wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Chapter 1 Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The objective of a project can be:

a)

Entering a specific business

b)

Expanding market share

c)

Improving product quality

d)

All of the above

2.

The initial investment capital of a project can be:

a)

Fixed assets and working capital

b)

Cash capital and loans

c)

Financial, physical, and intangible assets

d)

All of the above

3.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an investment project?

a)

Project success is certain

b)

Risk must be eliminated

c)

Uniqueness of project products must be described

d)

All of the above

4.

Which of the following is an investment activity?

a)

Daily business operations

b)

Having a start date but no end date

c)

One-time activity

d)

All of the above

5.

Which of the following is a need for project capital use?

a)

Financial investment

b)

Investing in other businesses

c)

Debt repayment

d)

Dividend payments

6.

A project aimed at improving the quality of products, goods, and services is:

a)

Standalone project

b)

Expansion project

c)

In-depth project

d)

All of the above

7.

A project that involves a detailed study of all relevant aspects is:

a)

Pre-feasibility project

b)

Feasibility project

c)

Expansion project

d)

In-depth project

8.

Which statement indicates two projects are independent?

a)

Accepting or rejecting one does not affect the other

b)

Accepting or rejecting one leads to the same decision for the other

c)

Accepting one means rejecting the other

d)

None of the above

9.

Private investment projects often aim at:

a)

Financial benefits

b)

Economic benefits

c)

Social benefits

d)

All of the above

10.

The purpose of a project should be determined in which phase?

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Pre-feasibility study

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Project implementation

11.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

All projects, regardless of capital size, must conduct pre-feasibility and feasibility studies

b)

All projects, regardless of capital size, only need a feasibility study

c)

Large-scale projects need both pre-feasibility and feasibility studies, while medium/small-scale projects need only a feasibility study

d)

None of the above

12.

Project implementation includes:

a)

Project establishment

b)

Project design and construction

c)

Project operation

d)

All of the above

13.

When is the project management board established during the project cycle?

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Project establishment study

c)

Project implementation

d)

Project operation

14.

When should quantitative risk analysis be conducted?

a)

Pre-feasibility stage

b)

Feasibility stage

c)

Operational stage

d)

All of the above

15.

Project liquidation is carried out when:

a)

The project reaches the end of its cycle

b)

Investors are forced to terminate the project

c)

Investors go bankrupt

d)

All of the above

16.

The project analysis framework includes (in order):

a)

Market – Technology – Human resources

b)

Market – Technology – Human resources – Finance

c)

Market – Technology – Human resources – Finance – Economy

d)

Market – Technology – Human resources – Finance – Economy – Society

17.

Market analysis involves:

a)

Examining demand for project outputs

b)

Examining supply of project inputs

c)

Examining the labor market

d)

All of the above

18.

Technology analysis involves:

a)

Construction and installation of project equipment

b)

Raw materials and inputs

c)

Environmental impacts of the project

d)

All of the above

19.

Financial analysis is conducted from the perspective of:

a)

Banks

b)

Shareholders

c)

Investors

d)

All of the above

20.

Economic analysis involves:

a)

Assessing project contribution to economic growth

b)

Assessing ability to meet basic economic needs

c)

Assessing income distribution in the economy

d)

All of the above

21.

Social analysis involves:

a)

Assessing the project’s ability to meet fundamental economic needs

b)

Assessing income distribution among beneficiary groups

c)

Assessing the social impacts of the project

d)

All of the above

22.

When do investors participate in project appraisal?

a)

Pre-feasibility study

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Operational stage

d)

All stages of the project cycle

23.

When do credit institutions appraise projects to grant loans?

a)

Pre-feasibility study

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Operational stage

24.

When do government agencies appraise environmental issues?

a)

Pre-feasibility study

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Operational stage

d)

Both B and C

25.

The role of project appraisal is to:

a)

Avoid implementing ineffective projects or missing valuable opportunities

b)

Perform inspection and audit functions throughout the project’s life

c)

Save scarce resources

d)

All of the above

26.

At which stage is a preliminary estimate of demand for project outputs made?

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Pre-feasibility study

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Operational stage

27.

Biased estimates that understate benefits and overstate costs are often made in:

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Pre-feasibility study

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Operational stage

28.

Improving accuracy of key project variables is done in:

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Pre-feasibility study

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Operational stage

29.

Re-evaluating financial, economic, and social criteria is carried out in:

a)

Pre-feasibility study

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Detailed design

d)

Operational stage

30.

