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090 ppl 135 soru

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A conditional clearance should contain:

a)

callsign, the condition, the clearance.

b)

callsign, airfield weather, the clearance.

c)

callsign, runway in use, the clearance.

d)

callsign, QNH, the clearance.

2.

Mark the correct sentences below.

a)

The SSR instruction is a part of the readback message that is mandatory RTF communication.

b)

In communication with the tower, firstly the location notification and the identification information are given.

c)

During conversations, the distance between the microphone and the lips should be approximately 10 cm.

d)

Radio conversations are performed loudly at an average rate of 50 words per minute.

3.

A Pilot hearing the transmission 'ALL STATIONS':

a)

should not reply unless subsequently asked to acknowledge receipt.

b)

should transmit 'ROGER AND OUT' when acknowledging a broadcast.

c)

should acknowledge receipt of the broadcast by transmitting 'ROGER'.

d)

should transmit her/ his call-sign in reply.

4.

What does a flashing white light from the tower to an aircraft on the ground mean?

a)

Return to the parking area.

b)

Continue to wait.

c)

Wait for taxi clearance.

d)

Cleared to taxi or maneuver.

5.

What does a flashing green light from the tower to a ground vehicle mean?

a)

Cleared to taxi or maneuver.

b)

Engine start clearance granted.

c)

Cleared for takeoff.

d)

Return to the parking area.

6.

When can you omit the callsign of an aeronautical station?

a)

When there would be no confusion.

b)

Only when the station does so first.

c)

Never.

d)

Only when given permission.

7.

What does the term WILCO used in the collaboration part of voice communication mean?

a)

understood, will comply

b)

I keep approaching.

c)

Not understood.

d)

Would you repeat?

8.

Which of the following phrases should be used to notify readiness to take off?

a)

Ready for departure

b)

Ready to go

c)

Ready to line-up

d)

Ready for take-off

9.

Which of the following is an example of an emergency (Distress)?

a)

Engine fire

b)

Sickness of one of the passengers

c)

Radio failure

d)

Suspected fuel leak

10.

……………… is the international aeronautical emergency frequency.

a)

121.5 MHz

b)

118.1 MHz

c)

121.5 KHz

d)

119.5 MHz

11.

With the SSR transponder selected ON, the ATC message 'TC-ABC verify your level' would be made to:

a)

check and confirm the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller.

b)

check with the pilot that Mode C is selected ON.

c)

check your altimeter setting.

d)

identify aircraft position.

12.

What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?

a)

QNH one zero zero one

b)

QNH one double zero one

c)

QNH one thousand and one

d)

QNH one double "O" one

13.

Coventry Tower. “G-ABCD take next right, return to apron contact ground 118.350.” choose correct one.

a)

Next right 118.350 G-ABCD

b)

G-CD next right 118.350

c)

Coventry Tower G-ABCD take next right 118.350

d)

Next right 118.350 G-CD

14.

When a pilot hears a distress messages/ he should:

a)

maintain radio silence but monitor that frequency to ensure assistance is provided.

b)

request another frequency from ATC due to the emergency RT traffic on that frequency.

c)

change to another frequency as radio silence will be imposed on that frequency.

d)

immediately acknowledge the message and offer to relay messages if required.

15.

If a controller passes an instruction and you understand it and will comply, the standard reply is:

a)

Wilco

b)

Confirm

c)

Roger

d)

Verify

16.

How should the time 1500 be transmitted?

a)

Wun Fife Zero Zero

b)

Minute Zero Zero

c)

Wun Fife Hundred

d)

Fifteen Hundred

17.

Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?

a)

Call-sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.

b)

Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Callsign.

c)

Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign.

d)

Call-sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading, Request.

18.

A pilot is required to read back;

a)

SSR operating instructions, take off clearances, altimeter settings, VDF information, frequency changes.

b)

altimeter settings, taxi information, terminal weather, runway clearances, approach aid serviceability.

c)

route clearances, speed instructions, weather reports, taxy clearances, runway state information.

d)

ATC route clearances, runway clearances, conditional clearances, actual weather reports.

19.

