.

What is a consequence of limited mental health literacy in families?

a)

Has no effect on adherence

b)

Worsens clinical outcomes

c)

Guarantees faster remission

d)

Eliminates stigma completely

32.

How can stigma related to spiritual possession beliefs affect help-seeking?

a)

Accelerates professional referrals

b)

Improves early psychoeducation

c)

Delays help-seeking and adherence

d)

Ensures immediate hospitalisation

33.

Which early-life factor is noted as a developmental risk for schizophrenia?

a)

Bilingual education at preschool

b)

Prenatal infections or malnutrition

c)

Early athletic excellence records

d)

High vitamin intake during infancy

34.

Which DSM-5 feature best indicates Alcohol Use Disorder progression in a patient who drinks despite health warnings?

a)

Tolerance requiring larger amounts

b)

Continued use despite harm

c)

Loss of control during episodes

d)

Cravings increasing over months

35.

A patient with trembling hands after stopping alcohol likely demonstrates which clinical phenomenon?

a)

Acute intoxication syndrome

b)

Post-acute adjustment

c)

Tolerance development only

d)

Withdrawal with autonomic signs

36.

Which pattern most characterizes Cannabis Use Disorder in students?

a)

Single experimental exposure

b)

Seasonal use during holidays

c)

Daily or frequent consumption

d)

Occasional weekend social use

37.

Impaired memory and reduced motivation are most associated with which condition?

a)

Cannabis Use Disorder mainly

b)

Alcohol Use Disorder primarily

c)

Generalized anxiety disorder

d)

Opioid intoxication episodes

38.

Which withdrawal symptoms are typical after heavy cannabis use cessation?

a)

Hallucinations with fever

b)

Bradycardia and hypotension

c)

Seizures and tremors mostly

d)

Irritability and sleep disturbance

39.

In the dopamine reward pathway, repeated substance exposure most likely causes which change?

a)

Desensitization of stress circuits

b)

Complete inhibition of dopamine firing

c)

Sensitisation increasing reward drive

d)

Neutralization of craving signals

40.

Which medication is first-line to reduce heavy drinking in Alcohol Use Disorder within Malaysian services?

a)

Naltrexone for cravings

b)

Disulfiram in all cases

c)

Carbamazepine taper

d)

Naloxone daily dosing

41.

Which agent is used to maintain opioid dependence treatment in community clinics?

a)

Methadone long-acting agonist

b)

Buprenorphine short detox

c)

Naloxone rescue spray

d)

Naltrexone oral blocker

42.

Which psychological intervention targets triggers and relapse prevention for SUD?

a)

Dialectical reframing only

b)

Exposure therapy primarily

c)

CBT structured coping work

d)

Hypnosis for craving removal

43.

Motivational Interviewing is primarily used for which purpose in SUD care?

a)

Replacing pharmacotherapy

b)

Managing acute withdrawal

c)

Enhancing treatment engagement

d)

Screening laboratory tests

44.

Which social factor commonly sustains substance use among youths?

a)

Peer influence pressures

b)

Public health campaigns

c)

Family therapy scheduling

d)

Legislative enforcement

45.

An integrated biopsychosocial approach is considered most effective because it does which?

a)

Targets neurological receptors only

b)

Combines medical and social supports

c)

Prioritizes detox over therapy

d)

Eliminates need for medications

46.

Which is a DSM-5 feature shared by Alcohol and Opioid Use Disorders?

a)

Peripheral neuropathy symptoms

b)

Cannabis-specific memory issues

c)

Hyperthyroid-like agitation

d)

Tolerance requiring more substance

47.

A patient using cannabis daily despite failing courses exemplifies which criterion?

a)

Physical dependence only

b)

Loss of control episodes

c)

Psychosis due to intoxication

d)

Continued use despite problems

48.

Which set best matches opioid withdrawal symptoms listed?

a)

Mania, insomnia, grandiosity

b)

Pain, vomiting, anxiety

c)

Euphoria, constipation, miosis

d)

Bradycardia, dry skin, calm

49.

Family therapy in SUD primarily aims to do which?

a)

Replace individual psychotherapy

b)

Avoid community involvement

c)

Educate supportive communication

d)

Teach punitive discipline methods

50.

Second-generation antipsychotics are noted for which advantage relevant to adherence?

a)

Require weekly blood tests

b)

More side effects than first

c)

Better tolerability overall

d)

No effect on negative symptoms

51.

Which statement best reflects the goal of Malaysian SUD strategies?

a)

Biological-only medication focus

b)

Psychological techniques exclusively

c)

Balanced biopsychosocial integration

d)

Community isolation for patients

52.