Appraising results and comparing them with initial estimates is done in:

a)

Pre-feasibility study

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Detailed design

d)

Operational stage

31.

Which perspectives can be applied in project appraisal?

a)

Financial

b)

Economic

c)

Social

d)

All of the above

32.

Which perspective do investors, banks, and shareholders use for appraisal?

a)

Financial

b)

Economic

c)

Income distribution

d)

Fundamental needs

33.

Which perspective do government agencies use for appraisal?

a)

Economic

b)

Income distribution

c)

Fundamental needs

d)

All of the above

34.

To be implemented, a project must be efficient in:

a)

Finance

b)

Economy

c)

Society

d)

At least one of the above

35.

If a project benefits neither investors nor the economy, the government should:

a)

Reduce taxes

b)

Provide no subsidies

c)

Impose price ceilings

d)

Take no action

36.

If a project does not benefit investors financially but benefits the economy, the government should:

a)

Reduce taxes

b)

Provide subsidies

c)

Regulate output prices with a ceiling

d)

All of the above

37.

If a project benefits investors financially but not the economy, the government should:

a)

Increase taxes

b)

Withdraw subsidies

c)

Impose price ceilings

d)

All of the above

38.

For private projects, state agencies grant licenses or incentives mainly due to:

a)

Market, technology, and management feasibility

b)

Financial effectiveness

c)

Economic and/or social effectiveness

d)

All of the above

39.

For public projects, state agencies decide on investment mainly due to:

a)

Market, technology, and management feasibility

b)

Financial effectiveness

c)

Economic and/or social effectiveness

d)

All of the above

40.

Market analysis is important for appraising project success because it:

a)

Helps assess technical feasibility

b)

Determines project capacity

c)

Evaluates human resource feasibility

d)

All of the above

41.

Management and personnel research during project establishment does not directly affect:

a)

Narrowing or expanding project scope

b)

Market area for project products

c)

Adjusting product quality

d)

All of the above

42.

When deciding to invest, investors often make the mistake of:

a)

Accepting bad projects and rejecting good ones

b)

Accepting projects beyond their financial capacity

c)

Ignoring projects within their financial capacity

d)

All of the above

43.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Appraisal helps investors reduce decision-making mistakes

b)

Appraisal helps investors control project risks

c)

Appraisal helps determine project capital structure

d)

Appraisal helps achieve maximum profits

44.

A company may replace an existing project with a new one because:

a)

Changes in investment strategy

b)

Higher returns from the new project

c)

Changes in consumer preferences

d)

All of the above

45.

A market appraisal is conducted:

a)

Before technical appraisal

b)

After financial appraisal

c)

After human resources appraisal

d)

All of the above

46.

Project business analysis includes:

a)

Industry life cycle

b)

Opportunities and competition

c)

Success factors

d)

All of the above

47.

Customers in market analysis include:

a)

Buyers of the project’s products

b)

Buyers of substitute products

c)

Buyers of competitors’ products

d)

All of the above

48.

Market segmentation must satisfy:

a)

Each segment must be distinct

b)

Customer behavior within a segment must differ

c)

Segment size must be appropriate

d)

All of the above

49.

Forecasting product demand is based on:

a)

Industry reports

b)

Statistics of Ministries

c)

Associations’ reports

d)

All of the above

50.

Which target market is the occupied market?

a)

Supply exceeds domestic demand

b)

Supply falls short of domestic demand

c)

Added capacity cannot meet rising demand

d)

None of the above

51.

The project’s competitors are:

a)

Importers

b)

Potential entrants

c)

Domestic producers of similar products

d)

All of the above

52.

To appraise product competitiveness in the export market, one must consider:

a)

Importing country’s standards

b)

Technical barriers or quotas

c)

Export market competitors

d)

All of the above

53.

At which product life cycle stage are most projects undertaken?

a)

Growth

b)

Beginning

c)

Saturation

d)

Recession

54.

Market appraisal is the basis for choosing:

a)

Technology and project location

b)

Production plan

c)

Investment scale

d)

All of the above

55.

Technical appraisal is conducted:

a)

Before human resources appraisal

b)

Before market appraisal

c)

After financial appraisal

d)

All of the above

56.

Evaluating input materials provides a basis for:

a)

Organizing production

b)

Forecasting demand for output

c)

Selecting machinery and technology

d)

All of the above

57.

When appraising input materials, appraisers consider:

a)

Availability of raw materials

b)

Raw material prices

c)

Raw material quality

d)

All of the above

58.

