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Critical Care and Shock Management Quiz

Total questions: 20

Worksheet time: 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A trauma patient has HR 118, BP 120/78, RR 26, lactate 4.9 mmol/L, and cool extremities. What does this most likely indicate?

a)

Stable perfusion

b)

Compensatory shock

c)

Progressive shock

d)

Cardiogenic shock

2.

Which finding is the earliest indicator that a patient may be developing shock?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Decreased urine output

c)

Elevated lactic acid

d)

Altered mental status

3.

A patient with septic shock remains hypotensive after receiving IV fluids. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Draw blood cultures

b)

Begin vasopressor therapy

c)

Administer antipyretics

d)

Insert Foley catheter

4.

Which assessment finding best indicates progression to the progressive stage of shock?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bounding pulses

c)

Metabolic acidosis

d)

Warm flushed skin

5.

Which finding is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?

a)

Decreased preload

b)

Pulmonary crackles

c)

Warm extremities

d)

Decreased afterload

6.

A postoperative client suddenly develops dyspnea, chest pain, and SpO₂ 84%. What is the nurse’s priority?

a)

Obtain ABGs

b)

Notify provider

c)

Apply oxygen

d)

Prepare for CT scan

7.

Which patient is at the highest risk for pulmonary embolism?

a)

Client with asthma using inhalers

b)

Client ambulating postoperative day 1

c)

Client on oral contraceptives with calf pain

d)

Client with pneumonia receiving antibiotics

8.

Which assessment finding supports acute respiratory failure rather than pulmonary embolism?

a)

Sudden dyspnea

b)

Hypoxemia

c)

Diffuse crackles bilaterally

d)

Pleuritic chest pain

9.

Which nursing intervention is part of the ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) bundle?

a)

Flat positioning

b)

Daily sedation interruption

c)

Routine ventilator circuit changes

d)

Frequent deep suctioning

10.

Which finding best indicates a chest tube is functioning properly?

a)

Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber

b)

Tidaling with respirations

c)

Drainage greater than 300 mL/hr

d)

Absence of fluctuation in water seal

11.

Which chest tube finding requires immediate nursing intervention?

a)

Drainage of 30 mL/hr

b)

Intermittent bubbling with coughing

c)

Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber

d)

Tidaling present

12.

ABG: pH 7.29, PaCO₂ 60, HCO₃⁻ 26. How should the nurse interpret this?

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Respiratory acidosis

c)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

13.

ABG: pH 7.48, PaCO₂ 28, HCO₃⁻ 24. Which condition is most likely present?

a)

Chronic kidney disease

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Pulmonary embolism

d)

Opioid overdose

14.

ABG: pH 7.36, PaCO₂ 55, HCO₃⁻ 30. How should this be documented?

a)

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

b)

Compensated respiratory acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Mixed acid–base disorder

15.

Which ABG result requires the most urgent intervention?

a)

pH 7.38, PaCO₂ 40

b)

pH 7.33, PaCO₂ 48

c)

pH 7.50, PaCO₂ 30

d)

pH 7.18, PaCO₂ 66

16.

Which blood product is most appropriate for a patient with active bleeding and a platelet count of 18,000/mm³?

a)

Packed red blood cells

b)

Fresh frozen plasma

c)

Platelets

d)

Albumin

17.

Which assessment finding requires the nurse to stop a blood transfusion immediately?

a)

BP 148/90

b)

Fever and chills

c)

Mild headache

d)

Decreased appetite

18.

Which assessment best evaluates the effectiveness of shock treatment?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Heart rate

c)

Urine output

d)

Respiratory rate

19.

A patient with septic shock has rising lactate levels despite normal blood pressure. What does this indicate?

a)

Adequate perfusion

b)

Early tissue hypoxia

c)

Renal compensation

d)

Resolving shock

20.

Which medication should the nurse question in a patient experiencing cardiogenic shock?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Large-volume IV fluids

d)

Diuretics