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Antibacterial/Antiulcer Basics

Total questions: 21

Worksheet time: 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary purpose of antibacterials (antibiotics) is to:

a)

Fight bacterial infections

b)

Treat viral infections

c)

Treat fungal infections

d)

Suppress the immune system

2.

What is the difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

a)

Bactericidal stops growth; bacteriostatic kills bacteria

b)

Both kill bacteria immediately

c)

Bactericidal kills bacteria; bacteriostatic stops bacterial growth

d)

Both only prevent infection

3.

A patient with a known penicillin allergy requires antibiotics. The nurse should:

a)

Administer penicillin as prescribed

b)

Avoid penicillin and cephalosporins, and notify the provider

c)

Give a higher dose to overcome allergy

d)

Give aspirin to prevent reaction

4.

Which laboratory tests are important to monitor in a patient taking antibiotics for the first time?

a)

CBC, Blood glucose, Liver function tests

b)

C&S only

c)

CBC only

d)

Culture & sensitivity, BUN, creatinine, liver function tests

5.

Which symptom should a nurse recognize as a superinfection from broad-spectrum antibiotic use

Select all that apply:

a)

Rash on hands

b)

Black, furry tongue

c)

vaginal itching

d)

diarrhea with mucus/blood

e)

nausea

6.

Tinnitus is an early sign of ototoxicity, a serious adverse effect

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Cehalosporins

c)

PPIs

d)

Prostaglandin

7.

Which of the following is important patient teaching for all antibiotics?

a)

Take only when feeling sick

b)

Stop when symptoms improve

c)

Double the dose if symptoms persist

d)

Complete the full course, take as directed, do not share

8.

A patient is receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics for a severe infection. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?

a)

Encourage the patient to drink 8–10 glasses of water daily and monitor I&O

b)

Monitor bowel function for diarrhea, abdominal cramping, fever, and bloody stools, and report signs of C. difficile infection

c)

Administer antacids with the antibiotic to reduce GI upset

d)

Hold the next dose if the patient reports mild nausea

9.

An ulcer is best defined as:

a)

Heartburn after meals

b)

Erosion of the stomach or duodenal lining

c)

Acid reflux

d)

Infection of the small intestine

10.

A patient on chronic NSAIDs requires prophylaxis against gastric ulcers. Which medication is most appropriate?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Misoprostol

c)

Maalox

d)

Famotidine

11.

A patient complains of persistent upper abdominal pain and occasional bloody stools. Which definition best describes the condition suspected by the provider?

a)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease, caused by acid backup into the esophagus

b)

Gastritis, inflammation of the stomach lining without tissue loss

c)

Peptic ulcer, erosion of the stomach or duodenal mucosa due to acid and/or H. pylori

d)

Duodenitis, superficial irritation of the duodenum without full-thickness tissue loss

12.

A patient is admitted with a severe bacterial infection. The culture and sensitivity results are pending. Which is the best nursing action before administering the first dose of an antibiotic?

a)

Wait to start antibiotics until culture results return

b)

Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic as ordered and obtain culture prior to the next dose

c)

Administer the first dose immediately and obtain a culture afterward

d)

Delay treatment until the patient’s symptoms worsen

13.

A patient develops rash, pruritus, and mild wheezing after the second dose of a penicillin antibiotic. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

a)

Continue the antibiotic and monitor

b)

Administer an antacid to reduce side effects

c)

Stop the antibiotic, assess airway, and notify the provider

d)

Hold the next dose and check liver function tests

14.

A patient is receiving gentamicin for a serious infection. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

a)

Urine output of 40 mL/hr

b)

Creatinine increase from 0.9 to 1.6 mg/dL

c)

Mild nausea

d)

tinnitus

15.

A patient is prescribed vancomycin IV for MRSA infection. Which lab is most critical to check before the next dose?

a)

CBC

b)

BUN/creatinine

c)

Peak and trough levels

16.

A patient has been taking omeprazole daily for 12 months. Which finding requires priority follow-up?

a)

steven-johnson syndrome

b)

red man syndrome

c)

Leg cramps and irregular heartbeat

d)

cancer

17.

A patient taking sucralfate complains of new-onset constipation. Which action is most appropriate?

a)

Stop the medication immediately

b)

Encourage increased fluid and dietary fiber intake

c)

Administer a PPI instead

d)

Give an antacid with sucralfate

18.

A patient is receiving gentamicin therapy: 100 mg intravenously at 0800, 1600, and 2400.  At 0730, the nurse is informed that peak and trough levels need to be drawn. When is the best time to obtain the peak level?

a)

0800

b)

0900

c)

1600

d)

2330

19.

A patient asks the nurse why she gets yeast infections after a course of antibiotics. The nurse explains

a)

The antibiotics lower your white blood cell count

b)

People are poorly nourished and hydrated after an infection

c)

Yeast infections happen if the antibiotic is not taken for the full course

d)

Yeast infections are common when the normal body flora are disrupted

20.

Which nursing actions would be most appropriate for ensuring patient safety with a medication that has a low therapeutic index?

a)

monitoring a patient's urine output

b)

assessing vital signs hourly

c)

maintaining strict isolation precautions

d)

monitoring serum peak and trough levels

21.

A patient sustains significant burns to the skin and is experiencing fluid shift associated with edema in the fluid overload phase. The nurse would anticipate that this will interfere most with which phase of pharmacodynamics?

a)

Absorption

b)

Distribution

c)

Metabolism

d)

Excretion