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Anatomy 2 Major Review 1

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are features in the Endocrine system that are not in the Nervous system?

a)

Target cell specificity

b)

Use of Action Potentials

c)

Long-lasting reaction times and effect duration

d)

Typically rapid response times

2.

The use of tropic hormones to stimulate the release of another hormone type is an example of what stimulus?

a)

Hormonal

b)

Humoral

c)

Neural

3.

The sympathetic adrenal medulla pathway that releases NE and EPI is an example of what pathway?

a)

Hormonal

b)

Humoral

c)

Neural

4.

The release of Parathyroid Hormone due to low blood calcium levels is an example of what stimulus?

a)

Hormonal

b)

Humoral

c)

Neural

5.

Which hormones bind intracellularly in the cytoplasm or nucleus?

a)

Water-soluble

b)

Steroid

c)

Amino Acid

d)

Lipid-soluble

6.

True or False: A Hormone's half-life is the amount of time it takes to reduce its concentration to half the original concentration

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Insulin uses second messengers that help uptake glucose into the cell. Thus, Insulin is an example of what type of hormones that use second messengers?

a)

Steroid

b)

Amino Acid

8.

What process describes the domino effect that amplifies hormone signaling through the use of second messengers?

a)

Target Cell Specificity

b)

Enzymatic Cascade

c)

Up-regulation

d)

Down-regulation

9.

Why are we allowed to have so many different types of hormones floating around without them randomly binding?

a)

Hormones bind randomly to receptors but our nervous system tells our body to ignore it if we don't need it

b)

Hormones compete with each other for spots on receptors

c)

We only release one hormone type at a time and wait for it to be used up

d)

Hormones only bind to a specific receptor type on its target cell

10.

In type 2 diabetes, cell receptors become desensitized to insulin and receptor amounts decrease. This is an example of:

a)

Up-regulation

b)

Down-regulation

11.

True or False: Up regulation involves increasing the amount of receptors to match increased hormone levels

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Insulin and Glucagon have opposite effects of each other, that means they are ___ hormones.

a)

Permissive

b)

Synergistic

c)

Antagonistic

13.

Antidiuretic Hormone and Oxytocin are PRODUCED in the ___ and STORED in the ___.

a)

Posterior Pituitary;

Anterior Pituitary

b)

Hypothalamus;

Anterior Pituitary

c)

Hypothalamus; Posterior Pituitary

d)

Infundibulum;

Posterior Pituitary

14.

The Hypothalamus and Posterior Pituitary are connected via the

a)

Hypophyseal portal system

b)

Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract

c)

Neuroendocrine organ system

15.

What hormone is responsible for water reabsorption in the kidneys? "Rescues" water

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Antidiuretic hormone

c)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

d)

Cortisol

16.

Which of the following are functions of Oxytocin? (Three answers)

a)

Initiate labor

b)

Stimulate ovulation

c)

Uterine contraction

d)

Milk ejection

e)

Produces estrogen and progesterone

17.

What are the three structures involved in the release of T3 and T4?

a)

Anterior Pituitary

b)

Thyroid

c)

Posterior Pituitary

d)

Hypothalamus

e)

Thymus

18.

Which of the following hormones are produced by the Anterior Pituitary?

a)

FSH

b)

ACTH

c)

PRL

d)

GH

e)

LH

19.

Which hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary and responsible for milk production?

a)

Gonadotropins

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Prolactin

d)

Lutenizing hormone

20.

Growth hormone works alongside Insulin-like Growth Factors. What are some of those effects?

a)

Increased cellular division and cell differentiation

b)

Bone and Muscle growth

c)

Increased Glycogenesis

d)

Increased Gluconeogenesis

e)

Increased Lipolysis

21.

Which two hormones are produced by the Thyroid?

a)

TSH

b)

T3 and T4

c)

Calcitonin

d)

PTH

e)

TRH

22.

The most secreted form of thyroid hormone is ___, and the most active form is ___.

a)

T3; T4

b)

T4;T3

23.

Which of the following are effects of Thyroid hormone?

a)

Increased breathing

b)

Increased cellular metabolism, particularly in neurons

c)

Decreased lipogenesis

d)

Increased heart rate

e)

Increased glycogenolysis

24.