Which treatment approach primarily reduces cravings in substance use disorder management?

a)

Social supports through community groups

b)

Psychological therapies such as CBT

c)

Biological interventions like medication

d)

Detoxification without follow-up care

53.

What is a key limitation associated with psychological treatments for substance use disorders?

a)

Causes frequent cardiovascular events

b)

Limited to urban specialty hospitals

c)

Requires sustained patient motivation

d)

High risk of dependence on therapy

54.

In rural regions of Malaysia, what barrier most affects access to social support treatments for substance use disorders?

a)

Limited availability in rural areas

b)

Excessive medication side effects

c)

Strict DSM-5 diagnostic thresholds

d)

High relapse rates during detox

55.

Which combined plan is identified as the best option in Malaysia for treating substance use disorders?

a)

Medication with CBT and family involvement

b)

Detoxification with peer support only

c)

CBT alone without pharmacotherapy

d)

Residential care without family contact

56.

Which symptom profile aligns with stimulant-induced paranoia?

a)

Bradycardia with excessive sleep

b)

Calm mood with reduced alertness

c)

Suspiciousness with possible hallucinations

d)

Euphoria with rapid weight gain

57.

Which health risk is most directly associated with stimulant use disorder?

a)

Autoimmune flare-ups from immunotherapy

b)

Pulmonary embolism from immobility

c)

Liver cirrhosis from alcohol toxicity

d)

Cardiovascular events like arrhythmias

58.

Which clinical characteristic best distinguishes anorexia nervosa from other eating disorders?

a)

Frequent meal skipping habit

b)

Preference for low-sugar foods

c)

Occasional overeating episodes

d)

Intense fear of weight gain

59.

In anorexia nervosa, which pattern of eating is typically observed?

a)

Severe food restriction

b)

Night-time snacking

c)

High-protein meal planning

d)

Irregular breakfast choices

60.

What does distorted body image most directly refer to in eating disorders?

a)

Disliking certain cuisines

b)

Misperceiving one’s body size

c)

Confusing thirst with hunger

d)

Forgetting recent meals eaten

61.

Which medical risk is commonly associated with anorexia nervosa?

a)

Heart failure

b)

Kidney stones

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Migraine headaches

62.

Family-Based Therapy (FBT) in Malaysia is characterized by which feature?

a)

Primary use for adult patients

b)

Strong parental involvement

c)

Focus on workplace stress

d)

Emphasis on sports performance

63.

Which limitation is noted for Family-Based Therapy (FBT)?

a)

Less effective for adults

b)

Requires intensive hospitalization

c)

Lacks measurable outcomes

d)

Increases medication dependence

64.

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) primarily targets which treatment focus for eating disorders?

a)

Distorted beliefs

b)

Macronutrient balance

c)

Family communication

d)

Sleep hygiene

65.

A common limitation of CBT in this context is that it:

a)

Relies on group therapy only

b)

Demands strict dietary supplements

c)

Always needs inpatient care

d)

Requires insight and motivation

66.

Which feature is central to Binge Eating Disorder (BED)?

a)

Recurrent binge eating

b)

Persistent fasting rituals

c)

Compensatory purging

d)

Daily caloric tracking

67.

Loss of control during eating episodes is most characteristic of:

a)

Binge Eating Disorder

b)

Pica

c)

Orthorexia

d)

Anorexia Nervosa

68.

Which emotional response commonly follows binge episodes in BED?

a)

Neutral indifference

b)

Calm satisfaction

c)

Elation and pride

d)

Guilt and distress

69.

Which statement accurately differentiates BED from bulimia nervosa?

a)

BED requires strict dietary rules

b)

BED focuses on body image ideals

c)

BED involves routine vomiting

d)

BED has no compensatory behaviours

70.

For BED, what is a noted strength of CBT?

a)

Speeds weight gain

b)

Eliminates hunger cues

c)

Enhances appetite

d)

Reduces binges

71.

A limitation often associated with CBT for BED in Malaysia is:

a)

High relapse rates

b)

Excessive sedation

c)

Access and cost

d)

Mandatory hospitalization

72.

Interpersonal Therapy (IPT) for BED primarily aims to:

a)

Improve emotions

b)

Increase exercise routines

c)

Monitor calorie intake

d)

Teach cooking skills

73.

Which key feature defines bulimia nervosa?

a)

Morning-only eating

b)

Strict vegetarian diet

c)

Binge–purge cycle

d)

Chronic dehydration

74.

