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Sports 2

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes mastication from enzymatic activity during early digestion?

a)

Enzymatic activity occurs only after food leaves the oral cavity

b)

Mastication chemically hydrolyzes starch polymers into sugars

c)

Mastication mechanically breaks food to increase surface area

d)

Enzymatic activity physically mixes food without chemical change

2.

Which sequence correctly traces the early path of ingested food before most absorption occurs?

a)

Esophagus to mouth to stomach for absorption

b)

Mouth to stomach to esophagus for digestion

c)

Mouth to esophagus to stomach for churning

d)

Stomach to esophagus to mouth for mixing

3.

What is the primary role of saliva in the mouth during the first phase of digestion?

a)

Neutralizes gastric acid with bicarbonate buffering

b)

Provides moisture, lubrication, and starch-digesting enzymes

c)

Emulsifies fats using bile-derived salts in the oral cavity

d)

Absorbs amino acids directly into oral capillaries

4.

How many salivary glands are present as paired units in humans?

a)

Three paired glands for a total of six

b)

Five paired glands across both jaws

c)

Two paired glands located bilaterally

d)

Four paired glands surrounding the tongue

5.

Which set lists the three major salivary gland pairs?

a)

Parotid, buccal, palatine

b)

Parietal, sublingual, mandibular

c)

Parotid, lingual, mandibular

d)

Parotid, sublingual, submandibular

6.

What term describes the moistened mass that forms after chewing and mixing with saliva?

a)

Chyme produced by gastric mixing

b)

Bolus prepared for swallowing

c)

Chyle formed from lipid absorption

d)

Mucus secreted by goblet cells

7.

Which process primarily occurs in the stomach during early digestion?

a)

Initial starch digestion by salivary glands

b)

Extensive nutrient absorption into blood

c)

Final elimination of undigested material

d)

Mechanical churning and chemical digestion

8.

Which statement about the stomach best reflects its absorptive capacity under normal physiology?

a)

It absorbs most macronutrients efficiently

b)

It allows some liquid absorption but minimal overall

c)

It absorbs vitamins extensively and rapidly

d)

It absorbs only proteins after denaturation

9.

A patient has reduced chewing due to jaw pain. Which immediate consequence most directly impairs subsequent enzymatic digestion?

a)

Decreased surface area for enzyme access to substrates

b)

Complete failure of peristalsis through the esophagus

c)

Inhibition of gastric acid secretion in the stomach

d)

Loss of bile emulsification of dietary triglycerides

10.

Which event most directly stimulates increased salivary flow from the major glands?

a)

Exposure of the mucosa to hydrochloric acid

b)

Stretch of the pyloric sphincter before emptying

c)

The taste of food activating oral receptors

d)

Elevated plasma glucose after a meal

11.

During early digestion, what is the most accurate functional grouping of GI tract segments?

a)

Mouth and esophagus for ingestion and digestion

b)

Stomach and rectum for digestion and elimination

c)

Large intestine and stomach for early ingestion

d)

Small intestine and esophagus for absorption only

12.

Which secretion is a major chemical component released by the stomach that facilitates protein digestion and defense?

a)

Hydrochloric acid secreted into the lumen

b)

Bile acids released from the gallbladder

c)

Amylase delivered from the parotid

d)

Lysozyme produced by the pancreas

13.

Which structure primarily increases the absorptive surface area of the small intestine?

a)

Longer intestinal length

b)

Smooth interior walls

c)

Circular folds alone

d)

Thicker mucosal layer

e)

Villi with microvilli

14.

Where does the majority of chemical digestion occur within the small intestine?

a)

Jejunum segment mainly

b)

Duodenum segment mainly

c)

Cecum segment mainly

d)

Transverse colon mainly

e)

Ileum segment mainly

15.

Most nutrient absorption from the gastrointestinal tract occurs in the

a)

Stomach chamber overall

b)

Small intestine overall

c)

Gallbladder lumen overall

d)

Large intestine overall

e)

Pancreatic ducts overall

16.

Which pairing correctly matches a small intestine region with its predominant role?

a)

Jejunum – primary absorption

b)

Ileum – majority digestion

c)

Ileum – feces formation

d)

Jejunum – little absorption

e)

Duodenum – absorption focus

17.

Which statement best describes passive diffusion across enterocyte membranes?

a)

Uses carrier proteins only

b)

Moves against concentration gradient

c)

Involves membrane engulfment

d)

Requires ATP energy input

e)

Moves down concentration gradient

18.