If my goal is to do more metabolism, what do I need to happen?

a)

More glucose

b)

Decreased glycogenesis

c)

Increased glycogenolysis

d)

Decreased gluconeogenesis

e)

Increased lypolysis

25.

PSA: you need to be familiar with all conditions/illnesses (causes and symptoms) mentioned in the powerpoints (I'm too lazy to make questions on all of them) Select "I understand"

a)

I understand

b)

Choose the other option

26.

Which hormone is responsible for raising blood calcium levels by:

Increasing Ca2+ reabsorption from the Kidneys

Increasing Ca2+ absorption from the Intestines

Activation of Vitamin D

Increasing Osteoclast digestion of bone matrix

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Parathyroid hormone

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Cortisol

27.

What layer of the adrenal cortex are gonadocorticoids like androgens released from?

a)

Zona glomerulosa

b)

Zona fasciculata

c)

Zona reticularis

d)

Adrenal Medulla

28.

What hormone is responsible for Na+ reasborption in the Kidneys and results in increased blood pressure and volume?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Antidiuretic hormone

d)

Androgens

29.

True or False: The RAAS system lowers blood pressure and involves the conversion of Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin with the help of Renin

a)

True

b)

False

30.

RAAS System: Angiotensinogen is produced by the ___ and Renin is produced by the ___

a)

Liver; Adrenal Glands

b)

Liver; Kidneys

c)

Adrenal Glands; Kidneys

d)

Kidneys; LIver

31.

What hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis and is responsible for increased glucose, fatty acid, and protein levels? It also enhances catecholamines to cause vasoconstriction.

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Androgens

d)

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

32.

The release of glucocorticoids involve what structures?

a)

Anterior Pituitary

b)

Posterior Pituitary

c)

Adrenal Cortex

d)

Adrenal Medulla

e)

Hypothalamus

33.

In the pancreas, beta cells release ___ and alpha cells release ___.

a)

Insulin; Glucagon

b)

Glucagon; Insulin

34.

What is the hypoglycemic hormone?

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Cortisol

d)

Somatostatin

35.

What hormone is released if I've been fasting for most of the day? This hormone will increase glycogenolysis and lipolysis.

a)

Antidiuretic hormone

b)

Glucagon

c)

Insulin

d)

Aldosterone

36.

What are effects of insulin?

a)

Increased glycogenesis

b)

Increased lipogenesis

c)

Increased glucose uptake by cells

d)

Lowered blood glucose levels

37.

What is the autoimmune diabetes condition that causes impaired or no release of insulin from the pancreas?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Gestational

38.

Diabetes Symptoms: Polyphagia refers to:

a)

Excessive glucose in the urine

b)

Excessive urine output

c)

Excessive hunger and food consumption

d)

Excessive thirst

39.

Which of the following hormones are matched correctly with their organ?

a)

Liver:

Renin

b)

Hypothalamus:
Melatonin

c)

Kidneys: Erythropoietin

d)

Heart:

ANP

e)

Adipose tissue:

Leptin

40.

Which of the following is NOT a formed element of the blood?

a)

Erythyrocytes

b)

Leukocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

41.

What is the average blood volume in adults?

a)

4L

b)

5L

c)

6L

d)

7L

42.

True or False: Blood pH falls between a tight range of 7.35 - 7.45

a)

True

b)

False

43.

True or False: Blood is typically 1°F higher than body temperature

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What percentage of the blood is made up of erythrocytes?

a)

55%

b)

44%

c)

<1%

45.

The percentage of red blood cells in the blood is a value known as:

a)

Reticulocyte count

b)

Hematocrit

c)

Blood smear

d)

Centrifuge

46.

What is the function of the colloid osmotic pressure exerted by plasma proteins?

a)

Prevent fluid loss from blood in the capillaries and maintain blood volume

b)

Increase the speed of blood flow

c)

Push fluid out of the capillaries and into the tissue space

d)

Regulate blood pressure

47.

Which of the following is an accurate description of a plasma protein and its function?

a)

Fibrinogens act as antibodies

b)

Albumins are the most abundant group and exert the greatest colloid osmotic pressure

c)

Gamma globulins act as carrier proteins for water-insolube hormones

d)

Alpha and Beta globulins help with blood clot formation

48.