Which are examples of compensatory behaviours in bulimia nervosa?

a)

Vomiting and laxatives

b)

Meal planning and journaling

c)

Mindfulness and meditation

d)

Hydration and sleep

75.

In bulimia nervosa, self-worth is often closely tied to:

a)

Body image

b)

Academic grades

c)

Peer approval

d)

Work productivity

76.

In Mei Ling’s case, CBT is used primarily to:

a)

Encourage dietary supplements

b)

Promote fasting schedules

c)

Increase medication doses

d)

Normalise eating patterns

77.

A secondary CBT target in Mei Ling’s case is:

a)

Address perfectionism

b)

Boost athletic training

c)

Reduce caffeine intake

d)

Improve sleep timing

78.

For bulimia nervosa, SSRIs most consistently:

a)

Replace all psychotherapy

b)

Eliminate distorted beliefs

c)

Cause rapid weight loss

d)

Reduce binge–purge frequency

79.

SSRI use is generally most effective when:

a)

Combined with therapy

b)

Used without monitoring

c)

Given only as-needed

d)

Paired with extreme dieting

80.

An exam strategy highlighted for case questions is to:

a)

Provide specific interventions with justification

b)

List general textbook definitions

c)

Avoid cultural context entirely

d)

Skip linking etiology to treatment

81.

When discussing Malaysian context in treatment planning, students should:

a)

Ignore family involvement norms

b)

Prioritize Western-only protocols

c)

Exclude language considerations

d)

Use Malaysian cultural context

82.

Which core symptom domain includes difficulty sustaining attention and disorganisation?

a)

Combined presentation symptoms only

b)

Hyperactivity symptoms like restlessness

c)

Inattention symptoms like forgetfulness

d)

Impulsivity symptoms like acting quickly

83.

A student frequently loses school items and avoids tasks needing sustained effort. Which ADHD domain best fits?

a)

Impulsivity with risk-taking behaviour

b)

Hyperactivity with constant movement

c)

Inattention with distractibility

d)

Oppositional behaviour without ADHD

84.

Which behaviour is a case indicator of hyperactivity?

a)

Difficulty following complex rules

b)

Frequently losing school stationery

c)

Leaves seat repeatedly during class

d)

Blurting out answers during tests

85.

Which behaviour most reflects impulsivity rather than hyperactivity?

a)

Excessive fidgeting at the desk

b)

Interrupting others during conversations

c)

Difficulty remaining seated in lessons

d)

Running or climbing in unsafe places

86.

In DSM-5, ADHD presentations include which grouping?

a)

Mild, moderate, and severe variants

b)

Childhood-onset and adult-onset types

c)

Predominantly inattentive, hyperactive-impulsive, combined

d)

Hyperactive-only and inattentive-only

87.

According to DSM-5, when must ADHD symptoms begin?

a)

After age 16 in adolescence

b)

Any age if impairment exists

c)

Exactly by age 10 years

d)

Before age 12 in childhood

88.

Which classroom sign aligns with inattention rather than impulsivity?

a)

Difficulty waiting turns at games

b)

Risk-taking like running into traffic

c)

Frequently losing homework sheets

d)

Blurting out answers mid-question

89.

Which example best shows impairment across settings, a key diagnostic consideration?

a)

Distracted at home but focused at school

b)

Interrupts peers at school and siblings at home

c)

Restless only during physical education

d)

Fidgets in class yet calm during exams

90.

A child runs and climbs in inappropriate situations. This suggests which symptom domain?

a)

Hyperactivity with excessive motor activity

b)

Anxiety with avoidance behaviours

c)

Inattention with distractibility

d)

Impulsivity with acting without thinking

91.

Which statement best distinguishes impulsivity from inattention?

a)

Impulsivity involves acting without thinking

b)

Inattention is constant physical movement

c)

Impulsivity is losing school items often

d)

Inattention is waiting turns patiently

92.

For exam cases, linking behaviours to which aspect strengthens reasoning?

a)

Teacher bias and grading policies

b)

Impairment with school, peers, family

c)

Cultural proverbs and expectations

d)

Medication side-effect profiles

93.

Which symptom is least consistent with hyperactivity?

a)

Frequently losing school items

b)

Running or climbing in wrong places

c)

Difficulty remaining seated in class

d)

Excessive fidgeting over long lessons

94.

‘Difficulty waiting turns’ best aligns with which ADHD feature?

a)

Hyperactivity causing restlessness

b)

Oppositionality causing defiance

c)

Inattention causing forgetfulness

d)

Impulsivity causing impatience

95.