When the pilot or controller misses the one of items of the instructions or requests what is the most appropriate call?

a)

Say again

b)

Say twice

c)

Speak slower

d)

Say one more

20.

In a radar environment heading information given by the pilot and heading instructions given by controllers are in:

a)

degrees magnetic heading.

b)

degrees Absolute.

c)

degrees Celsius.

d)

degrees true heading.

21.

What does a flashing green light from the tower to an airborne aircraft mean?

a)

Return for landing.

b)

Landing is only possible from the opposite direction.

c)

Do not wait for landing clearance/go.

22.

QFE is,

a)

Altimeter setting to give vertical distance above the surface of an aerodrome.

b)

Ceiling and visibility O.K.

c)

Sudden change in wind speed and direction.

d)

Altimeter setting to give vertical distance above sea level.

23.

Which of the following shows the range of aviation radio frequencies?

a)

118.00-136.00

b)

128.00-151.075

c)

110.25-121.650

d)

118.05-141.250

24.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Having established communications with an ATSU, When you start the transmission put the callsign in front of the transmission. when you readback you should put your callsign at the end of transmissions

b)

When speaking to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message until the controller tells you to put it at the end.

c)

The position of the callsign depends on the type of air traffic service you are receiving.

d)

When replying to a ground station you put your callsign at the beginning of the message.

25.

If making a straight-in approach, the FINAL call should be made at about

a)

4 nm

b)

25 nm

c)

8 nm

d)

10 nm

26.

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing Surface movement control ?

a)

GROUND

b)

APPROACH

c)

ARRIVAL

d)

RADAR.

27.

If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out, he should use the phrase:

a)

UNABLE TO COMPLY

b)

CANCEL INSTRUCTION.

c)

NO CAN DO.

d)

NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION.

28.

The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is:

a)

Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC RADIO CHECK 118.1

b)

Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC READABILITY CHECK 118.1

c)

Esenboğa Tower TC-ABC HOW DO YOU READ 118.1

d)

TC-ABC RADIO CHECK

29.

Which of the following is the correct way to say the number 13,500 for altitude or cloud ceiling?

a)

One three thousand five hundred

b)

One three five hundred

c)

Thirteen thousand five hundred

d)

One three five zero zero

30.

What does the abbreviation "HX" mean

a)

No specific working hours.

b)

Continuous day and night service.

c)

Sunrise to sunset.

d)

Sunset to sunrise.

31.

What should be the content of an Urgency call?

a)

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed ( time and circumstances permitting ), Call sing of aircraft ,Type of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification ( wherever possible ), Any other useful information.

b)

PAN ,PAN,PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Position , Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Endurance.

c)

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency Intention of Person in command, Any Other Useful Information.

d)

Station Addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign, Position, Pilot Qualification Intention of Person in command.

32.

When the term "FEW" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

a)

1/8 – 2/8

b)

8/8

c)

2/8 – 3/8

d)

3/8 - 4/8

33.

If you wish to backtrack then your transmission should be:

a)

REQUEST BACKTRACK

b)

REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY

c)

BACKTRACKING

d)

REPORTING BACKTRACK

34.

Which of the following is the correct order of communication to approach the airport with radar and tower control?

a)

ATIS (arrival) - Approach-Tower-Ground

b)

Tower-Approach-ATIS- Ground

c)

Approach-Tower- Ground -ATIS

d)

ATIS-approach-Tower- Ground

35.

The word "CORRECT" means:

a)

That is correct.

b)

Repeat the last instruction correctly.

c)

Follow the last part of my transmission correctly.

d)

You will correct your last message.

36.

If ATC passed you an instruction which you thought was 'G-LO squawk 7043', what should your reply be?

a)

'say again squawk, Golf Lima Oscar'

b)

'Golf Lima Oscar, squawk 7043'

c)

'squawk 7043, Golf Lima Oscar'

d)

'squawk 7043'

37.

'STANDBY' means:

a)

wait and I will call you again.

b)

continue on present heading and listen out.

c)

hold your present position.

d)

select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.

38.