True or False: Hematopoiesis refers to the formation of erythrocytes only.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The myeloid line forms all blood cells except:

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

Megakaryocytes

d)

Erythrocytes

50.

The hematopoietic stem cell is:

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Myeloid Stem Cell

c)

Hemocytoblast

d)

Lymphoid Stem Cell

51.

RBC formation is measured by counting:

a)

Normoblasts

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Myeloid Stem Cells

d)

Reticulocytes

52.

What pushes a myeloid stem cell to differentiate into erythrocytes, megakaryocytes, or myeloid-line WBCs?

a)

Colony stimulating factors

b)

Erythropoietin

c)

Hemocytoblasts

d)

Thrombopoietin

53.

True or False: Megakaryocytes go through mitosis and the daughter cells are known as platelets.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Which of the following is NOT a way RBCs are efficient in gas transport

a)

Biconcave shape gives large surface area to volume ratio

b)

97% of the cell excluding water is made of Hemoglobin

c)

Mitochondria in the RBC makes ATP and gives it the energy to bind O2

d)

Each RBC has over 250 million Hemoglobin, and each can bind 4 O2

55.

True or False: heme is the pigment and globin is the protein

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Oxygen binds to ___ and CO2 binds to ___

a)

Iron; Globin

b)

Globin; Iron

57.

Where is the iron in hemoglobin found?

a)

Heme

b)

Globin chain

58.

The main hormone responsible in Erythrocyte production that is produced by the Kidneys is:

a)

Thrombopoietin

b)

G-CSF

c)

Erythropoietin (EPO)

d)

M-CSF

59.

A red blood cell's lifespan is around 120 days. Which of the following are ways the parts of an RBC are recycled?

a)

Separation of Iron and Heme, Iron is stored in Liver and Spleen

b)

Heme minus Iron is taken to the liver and turned into bile

c)

Breakdown in the Liver and Spleen

d)

Globins broken down into amino acids for protein synthesis

e)

Conversion of heme minus iron into stercobilin and urobilin to be excreted

60.

Anemia caused by low RBC production due to destruction or inhibition of red bone marrow is called:

a)

Hemorrhagic anemia

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Renal anemia

d)

Pernicious anemia

61.

The universal donor is:

a)

O-

b)

O+

c)

AB-

d)

AB+

62.

The universal acceptor is:

a)

O-

b)

O+

c)

AB-

d)

AB+

63.

What antibodies does an A+ blood type have?

a)

B and Rh

b)

A and Rh

c)

B only

d)

B and O

64.

If an O- mother had an O+ baby, what antibodies will the mother have now?

a)

No antibodies, universal acceptor

b)

A, B, Rh

c)

Rh only

d)

A and B

65.

Which WBC is the least abundant, and contains the inflammatory chemical histamine?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

66.

I am the most common leukocyte, and I am known as the "Bacterial slayer." What am I?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

67.

I am an agranulocyte with a kidney-shaped nucleus, and I differentiate into a macrophage inside of tissues. What am I?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosniophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Monocyte

68.

What are the granulocytes?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

e)

Basophil

69.

What lymphocyte type produces antibodies?

a)

T-lymphocytes

b)

B-lymphocytes

c)

Natural Killer Cells

70.

What is the correct order in the steps of hemostasis?

A. Coagulation

B. Vascular Spasm

C. Platelet Plug Formation

a)

A B C

b)

B A C

c)

B C A

d)

C B A

71.

What helps platelets stick to collagen fibers during platelet plug formation?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Nitric Oxide

c)

Prostacyclins

d)

von Willebrand factor

72.

The defining characteristic of the final phase of coagulation is:

a)

Conversion of Prothrombin into Thrombin

b)

Activation of either the Intrinsic or Extrinsic pathway

c)

Conversion of Fibrinogen to Fibrin, which creates a cross-linked fibrin mesh

73.

If I have chronic high blood glucose levels, that can cause damage to the lining of my blood vessels, but leave the outside unaffected. Which pathway in Coagulation would be used?

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

74.

A clot that develops and stays at the site it developed at is a(n) ___.

A clot that develops and travels freely through the bloodstream is a(n) ___.

a)

Thrombus; Embolus

b)

Embolus; Thrombus

c)

Embolism; Thrombus

d)

Embolus; Embolism