Which case indicator matches inattention?

a)

Risk-taking behaviour like unsafe climbing

b)

Blurting out answers unexpectedly

c)

Constant movement when told sit still

d)

Poor performance despite average intelligence

96.

In Malaysia, which factor can complicate ADHD diagnosis?

a)

Mandatory neuroimaging for confirmation

b)

Limited DSM-5 criteria availability

c)

Cultural expectations about classroom behaviour

d)

Absence of symptoms before adolescence

97.

Which pair correctly links symptom domain to example?

a)

Impulsivity—frequently losing items

b)

Hyperactivity—difficulty remaining seated

c)

Hyperactivity—avoiding mental effort tasks

d)

Inattention—interrupting others often

98.

A teen shows average intelligence but incomplete homework and forgetfulness. Most consistent presentation?

a)

No ADHD due to normal intelligence

b)

Combined presentation with severe hyperactivity

c)

Predominantly inattentive type

d)

Predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type

99.

Which criterion is necessary for ADHD diagnosis beyond symptoms?

a)

Clear impairment across daily functioning

b)

Symptoms confined to one setting

c)

Presence of aggressive behaviour

d)

IQ below average on testing

100.

Which presentation more commonly distinguishes childhood depression from adult depression?

a)

Episodic euphoria with increased activity

b)

Persistent irritability with tantrums or anger

c)

Grandiosity with reduced need for sleep

d)

Verbalised sadness dominates daily mood

101.

A child showing fatigue, poor concentration, and loss of interest over months most likely meets criteria for which category in DSM‑5?

a)

Depressive Disorders category

b)

Somatic Symptom Disorders class

c)

Neurodevelopmental Disorders grouping

d)

Anxiety Disorders umbrella classification

102.

Which symptom pattern often leads adults to misinterpret childhood depression as misbehaviour?

a)

Hyperverbal social engagement

b)

Obsessions with ritualised routines

c)

Persistent irritability and frustration

d)

Quiet sadness with tearfulness

103.

Which pair best captures core social communication deficits commonly associated with Autism Spectrum Disorder?

a)

Impaired reciprocity and pragmatic language issues

b)

Heightened motivation and superior vocabulary

c)

Selective mutism and normal eye contact

d)

Rapid turn‑taking and flexible conversation

104.

Which feature is most consistent with sensory sensitivities in Autism Spectrum Disorder?

a)

Complete indifference to temperature extremes

b)

Seeking quiet environments due to loud noises

c)

Ignoring all tactile input without distress

d)

Preference for unpredictable sensory novelty

105.

For behavioural symptoms to be clinically significant in children, which criterion must be met?

a)

Occur exclusively at home

b)

Resolved with brief rest periods

c)

Persist for at least six months

d)

Present only at school for one week

106.

Which requirement supports establishing a robust diagnosis across contexts?

a)

Symptoms appear in two or more settings

b)

Symptoms emerge after major exams

c)

Symptoms manifest during holidays only

d)

Symptoms are noticed by peers only

107.

Which consequence indicates clinically relevant impairment in childhood depression?

a)

Temporary excitement during play

b)

Declining grades and social withdrawal

c)

Increased participation in activities

d)

Improved test performance and focus

108.

Which statement reflects the simplified diagnostic criteria for depressive episodes in children?

a)

Euphoric mood with reduced sleep

b)

Depressed or irritable mood most of the day

c)

Stable mood with enhanced appetite

d)

Grandiose mood with high energy

109.

What is a common way emotional distress presents in Malaysian children, complicating diagnosis?

a)

As physical or somatic complaints

b)

As elaborate philosophical sadness

c)

As improved athletic performance

d)

As public displays of crying

110.

Which factor in Malaysia most delays help‑seeking for childhood depression?

a)

Ready access to rural specialists

b)

Cultural stigma around mental health labels

c)

Flexible school schedules and supports

d)

High parental awareness of symptoms

111.

Which diagnostic step helps integrate perspectives from both home and school?

a)

Behavioural checklists from parents and teachers

b)

Cardiovascular stress testing

c)

Genome sequencing for risk alleles

d)

Neuroimaging with functional MRI

112.

Which practice in the diagnostic process involves systematic discussion of symptoms and history?

a)

Clinical interviews with caregivers

b)

Ad hoc peer observations

c)

Standardised athletic trials

d)

Random classroom polling

113.

Which contextual belief may cause parents to mislabel depressive symptoms as laziness or discipline issues?

a)

Routine mental health screenings

b)

Exposure to psychoeducation workshops

c)

Cultural expectations of strict obedience

d)

High awareness of child mental health

114.