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500?

a)

one three thousand five hundred

b)

thirteen thousand five hundred

c)

one three five zero zero

d)

one three five hundred

39.

'VERIFY' means:

a)

check and confirm your last message.

b)

confirm your last message.

c)

read back VDF bearing.

d)

repeat your last transmission.

40.

The phrase 'Squawk Charlie' means

a)

select 'ALT' on the transponder.

b)

Select OFF position on the transponder.

c)

select 7700 on the transponder.

d)

confirm the transponder is selected ON.

41.

A pilot may abbreviate his aircraft callsign only;

a)

if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station on the frequency in use.

b)

when he considers that no confusion is likely to occur.

c)

after establishing communication with a ground station.

d)

when changing frequency.

42.

What does a steady red light from the tower to an airborne aircraft mean?

a)

Do not land/Continue circling/Give way to other aircraft.

b)

Civilian landings not accepted.

c)

Proceed to an alternate airport.

d)

Circle and then land.

43.

The readability of a transmission is 5 means:

a)

Perfectly readable

b)

Unreadable

c)

Readable but with difficulty

d)

Readable

44.

Emergency is indicated by which transponder code?

a)

7700

b)

7400

c)

7500

d)

7600

45.

Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to "RECYCLE SQUAWK" is to:

a)

reselect the numbers on the control unit

b)

switch to standby and back to ON

c)

press the IDENT button

d)

set the numbers to 7000

46.

With QFE set on the altimeter, an aircraft in flight reports its vertical separation from the airfield pressure datum as:

a)

height

b)

altimeter

c)

altitude

d)

airfield

47.

The instruction 'ORBIT LEFT' means:

a)

make a 360° turn to the left.

b)

expedite a collision avoidance turn to the left utilising at least 45° angle of bank

c)

standard left hand circuit.

d)

turn left to avoid conflicting traffic.

48.

How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre.

a)

Stopping.

b)

Aborting take-off.

c)

Cancelling take-off.

d)

Abandoning take-off.

49.

One element of a distress message is that the pilot should transmit the aircraft position in the context of:

a)

present or last known position, level and heading.

b)

time and course followed from the last positive position fix.

c)

the last position passed by the secondary surveillance radar operator.

d)

a direction finding heading and range to the direction finding.

50.

What does the instruction 'Orbit right' mean?

a)

Make 360° turns to the right

b)

Leave the runway to the right

c)

Right-hand circuits are in use

d)

Turn right to avoid other traffic

51.

The two categories of emergency message are:

a)

Urgency and Distress.

b)

Emergency and distress.

c)

Urgent and Emergency

d)

PAN and MAYDAY.

52.

When the term 'SCATTERED' is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

a)

3/8 - 4/8

b)

8/8

c)

2/8 - 3/8

d)

5/8

53.

What is the correct way of expressing visibility?

a)

Visibility 1200 metres

b)

Visibility 1.2 nautical miles

c)

Visibility 1200 feet

d)

Visibility 1.2 kilometres

54.

The correct abbreviation for the callsign TC-ABC is;

a)

Tango Bravo Charlie

b)

Charlie Bravo Charlie

c)

Alfa Bravo Charlie

d)

Tango Charlie Alfa

55.

The instruction from the tower 'Vacate Runway left' means,

a)

Vacate runway from the left side

b)

Increase taxi speed or vacate runway from taxiway C.

c)

Turn 180 degree back and vacate runway via taxiway C.

d)

Be alert for the traffic leaving runway from taxiway C

56.

Which of the following indicates the aviation radio frequency bands separation?

a)

118.00 - 136.975 Mhz

b)

128.00 - 131.975 Khz

c)

118.25 - 221.650 Khz

d)

108.05 - 131.250 Mhz

57.

'VACATE RIGHT' means:

a)

turn right to leave the runway.

b)

turn right after take off.

c)

the next runway exit is on the right.

d)

clear the runway immediately.

58.

Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full;

a)

clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; speed instructions, SSR instructions.

b)

ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

c)

VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.

d)

level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.

59.

According to the communication panel shown above, which of the following is the listening frequency for COM 1?

a)

120.20

b)

110.60

c)

123.40

d)

128.65

60.