Facilitated diffusion of glucose in enterocytes is characterized by

a)

Vesicle-mediated, uses ATP

b)

Simple bilayer passage, energy

c)

Carrier-mediated, no energy

d)

Carrier-mediated, uses ATP

e)

Channel-independent, no energy

19.

Active transport in intestinal absorption is best defined as

a)

Movement down gradient without ATP

b)

Membrane engulfment without ATP

c)

Carrier-mediated movement using ATP

d)

Random diffusion through lipid core

e)

Paracellular solvent drag only

20.

Endocytosis during intestinal absorption involves

a)

Carrier flipping conformations

b)

Tight junctions widening

c)

Water following osmotic pull

d)

Channel opening for ions

e)

Cell membrane engulfing cargo

21.

Which process most directly explains absorption of vitamin K in the large intestine?

a)

Passive protein channels

b)

Hepatic conjugation then export

c)

Parietal cell acid production

d)

Bacterial synthesis then uptake

e)

Pancreatic enzyme secretion

22.

What is a principal function of the large intestine?

a)

Pepsin activation mainly

b)

Lipid emulsification mainly

c)

Protein denaturation mainly

d)

Chylomicron assembly mainly

e)

Water and mineral absorption

23.

Which sequence correctly lists the colon segments in order from proximal to distal?

a)

Transverse, ascending, descending

b)

Cecum, sigmoid, hepatic

c)

Descending, transverse, ascending

d)

Ileum, cecum, rectum

e)

Ascending, transverse, descending

24.

A drug is hydrophilic and moves down its concentration gradient but cannot cross membranes without a protein. Which mechanism applies?

a)

Passive diffusion only

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Paracellular bulk flow

d)

Active transport

e)

Primary endocytosis

25.

If villi were flattened and microvilli reduced, the most immediate physiological consequence would be

a)

Decreased luminal digestion

b)

Decreased absorptive capacity

c)

Increased peristaltic speed

d)

Increased bile secretion

e)

Increased gastric emptying

26.

Gas production in the large intestine primarily results from

a)

Pancreatic amylases

b)

Hepatic metabolism

c)

Bacterial fermentation

d)

Duodenal secretions

e)

Brush border hydrolysis

27.

Which enzyme initiates the chemical breakdown of starch during chewing in the mouth?

a)

Amylase from saliva

b)

Lipase from saliva

c)

Pepsin from saliva

d)

Trypsin from saliva

28.

In the stomach, which process contributes most to carbohydrate digestion?

a)

Bile-mediated emulsification

b)

Minimal enzymatic activity

c)

Amylase activation by acid

d)

Pepsin hydrolysis of starch

29.

Where does the majority of monosaccharide absorption occur in the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Small intestine lumen

b)

Gastric pyloric region

c)

Large intestine lumen

d)

Esophageal mucosa

30.

Which transport mechanism primarily moves fructose across the enterocyte apical membrane?

a)

Primary active ATPase pumps

b)

Facilitated diffusion transporters

c)

Secondary antiport cotransport

d)

Endocytotic vesicle trafficking

31.

Glucose and galactose are mainly absorbed from the intestinal lumen by which mechanism?

a)

Na+-coupled active transport

b)

Simple passive diffusion

c)

H+-ATPase mediated pump

d)

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

32.

After absorption, which statement best describes how carbohydrates are delivered to body tissues?

a)

Transported in blood to cells

b)

Secreted into lymphatic fluid

c)

Packaged in chylomicrons first

d)

Stored in bile for release

33.

Which factor most directly promotes cellular uptake of glucose from blood after a meal?

a)

Insulin-regulated transporters

b)

Bile acid micelle carriers

c)

Cortisol-induced channels

d)

Amylase-dependent pores

34.

Which enzyme begins lipid digestion in the mouth?

a)

Gastric amylase action

b)

Lingual lipase activity

c)

Pancreatic peptidase action

d)

Brush-border lactase action

35.

In the small intestine, bile salts aid lipid digestion primarily by enabling which process?

a)

Micelle formation for absorption

b)

Protein denaturation by acid

c)

Starch hydrolysis by amylase

d)

Glucose polymerization reactions

36.

The principal mechanism for fatty acid and monoglyceride entry into enterocytes is best described as:

a)

Passive diffusion into cells

b)

Sodium-dependent cotransport

c)

ATP-driven lipid pumps

d)

Clathrin-mediated endocytosis

37.

Following intestinal absorption, most dietary lipids are transported to systemic circulation primarily via:

a)

Erythrocyte bound carriers

b)

Lymphatic chylomicron flow

c)

Portal venous glucose flow

d)

Direct gastric venous route

38.