Supply risk of raw materials can be reduced by:

a)

Diversifying suppliers

b)

Using technologies with multiple inputs

c)

Long-term contracts with suppliers

d)

All of the above

59.

Requirements for selecting project technology include:

a)

Meeting global quality standards

b)

Reasonable transfer costs

c)

Up-to-date technology

d)

All of the above

60.

Principles for selecting a project’s location include:

a)

Near markets and raw materials

b)

Location economics

c)

Social and environmental impacts

d)

A combination of the above

61.

To select a project’s location:

a)

Environmental impact assessment is mandatory

b)

It is not mandatory

c)

It depends on regulations for each project

d)

It is decided by the investors

62.

A project’s production plan can:

a)

Increase gradually until stable capacity

b)

Reach maximum capacity in the first year

c)

Decrease during the project cycle

d)

All of the above

63.

By law, environmental impact assessment is required for:

a)

All projects

b)

Projects specified by the government

c)

Only projects that cause impacts

d)

No project is required

64.

Which factor may change once the project begins operation?

a)

Selected technologies

b)

Designed capacity

c)

Implementation schedule

d)

Ability to exploit designed capacity

65.

Management and human resources appraisal is carried out:

a)

Before market appraisal

b)

After technical appraisal

c)

After financial appraisal

d)

All of the above

66.

Appraisers of management and HR must collect information on:

a)

Project management regulations

b)

Local labor market

c)

Minimum wage rules

d)

All of the above

67.

Contents of management and HR assessment include:

a)

Appraisal of project form

b)

Appraisal of labor supply and quality

c)

Appraisal of wages and salaries

d)

All of the above

68.

A project's organizational model:

a)

Remains unchanged during the project cycle

b)

Changes through project stages

c)

Is designed in the feasibility report

d)

Is designed only in the operational stage

69.

Purpose of organizational structure assessment:

a)

Suitability to project functions

b)

Rationality of the structure

c)

Operating costs

d)

All of the above

70.

Labor for the project can be recruited from:

a)

Local sources

b)

Other regions

c)

Imported labor

d)

All of the above

71.

Availability of human resources assessment includes:

a)

Types of human resources available locally/nationally

b)

Labor supply and demand in the area

c)

Possible shortages in structure

d)

All of the above

72.

The number of working days in a year is based on:

a)

Holidays

b)

Weekends

c)

Personal leave

d)

All of the above

73.

Salaries and wages for project workers are based on:

a)

Job position

b)

Worker’s skills and experience

c)

Labor supply and demand

d)

All of the above

74.

Personnel costs of a project include:

a)

Salaries, wages, allowances

b)

Salary deductions

c)

Training expenses

d)

All of the above

75.

What is the purpose of project cash flow planning?

a)

Identifying the funding needs and sources

b)

Assessing the repayment capacity and payback period of a project

c)

Evaluating the financial performance of a project

d)

All of the above

76.

What is incremental cash flow?

a)

Cash flow with a new project versus without the new project

b)

Cash flow with an expansion project versus without the expansion project

c)

Cash flow with a replacement project versus without the replacement project

d)

All of the above

77.

What is the sunk cost of a project?

a)

Costs incurred during the investment preparation stage

b)

Costs that cannot be recovered regardless of project implementation

c)

Costs not relevant to investment decision-making

d)

All of the above

78.

Opportunity cost is defined as:

a)

The best return forgone

b)

The lowest return forgone

c)

The next best return forgone

d)

The next lowest return forgone

79.

Which of the following cash flows should be considered after-tax cash flows?

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

All of the above

80.

Which of the following is a sunk cost of a project?

a)

Project establishment cost

b)

Construction cost

c)

Construction start-up cost

d)

Project company establishment cost

81.

When should sunk costs be included in a project's cash flows?

a)

When sunk costs are relatively large

b)

When sunk costs are paid by investors

c)

When sunk costs are for preparation and appraisal

d)

Sunk costs are not included in project cash flows

82.

If opportunity costs are calculated at market prices, how are they treated?

a)

Included in operating cash outflows

b)

Included in operating expenses

c)

Included in both operating cash outflows and operating expenses

d)

Included in neither operating cash outflows nor operating expenses

83.

Which of the following effects increases cash flows of other projects?

a)

Yogurt and fermented yogurt projects

b)

Oral treatment drug and injectable drug projects

c)

Gas car and electric car projects

d)

Billiards café and office lunch projects

84.