The time 1020 hours, transmitted at 0910 hours, would be transmitted as:

a)

'one zero two zero'.

b)

ten two zero.

c)

'two zero'.

d)

ten twenty hours.

61.

What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?

a)

Sunrise to sunset.

b)

Continuous day and night service.

c)

Sunset to sunrise.

d)

No specific working hours.

62.

What is the correct communication sequence for approaching an airport with radar and tower control?

a)

ATIS (arrival)-Approach-Tower-Ground

b)

Approach-Tower-Ground-ATIS

c)

Approach-Tower-ATIS-Ground

d)

Tower-Approach-ATIS-Ground

63.

If any person transmitting a message makes an error, that person should:

a)

Transmit "correction" then saying the right instruction or request

b)

use the phrase 'repeat', then repeat the last correct word or phrase and then continue with the corrected message.

c)

use the phrase 'I say again', repeat the last incorrect word or phrase and then the corrected version of the message.

d)

stop speaking, then transmit 'I say again', followed by the correct message.

64.

Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a)

Mode Charlie.

b)

Mode Delta.

c)

Mode Bravo.

d)

Mode Alpha.

65.

The ATC messages listed below are to be read back in full. If pilots fail to read back any messages, the controller will ask them to do so. If a message is not received in full, or is not understood, the pilot must ask the controller to clarify the situation.

a)

All.

b)

Runway in use, Airways or route clearances.

c)

Heading and speed instructions.

d)

Level instructions.

66.

If you suspect you have radio failure which of the following series of checks would you do first?

a)

Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; within radio range; check ground station is open.

b)

Correct frequency; correct squelch setting; headset plugs, radio fuse; check ground station is open.

c)

Correct frequency; correct volume; headset plugs; radio fuse; check ground station is open.

d)

Correct frequency; correct volume; microphone plug; within radio range; check ground station is open.

67.

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance describes what category of message?

a)

Distress

b)

Emergency.

c)

Flight Safety.

d)

Urgency.

68.

The phrase 'take off' is used by a pilot:

a)

only to acknowledge take off clearance.

b)

after the aircraft is airborne.

c)

only to request immediate clearance.

d)

never. It is used only by a ground station.

69.

The correct RTF call when you are ready to take off is:

a)

Ready for departure.

b)

Request departure clearance.

70.

What is the correct communication sequence for departure at an airport with radar and tower control?

a)

ATIS-Apron-Ground-Tower-Approach

b)

Ground-Apron-ATIS-Tower-Approach

c)

Apron-ATIS-Ground-Approach-Tower

d)

Apron-Ground-ATIS-Approach-Tower

71.

Aircraft TC-ABC has been instructed on frequency 120.5. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction?

a)

120.5 TC-ABC

b)

monitoring 120.5 TC-ABC

c)

wilco TC-ABC

d)

checking 120.5 TC-ABC

72.

The purpose of a request by ATC to the commander of an aircraft whose transponder is selected to ALT to confirm your level would be:

a)

check the accuracy of the Mode C Flight Level displayed on the controller's radar plot.

b)

verify the transponder is working.

c)

verify the altimeter sub-scale setting.

d)

to verify the aircraft's position.

73.

In relation to the flight activity of an aircraft, at which stage does communication first begin?

a)

It begins with the submission of the flight plan to the relevant unit.

b)

It begins with contacting the relevant ATC for engine start clearance.

c)

It actively begins with the issuance of runway entry-takeoff clearance by the relevant ATC unit.

d)

It begins with contacting the relevant ATC for taxi clearance.

74.

Select the correct statement from the ones given below.

a)

The communication order to be established during the departure phase at airports with radar and tower control will be ATIS-Apron-Ground-Tower-Approach.

b)

The term hold short in aviation is used to indicate that the next aircraft should enter the runway and take off as soon as possible.

c)

After receiving landing clearance, performing a touch and go is at the pilot's discretion.

d)

At airports with radar and tower control, another aircraft is not allowed to land or take off until the entire aircraft has passed the holding point line.

75.