A patient with impaired bile secretion would most likely show decreased absorption of dietary fat because of reduced:

a)

Pepsin-dependent proteolysis

b)

Amylase-mediated hydrolysis

c)

Micelle formation efficiency

d)

Fructose facilitated transport

39.

Which event primarily denatures dietary proteins during digestion?

a)

Salivary lipase secretion in mouth

b)

Pancreatic amylase action in jejunum

c)

Bile salt emulsification in duodenum

d)

Gastric acid exposure in stomach

40.

Where does most absorption of amino acids into enterocytes occur?

a)

Small intestine lumen

b)

Esophageal epithelium

c)

Large intestine colon

d)

Gastric mucosa stomach

41.

Which transport mechanism can move amino acids against their gradients into intestinal cells?

a)

Bulk flow via capillaries

b)

Osmosis across membranes

c)

Simple diffusion through bilayer

d)

Active transport via carriers

42.

During protein digestion in the small intestine, which enzymes complete peptide breakdown?

a)

Lipases and bile acids

b)

Lysozymes and nucleases

c)

Amylases and maltases

d)

Proteases and peptidases

43.

After absorption, amino acids travel first through which system to reach the liver?

a)

Cerebrospinal fluid canals

b)

Lymph via chylomicrons

c)

Interstitial fluid diffusion

d)

Blood via portal circulation

44.

Which option best describes the amino acid pool?

a)

Dietary peptides remaining undigested

b)

Excess nitrogen excreted as urea

c)

Stored proteins within skeletal muscles

d)

Circulating amino acids available for synthesis

45.

Match the cellular process with its role in protein synthesis: Which statement is correct?

a)

Transcription makes mRNA from DNA

b)

Translation synthesizes DNA from RNA

c)

Transcription assembles polypeptides

d)

Translation exports mRNA to nucleus

46.

Which component delivers specific amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

a)

snRNA with introns

b)

rRNA with enhancers

c)

mRNA with promoter

d)

tRNA carrying anticodons

47.

Ribosomes serve which primary function in cells?

a)

Sites of polypeptide assembly

b)

Organelles for fatty acid oxidation

c)

Reservoirs for calcium storage

d)

Vesicles for protein export only

48.

A patient has impaired gastric acid secretion. Which digestion step is most directly reduced, and what is a likely consequence downstream?

a)

Protein denaturation decreases, reducing protease efficiency

b)

Carbohydrate emulsification decreases, delaying amylase action

c)

Triglyceride hydrolysis decreases, limiting bile recycling

d)

Nucleic acid condensation decreases, enhancing pepsin function

49.

Which statement best distinguishes chemical energy from mechanical energy in human physiology?

a)

Both chemical and mechanical energy store in molecules equally

b)

Both chemical and mechanical energy strictly produce heat only

c)

Chemical energy drives movement; mechanical energy stores in molecules

d)

Chemical energy stores in molecules; mechanical energy drives movement

50.

Which cellular compound is the body’s immediate energy currency used to power work?

a)

Adenosine diphosphate

b)

Creatine monohydrate

c)

Adenosine triphosphate

d)

Adenosine monophosphate

51.

How many high‑energy phosphate bonds does ATP contain?

a)

Zero high‑energy bonds

b)

Two high‑energy bonds

c)

One high‑energy bond

d)

Three high‑energy bonds

52.

During muscle contraction, electrical signals require what supportive factors to propagate effectively?

a)

Adequate vitamins and minerals

b)

Elevated body temperature

c)

High glycogen storage

d)

Low intracellular calcium

53.

Which macronutrient classes provide substrates for cellular energy capture in humans?

a)

Alcohols, ketones, lactate

b)

Carbohydrates, fats, proteins

c)

Nucleic acids, steroids, bile

d)

Vitamins, minerals, water

54.

Free fatty acids circulating in the blood primarily represent which energy source category?

a)

Nucleotides used for ATP capture

b)

Lipids used for ATP capture

c)

Carbohydrates used for ATP capture

d)

Amino acids used for ATP capture

55.

Which organelle is directly responsible for most ATP capture from fuel oxidation?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Mitochondrion

d)

Lysosome

56.

What structural feature increases the inner mitochondrial membrane’s capacity for ATP production?

a)

Thick cellulose‑based wall

b)

Large ribosome clusters externally

c)

Attachment to the nuclear pores

d)

Extensive folding forming cristae

57.

Which statement correctly contrasts rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Both rough and smooth ER only package proteins

b)

Rough ER synthesizes lipids; smooth ER bears ribosomes

c)

Rough ER bears ribosomes; smooth ER synthesizes lipids

d)

Both rough and smooth ER lack ribosomes entirely

58.