Which phrase best summarises the impact of contextual challenges on outcomes?

a)

They eliminate the need for multidisciplinary care

b)

They often delay diagnosis and worsen long‑term outcomes

c)

They improve academic performance consistently

d)

They accelerate early interventions rapidly

115.

Which symptom change is part of the simplified criteria for pediatric depressive episodes?

a)

Improved appetite with euphoria

b)

Increased risk‑taking behaviour

c)

Enhanced multitasking ability

d)

Changes in sleep or appetite

116.

Which observation helps confirm impairment inconsistent with developmental level?

a)

Persistent behaviour causing significant impairment

b)

Age‑appropriate occasional moodiness

c)

Brief distress after a single event

d)

Mild fidgeting during exciting games

117.

Which systemic barrier in Malaysia especially affects rural communities?

a)

Abundance of specialised clinics nearby

b)

Universal broadband mental health services

c)

Excess availability of school counselors

d)

Limited access to child psychologists

118.

Which statement best defines Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?

a)

A neurodevelopmental disorder with social communication deficits

b)

A mood disorder with episodic affective instability

c)

A personality disorder with enduring interpersonal patterns

d)

A psychotic disorder with hallucinations and delusions

119.

Which is a core social communication difficulty commonly seen in ASD?

a)

Poor eye contact during interactions

b)

Excessive empathy in conversations

c)

Rapid alternation of speech topics

d)

Heightened sensitivity to sarcasm

120.

Which example illustrates restricted and repetitive behaviours in ASD?

a)

Occasional novelty-seeking activities

b)

Flexible switching between hobbies

c)

Repetitive movements such as hand-flapping

d)

Frequent changes in daily routines

121.

In Malaysia, which consequence is highlighted due to service limitations for youth mental health?

a)

Childhood depression is frequently under-diagnosed

b)

ASD is universally identified in preschool

c)

Early screening is always accessible nationwide

d)

All schools provide comprehensive therapy

122.

Which barrier most likely delays early ASD screening in low-resource settings?

a)

Limited specialized assessment services

b)

Routine universal developmental testing

c)

Overabundance of trained clinicians

d)

High public awareness campaigns

123.

Which feature distinguishes cognitive ageing from pathological decline?

a)

Normal slowing without major functional loss

b)

Sudden disorientation with severe impairment

c)

Rapid memory loss affecting self-care

d)

Persistent psychosis requiring hospitalization

124.

Which statement corrects a common myth about mental health in late life?

a)

Late life is universally emotionally stable

b)

Ageing always eliminates anxiety symptoms

c)

All older adults become demented by 70

d)

Depression is not an inevitable part of ageing

125.

Which presentation is most consistent with late-life depression rather than normal ageing?

a)

Gradual slowing of processing speed

b)

Occasional forgetfulness after stress

c)

Mild word-finding pauses

d)

Persistent low mood with anhedonia

126.

Which is the most appropriate first step when ASD is suspected in a child?

a)

Refer for comprehensive developmental assessment

b)

Begin antipsychotic medication immediately

c)

Wait for adolescence before evaluation

d)

Advise strict avoidance of peers

127.

Which social cue difficulty is typical in ASD?

a)

Overinterpreting subtle innuendo

b)

Accurately reading facial microexpressions

c)

Effortless adaptation to group norms

d)

Misinterpreting nonverbal gestures

128.

Which routine-related behaviour often appears in ASD?

a)

Insistence on strict, predictable schedules

b)

Preference for spontaneous daily changes

c)

Enjoyment of frequent unexpected events

d)

Desire for variable meal times

129.

Which aging myth is debunked by evidence on cognition?

a)

Ageing eliminates learning capacity

b)

Any forgetfulness requires antipsychotics

c)

Some cognitive slowing is normative

d)

All memory decline equals dementia

130.

Which clinical sign suggests pathological cognitive decline rather than normal ageing?

a)

Occasional name retrieval difficulty

b)

Mild distractibility in noisy settings

c)

Slightly slower problem-solving speed

d)

Interference with instrumental daily activities

131.

Which intervention addresses service gaps to improve early ASD identification?

a)

Exclusive tertiary center referrals

b)

Community-based screening programs

c)

Deferring evaluation until adulthood

d)

Replacing screenings with punishment

132.

Which behaviour aligns with ASD language characteristics?

a)

Delayed or limited expressive language

b)

Consistent use of figurative language

c)

Advanced pragmatic flexibility across contexts

d)

Fluent rapid conversational turn-taking