How should you read back the Ankara Regional Pressure Setting of 1015 mbs?

a)

Ankara wun zero wun fife

b)

Regional Pressure Setting wun zero wun fife

c)

Regional Pressure wun zero wun fife

d)

Ankara wun tousand wun fife millibars

76.

According to ICAO, what does a flashing white light from the tower to an airborne aircraft mean?

a)

Land at this airport and proceed to the parking area.

b)

Land.

c)

The airport is closed.

d)

Request landing clearance.

77.

The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour?

a)

One six one five

b)

Four fifteen in the afternoon

c)

Sixteen fifteen

d)

Four fifteen P.M.

78.

What does turning on and off the aircraft's navigation and landing lights mean to the tower?

a)

It indicates that the aircraft needs to land.

b)

It indicates that the pilot is checking the lights.

c)

It indicates that the tower has not noticed the aircraft.

d)

It indicates that the pilot is requesting permission to land in the opposite direction.

79.

The frequency bands of VHF Aeronautical RTF service is:

a)

118.000 MHz-136.975 MHz

b)

108.000 KHz-136.975 MHz

c)

30 MHz-300 MHz

d)

108.000 MHz-118.000 MHz

80.

The Q code for altitude is:

a)

QNH

b)

QFE

c)

QDM

d)

QDR

81.

Callsign of ATC for control of aircraft and vehicles on maneuvering area?

a)

GROUND

b)

APRON

c)

DISPATCH

d)

TOWER

82.

The abbreviation of an aircraft callsign TC-ABC is:

a)

T-BC

b)

ABC

c)

BC

d)

TC-BC

83.

What should be the most correct content and order of a pilot’s reply to the ATC instruction, Pass Your Message?

a)

Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position, Altitude or Level, Additional Details and Intention (e.g. Flight Rules, Next Point on Route.)

b)

Aircraft Type, Route Information, Position, Heading, Level, Additional Details and Intentions, Aircraft Call-sign.

c)

Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Position, Heading, Level, Request.

d)

Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Positions, Request.

84.

A time of 1300 UTC is transmitted as:

a)

one three zero zero

b)

thirteen hundred UTC

c)

one three hundred UTC

d)

one thousand three hundred

85.

If you hear from ATC WILCO the correct meaning is:

a)

Understand your message and will comply with it.

b)

roger.

c)

I SAY AGAIN

d)

HOLD

86.

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...:

a)

QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016

b)

QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

c)

QNH 1017, negative 1016

d)

QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016

87.

How is the time 9.20 am reported on RT if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour?

a)

TWO ZERO

b)

DECIMAL TWO ZERO

c)

NINE TWO ZERO

d)

ZERO NINE TWO ZERO

88.

You receive the message TC-ABC Squawk Ident. You should:

a)

operate the special position identification on the SSR transponder.

b)

reply giving your callsign.

c)

select ALT- altitude reporting facility (Mode C) on the SSR transponder.

d)

select STANDBY on the SSR transponder.

89.

Which of the following statements does an aircraft in distress use?

a)

MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY

b)

URGENCY-URGENCY

90.

When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft’s position as:

a)

The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.

b)

A DME range from the station being addressed.

c)

A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.

d)

A GPS position.

91.

Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full;

a)

clearance to enter, land and departure clearance, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; altitudes, headings, reporting points, transponder codes, frequencies.

b)

ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

c)

frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.

92.

On the readability scale what does Readability 5 mean:

a)

Perfectly readable.

b)

Problem to understand.

c)

Unreadable.

d)

Readable but with difficulty.

93.

You call an ATSU and receive the reply T BC Stand-By you should:

a)

say nothing, assuming no onward clearance and wait until called.

b)

change frequency.

c)

call the ATSU again after 5 min to obtain a clearance.

d)

acknowledge immediately; Stand-by T BC.

94.

The phrase to use when you want to say yes is:

a)

AFFIRM

b)

WILCO

c)

ROGER

d)

AFFIRMATIVE

95.

The correct priority order of message categories is?

a)

direction finding-flight safety-flight regularity

b)

urgency-distress-direction finding

c)

flight safety-distress-urgency

d)

direction finding-flight safety-urgency-flight regularity

96.