Which process is primarily associated with the Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic cells?

a)

DNA replication and RNA transcription

b)

Oxidative phosphorylation and ATP synthesis

c)

Proteolytic digestion of old organelles

d)

Modification, sorting, and packaging of compounds

59.

Lysosomes mainly function to do what within the cell?

a)

Digest intracellular materials

b)

Synthesize fatty acids de novo

c)

Assemble ribosomal subunits

d)

Generate electrical impulses

60.

Which statement best describes cytosol in relation to cellular metabolism?

a)

A rigid scaffold forming the cell wall structure

b)

A vesicle that transports proteins to mitochondria

c)

A semifluid where glycolysis and fatty acid synthesis occur

d)

A membrane‑bound space enclosing chromosomes

61.

Which membrane property is essential for homeostatic control at the cell boundary?

a)

Active DNA packaging into chromatin

b)

Passive leaking of all molecules equally

c)

Permanent sealing against all solutes

d)

Selective passage of substances in and out

62.

Which three energy systems collectively support cellular ATP resynthesis during exercise?

a)

Phosphagen, anaerobic, aerobic

b)

Glycogen, lactic, cori

c)

Sympathetic, parasympathetic, enteric

d)

Photophosphorylation, fermentation, nitrogen

63.

A mutation that removes ribosomes from rough ER would most directly impair which cellular outcome?

a)

Protein synthesis for secretion

b)

Lipid synthesis for membranes

c)

ATP capture from carbohydrates

d)

DNA repair within chromosomes

64.

If inner mitochondrial membrane surface area decreases markedly, predict the most immediate cellular consequence under high demand.

a)

Accelerated cytosolic glycolysis rate

b)

Reduced ATP production capacity

c)

Increased lysosomal digestion rate

d)

Enhanced Golgi packaging efficiency

65.

Which energy system provides ATP most rapidly for very brief, maximal efforts of about five to ten seconds?

a)

Electron transport system

b)

Aerobic oxidative system

c)

Anaerobic glycolytic system

d)

Phosphagen energy system

66.

The phosphagen system primarily relies on which immediate high‑energy compound to regenerate ATP from ADP?

a)

Creatine phosphate donating Pi

b)

Glucose undergoing glycolysis

c)

Fatty acids via beta‑oxidation

d)

Amino acids after deamination

67.

Which alternative name correctly matches the energy system: ATP‑CP or immediate energy system?

a)

Anaerobic system

b)

Aerobic system

c)

Oxidative phosphorylation

d)

Phosphagen system

68.

During a 100‑meter sprint, which energy system contributes the most to ATP resynthesis at the start?

a)

Anaerobic system predominates

b)

Electron transport predominates

c)

Phosphagen system predominates

d)

Aerobic system predominates

69.

Which statement best characterizes the anaerobic energy system during high‑intensity efforts lasting about 30 to 120 seconds?

a)

Uses carbohydrates without oxygen

b)

Uses fats with abundant oxygen

c)

Uses proteins with slow oxygen use

d)

Uses carbohydrates with high oxygen

70.

Which is another correct label for the anaerobic energy system?

a)

Beta‑oxidation energy system

b)

Immediate ATP‑PC system

c)

Oxidative phosphorylation system

d)

Lactic acid or anaerobic glycolysis

71.

Which activities best match primary anaerobic glycolytic contribution?

a)

Marathon and ultra‑distance races

b)

Yoga and flexibility sessions

c)

Walking and light cycling

d)

400‑meter dash and shuttle runs

72.

Which substrates can the aerobic energy system utilize for ATP production?

a)

Carbohydrates, fats, and proteins

b)

Only carbohydrates exclusively

c)

Only fats with no proteins

d)

Only amino acids primarily

73.

Which statement about the aerobic system is accurate regarding oxygen and ATP yield?

a)

Requires oxygen and yields most ATP

b)

Does not need oxygen and yields most

c)

Requires no oxygen and yields least

d)

Requires oxygen and yields least

74.

Which term is synonymous with the aerobic energy system in exercise physiology?

a)

Immediate ATP buffer

b)

Lactic acid process name

c)

Phosphate transfer system

d)

Oxidative system terminology

75.

Which pairing correctly matches energy system to its typical lag time before increased ATP production?

a)

Phosphagen: none; instantaneous

b)

Anaerobic: minutes delay

c)

Aerobic: none; instantaneous

d)

Phosphagen: several minutes

76.