Which of the following effects reduces cash flows of other projects?

a)

Apple Watch and iPhone projects

b)

Gas station and convenience store projects

c)

Walking shoe and running shoe projects

d)

Pig farming and catfish farming projects

85.

Which of the following effects may increase or decrease cash flows of other projects?

a)

An expansion project reduces revenues before expansion

b)

A replacement project eliminates revenues from the replaced project

c)

An expansion project increases investors’ revenues

d)

None of the above

86.

Which of the following is incorrect in planning a project’s cash flow?

a)

Counting incremental cash flows of the project

b)

Including opportunity costs

c)

Including sunk costs

d)

Considering effects that increase or decrease cash flows of other projects

87.

Operating cash flow refers to inflows and outflows from:

a)

Production and supply of project outputs

b)

Project investment activities

c)

Project funding activities

d)

Project financing activities

88.

Investing cash flow refers to inflows and outflows from:

a)

Real asset investments of a project

b)

Fixed asset investments of a project

c)

Financial asset investments of a project

d)

Asset investment activities of a project

89.

Financing cash flow refers to inflows and outflows from:

a)

Debt financing activities of a project

b)

Equity financing activities of a project

c)

Internal financing activities of a project

d)

External financing activities of a project

90.

Payments to raw material suppliers are included in:

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

None of the above

91.

Fixed asset liquidation is included in:

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

None of the above

92.

Interest expense is included in:

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

None of the above

93.

Equity funding to a project is included in which cash flow?

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

None of the above

94.

Which of the following items is included in cash flow from the Equity Point of View (EPV)?

a)

Dividends to shareholders

b)

Equity financing

c)

Costs of project preparation and appraisal

d)

Opportunity costs of land use

95.

Which of the following is considered the financial point of view?

a)

All Equity Point of View (AEPV)

b)

Total Investment Point of View (TIPV)

c)

Equity Point of View (EPV)

d)

All of the above

96.

Cash flow from the All Equity Point of View (AEPV) refers to a project in the case of:

a)

No debt financing

b)

Debt and equity financing

c)

Full repayment of debt to creditors

d)

None of the above

97.

Cash flow from the Total Investment Point of View (TIPV) refers to a project in the case of:

a)

No debt financing

b)

Debt financing

c)

Full repayment of debt to creditors

d)

None of the above

98.

Cash flow from the Equity Point of View (EPV) refers to a project in the case of:

a)

No debt financing

b)

Debt and equity financing

c)

Full repayment of debt to creditors

d)

None of the above

99.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

AEPV cash flow excludes the tax shield benefit from interest, while TIPV cash flow includes it

b)

AEPV cash flow includes the tax shield benefit from interest, while TIPV cash flow excludes it

c)

Both AEPV and TIPV cash flows include the tax shield benefit from interest

d)

Both AEPV and TIPV cash flows exclude the tax shield benefit from interest

100.

The required working capital during a project’s operational stage is:

a)

The minimum to maintain normal operations

b)

The average to maintain normal operations

c)

The maximum to maintain normal operations

d)

All of the above

101.

Which of the following cash flows can be prepared using the direct method?

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

All of the above

102.

Which of the following cash flows can be prepared using the indirect method?

a)

Operating cash flow

b)

Investing cash flow

c)

Financing cash flow

d)

All of the above

103.

What is the impact of depreciation on a project’s cash flow or income?

a)

Reduces cash flow by the amount of annual depreciation

b)

Increases cash flow by the amount of annual depreciation

c)

Reduces taxable income by the amount of annual depreciation

d)

Increases taxable income by the amount of annual depreciation

104.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding land use liquidation value?

a)

It is always equal to the initial value

b)

It is always equal to the market value at the liquidation year

105.

Which of the following statements is always true?

a)

If Project A’s IRR is higher than Project B’s, then A’s NPV is higher than B’s

b)

If Project A’s IRR is higher than Project B’s, then A’s NPV is lower than B’s

c)

For two mutually exclusive projects, investors should select the one with the higher IRR

d)

None of the above

106.

NPV(A) = 389 and IRR(A) = 25%. Project B has the same life as A but double the annual cash flows. Then:

a)

NPV(B) = 389 and IRR(B) = 25%

b)

NPV(B) = 778 and IRR(B) = 50%

c)

NPV(B) = 389 and IRR(B) = 50%

d)

NPV(B) = 778 and IRR(B) = 25%

107.

MIRR is designed to overcome which disadvantage of IRR?

a)

No IRR exists

b)

Multiple IRRs exist

c)

IRR assumes reinvestment at IRR

d)

All of the above