Hijack is indicated by which transponder code?

a)

7500

b)

7400

c)

7600

d)

7700

97.

Which of the following phrases is used for an aircraft in distress?

a)

MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY

b)

SOS-SOS-SOS

c)

PAN-PAN-PAN

d)

URGENCY-URGENCY

98.

Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be Unreliable

a)

Runway covered with wet snow and slush

b)

Runway covered with dry snow.

c)

Runway conditions normal.

d)

Runway covered with ice.

99.

Following the May Day prefix of a distress message the next transmitted element should be:

a)

the call-sign of the station being addressed

b)

number of persons on board.

c)

the nature of the emergency.

d)

if known aircraft position..

100.

According to the instruction given to the aircraft approaching the airport on heading 230 and radial 310, Right downwind for runway 05, the aircraft should:

a)

Be on the right downwind with the current heading and radial.

b)

Enter the downwind from the northeast crossing the 05-23 line.

c)

Come to the right base position for runway 23.

d)

First come to the left base position for runway 05.

101.

Select the correct statement from the ones given below.

a)

SSR instructions are among the message parts that must be repeated in voice communication.

b)

During conversations, there should be an average distance of 10 cm between the microphone and the lips.

c)

Radio communications are conducted loudly at an average speed of 50 words per minute.

d)

In communication with the tower, location reporting is given first, followed by identification information.

102.

Your radio check is reported as Readability 3, your transmission is:

a)

readable but with difficulty.

b)

reading only half the time.

c)

perfectly readable.

d)

unreadable.

103.

Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full

a)

clearance to enter, land on, take off on, backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; speed instructions, SSR instructions.

b)

ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.

104.

'SQUAWK IDENT' means:

a)

operate the SSR transponder 'Special Position identification' feature.

b)

say again your call-sign.

c)

select the SSR transponder mode to 'ALT'.

d)

select the SSR transponder code to 7000.

105.

Which of the following calls is a "general call"?

a)

ALL STATIONS Ankara CONTROL.

b)

TC-EFG, TC-FGH over.

c)

TC-ABC, TC-BCD, TC-CDE Ankara CONTROL.

d)

TC-DEF Ankara CONTROL.

106.

Which of the following options is the "transponder code" that needs to be connected in the aircraft that lost two-way communication?

a)

Mode A code 7600

b)

Mode A code 7700

c)

Mode A code 7500

d)

Mode A code 5320

107.

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 23.500 feet to indicate an altitude or cloud height?

a)

Two three thousand five hundred feet

b)

Two three five zero zero feet

c)

Thirteen thousand five hundred.

d)

One three thousand five hundred

108.

Taxi instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:

a)

the holding point of the runway in use.

b)

the holding point of an intermediate runway.

c)

the entrance to the parking area.

d)

the threshold of the runway in use.

109.

From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated broadcasts on aerodrome and weather information?

a)

ATIS

b)

AGCS

c)

FIS

d)

RIS

110.

The alphabet used in the aviation environment today is known as ....

a)

The IRSA or ICAO alphabet.

b)

The EASA phonetic alphabet.

c)

The NATO phonetic alphabet.

d)

The IPA (International Pronunciation Alphabet).

111.

What does the phrase "Read back" mean:

a)

Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received

b)

Check and confirm with originator

c)

Let me know that you have received and understood this message

d)

Did you correctly receive this message?

112.

Which of the following items are NOT required to be read back?

a)

Conflicting traffic information

b)

Runway in use

c)

Any item if the ATSU requests it

d)

Speed instructions

113.

You are squawking 3671, mode charlie. You receive the following request: 'Golf Bravo Zulu, confirm squawk'. How should you reply?

a)

'3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'

b)

'Affirm squawk 3671 with mode charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

c)

'Confirm squawking 3671, Golf Bravo Zulu'

d)

'3671 with Charlie, Golf Bravo Zulu'

114.

What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean:

a)

Proceed with your message

b)

Yes

c)

Pass me the following information...

d)

Taxi on

115.