Which metabolic pathway set is associated with the aerobic system?

a)

Beta‑oxidation, citric acid cycle, ETC

b)

Glycolysis only without oxygen

c)

Lactate formation exclusively

d)

Creatine phosphate transfer only

77.

Which pathway is linked specifically with the anaerobic system?

a)

Electron transport chain steps

b)

Deamination followed by urea

c)

Beta‑oxidation of fatty acids

d)

Glycolysis producing lactate

78.

Arrange the aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates in the correct sequence of major stages.

a)

Glycolysis → CAC → ETC

b)

Glycolysis → ETC → CAC

c)

ETC → glycolysis → CAC

d)

CAC → glycolysis → ETC

79.

Which fuel and pathway pairing is most characteristic of prolonged, lower‑intensity exercise like a marathon?

a)

Phosphocreatine via ATP‑PC reactions

b)

Amino acids via rapid deamination

c)

Carbohydrates via anaerobic glycolysis

d)

Fats via beta‑oxidation predominantly

80.

Low carbohydrate intake during training most directly increases the risk of which outcome for muscle tissue?

a)

Immediate lactate clearance rise

b)

Greater phosphocreatine storage

c)

Inhibited beta‑oxidation of fats

d)

Protein breakdown and mass loss

81.

Which system’s complexity is described as very high with many processes and the slowest maximal ATP rate but essentially unlimited capacity?

a)

Aerobic oxidative system

b)

Immediate lactate system

c)

Anaerobic glycolytic system

d)

Phosphagen ATP‑PC system

82.

In the diagram showing a short sprint (about 10 seconds), which energy system is depicted as the primary supplier to the ATP pool?

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation primarily supplies ATP

b)

Anaerobic glycolysis primarily supplies ATP

c)

Aerobic system primarily supplies ATP

d)

Phosphagen system primarily supplies ATP

83.

During a long sprint lasting 1–3 minutes at high intensity, which system contributes most to ATP according to the arrows feeding the ATP pool?

a)

Phosphagen system dominates supply

b)

Anaerobic glycolytic system dominates supply

c)

ATP-PC system is negligible supplier

d)

Aerobic oxidative system dominates supply

84.

For long-duration, steady-state aerobic activity (about 30 minutes), which statement best matches the diagrammed arrow widths into the ATP pool?

a)

Aerobic system contributes most with some anaerobic help

b)

All three systems contribute equally throughout

c)

Phosphagen system alone sustains most ATP demand

d)

Anaerobic system contributes most with minimal aerobic help

85.

According to the summary graph of percent ATP supplied versus exercise intensity and duration zones, which system rises as intensity decreases and duration increases?

a)

All systems decrease uniformly

b)

Aerobic system contribution increases steadily

c)

Phosphagen system contribution increases steadily

d)

Anaerobic glycolysis contribution increases steadily

86.

Which best explains why the phosphagen system is emphasized for a 100 m run as shown in the short burst diagram?

a)

It provides immediate ATP through stored phosphates

b)

It requires lactate accumulation to begin working

c)

It relies on slow mitochondrial oxidation of fats

d)

It uses gluconeogenesis from amino acids primarily

87.

In the sequence of diagrams from short to long duration, how does the relative width of the anaerobic system arrow change?

a)

Increases for 1–3 min, then decreases for longer efforts

b)

Decreases steadily as duration increases

c)

Remains the same across all activities

d)

Increases steadily with longer durations

88.

A mile run at lower intensity but still challenging is most consistent with which dominant ATP supplier in the diagrams?

a)

Aerobic system with anaerobic support

b)

Only stored ATP without resynthesis

c)

Anaerobic system with aerobic suppression

d)

Phosphagen system with minimal support

89.

Which concept is illustrated by the arrows from all three systems feeding the ATP pool across activities of varying intensity?

a)

Only one system ever supplies ATP at a time

b)

Each system works only in isolation when active

c)

All systems contribute concurrently to meet demand

d)

Systems switch strictly at fixed time cutoffs

90.

From the graph with four intensity regions, which system contributes the largest percentage during very short, very high-intensity efforts?

a)

All three provide equal shares

b)

Phosphagen system provides the largest share

c)

Aerobic system provides the largest share

d)

Anaerobic system provides the largest share

91.

Which scenario best matches the diagram labeled 'Long Duration, Non–Steady-State Activity (4 to 6 minutes, all-out activity)'?

a)

Gluconeogenesis exclusively fuels ATP production

b)

Aerobic alone supplies nearly all ATP required

c)

Phosphagen alone dominates throughout the bout

d)

Aerobic and anaerobic both contribute with anaerobic larger