ATIS,

a)

Automatic Terminal Information Service.

b)

Aerodrome Flight Information Service.

c)

Aeronautical Information Service.

d)

Air Traffic Service.

116.

The correct abbreviation for call-sign Kartal BAHT is...

a)

Kartal HT.

b)

Kartal B-HT.

c)

B-HT.

d)

Kartal B -T.

117.

Upon the instruction by the tower as “take-off immediatly or vacate runway”, which course of action should be taken by the pilot?

a)

Take-off immediadely if he/she can or vacate runway from the first taxiway (or as instructed by tower)

b)

Take-off immediadely disregarding departure preparation

c)

Go back to the holding point immediatley

d)

Take-off immediadely without reading back

118.

When instructed to “cleared to taxi to apron via backtrack” during landing roll by the tower control, the pilot should;

a)

Turn 180 degree back and taxi on the runway opposite to the landing direction for vacating runway.

b)

Continue taxi and vacate the runway from the end

c)

Leave the runway from the first taxiway behind

d)

Leave the runway from the first taxiway ahead

119.

VHF uses,

a)

VHF RT, VDF, VOR, ILS, Marker Beacons

b)

NDB, Decca, Loran-C

c)

HR RT

d)

ILS Glidepath, DME

120.

What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a)

QTE

b)

QFE

c)

QNH

d)

QDR

121.

'Readability 4 means:

a)

your message is readable.

b)

your message is perfectly readable and understood.

c)

your message is readable but with background interference.

d)

your message is readable but with difficulty.

122.

When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft's position as:

a)

The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.

b)

A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.

c)

A DME range from the station being addressed.

d)

A GPS position.

123.

CTR,

a)

Control Zone

b)

Control Region

c)

Central Traffic Zone

d)

Centre Zone

124.

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."?

a)

Request

b)

Acknowledge

c)

Report

d)

Confirm

125.

How would you correctly reply to the ATC instruction "TC-AYE, Change to Corlu Tower, 120.375?

a)

120.375 TC-AYE.

b)

Wilco, G-CD.

c)

Change to Stephenuille Tower 120.375, G-CD.

d)

G-CD, 120.375.

126.

When an error has been made during transmission, the way to correct is to say:

a)

“correction” then saying the right instruction or request

b)

“reclear” then saying the right instruction or request

c)

“Cancel”

d)

“disregard”

127.

What are the main four legs in traffic pattern?

a)

Crosswind, downwind, base, final

b)

Crosswind, downwind, final, over runway

c)

Take-off, Crosswind, downwind, final

d)

Take-off, Crosswind, downwind, base,

128.

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency?

a)

one one eight decimal one

b)

one one eight point one

c)

one one eight one

d)

one eighteen one

129.

When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:

a)

SAY AGAIN

b)

WORDS TWICE

c)

REPEAT MESSAGE

d)

SPEAK SLOWER

130.

The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:

a)

GROUND

b)

TOWER

c)

CLEARANCE

d)

APRON

131.

When flying in VMC an aircraft with communications failure shall continue to fly VMC and:

a)

set transponder 7600, land at the nearest suitable airfield and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.

b)

land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means.

c)

land at the nearest airfield.

d)

land as soon as possible and report arrival to ATC.

132.

Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby"?

a)

Wait and I will call you

b)

Permission granted for action proposed

c)

Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder

d)

Continue on present heading and listen out

133.

When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

a)

8/8

b)

No clouds but poor ground visibility

c)

5/8 or less

d)

5/8 or more

134.

If no …………… is available, acknowledge receipt of the latest broadcast in the initial call to the aerodrome.

a)

ATIS

b)

RVR

c)

Frequencies

d)

QNH

135.

What is the Q code for a magnetic heading to a station?

a)

QDM

b)

QFE

c)

QTE

d)

QDR

136.

Which of the below is the correct callsign of the aeronautical unit that you can request engine start and taxi?

a)

Tower

b)

Control

c)

Apron

d)

Information

137.

When an aircraft with QFE set on the altimeter is on the ground at the airfield, the altimeter indicates……………… .

a)

Zero

b)

200’

c)

QFE

d)

Airfield Elevation