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Histology Quiz

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In preparing tissue for routine light microscopic study, which procedure immediately precedes clearing the specimen with an organic solvent?

a)

Dehydration.

b)

Fixation.

c)

Staining.

d)

Clearing.

e)

Embedding

2.

The basic living unit of all plants and animals?

a)

Cell.

b)

System.

c)

Organ.

d)

Oganelle.

e)

Tissue

3.

The study of tissues is called?

a)

Histology.

b)

ytology.

c)

Anatomy.

d)

Anatomic imaging.

e)

Physiology

4.

The vital product of mitochondria is?

a)

ATP.

b)

ADP.

c)

DNA.

d)

RNA.

e)

Glucose

5.

Structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens?

a)

Tube.

b)

Screw.

c)

Eyepiece.

d)

Mirror.

e)

Diaphragm

6.

Microscope which does not depend on visible light?

a)

Transmissional electronic microscope

b)

Simple microscope.

c)

Light microscope.

d)

Phase contrast microscope.

e)

Dissection microscope.

7.

Step which occurs after the tissue is embedded in paraffin?

a)

Slicing.

b)

Fixation.

c)

Rehydration.

d)

Staining.

e)

Dehydration

8.

What color does hematoxylin stain structures?

a)

Blue.

b)

Orange.

c)

Pink.

d)

Red.

e)

Green

9.

Which of the following is NOT a membranous organelle?

a)

Ribosomes.

b)

Lysosomes.

c)

Peroxisomes.

d)

Mitochondria.

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

10.

Organelle which contains digestive enzymes?

a)

Lysosome.

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

d)

Golgi apparatus.

e)

Mitochondria

11.

Organelle which sorts and packages proteins within a cell is called?

a)

Golgi apparatus.

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

d)

Lysosome.

e)

Mitochondria

12.

Folds on the inner mitochondrial membrane is called?

a)

Cristae.

b)

Plasmalemma.

c)

Glycocalyx.

d)

Protoplasm.

e)

Ground substance

13.

Organelle which is considered as powerhouse of the cell?

a)

Mitochondria.

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

d)

Lysosome.

e)

Golgi apparatus

14.

Which of the following is NOT an inclusion?

a)

Mitochondria.

b)

Pigment.

c)

Glycogen.

d)

Lipid.

e)

Secretory granules

15.

Organelle which is involved in lipid metabolism?

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Lysosome.

d)

Golgi apparatus.

e)

Mitochondria

16.

The fluid inside the cell is called?

a)

Cytosol.

b)

Nucleoplasm.

c)

Endoplasm.

d)

Cytoscelet.

e)

Glycocalix

17.

Limiting membrane cell is called?

a)

Plasmalemma.

b)

Glycocalyx.

c)

Protoplasm.

d)

Cristae.

e)

Ground substance

18.

General process which brings things into the cell is called?

a)

Endocytosis.

b)

Exocytosis.

c)

Pinocytosis.

d)

Phagocytosis.

e)

Active transport

19.

Organelle which produces protein for export?

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Lysosome.

d)

Golgi apparatus.

e)

Mitochondria

20.

Ribosomes are assembled in?

a)

Nucleoli.

b)

Cytoskeleton.

c)

Peroxisome.

d)

Microfilaments.

e)

Centrioles

21.

Transport of solid particles is called?

a)

Phagocytosis.

b)

Endocytosis.

c)

Exocytosis.

d)

Pinocytosis.

e)

Active transport

22.

Plasma membrane consists of all components except for?

a)

glycosaminoglycans.

b)

phospholipid molecules.

c)

carbohydrates.

d)

transport proteins.

e)

proteins enzymes

23.

Golgi complex performs all enumerated functions except for?

a)

detoxification of peroxide.

b)

accumulation, sorting, packaging and transport of synthesized products.

c)

formation of glycoproteins and lipoproteins.

d)

formation of lysosomes.

e)

formation of cellular membranes

24.

Organelle which contains detoxifying enzymes?

a)

Peroxisome.

b)

Ribosomes.

c)

Microfilaments.

d)

Centrioles.

e)

Nucleoli

25.

Biosynthesis of lipids takes place in?

a)

smooth EPR.

b)

rough EPR.

c)

Golgi complex.

d)

lysosomes.

e)

mytochondria

26.

Polysaccharide that can be found on the outer surface of the cell membranes?

a)

Glycocalyx.

b)

Plasmalemma.

c)

Protoplasm.

d)

Cristae.

e)

Ground substance

27.

Site of protein synthesis?

a)

Ribosomes.

b)

Peroxisome.

c)

Microfilaments.

d)

Centrioles.

e)

Nucleoli

28.

Cytoplasm basophilia is inherent in the cells that?

a)

Actively synthesize proteins.

b)

Have cilia.

c)

Accumulate lipids.

d)

Accumulate glycogen.

e)

Synthesize mucus

29.

Calcium ions storage takes place in?

a)

smooth EPR.

b)

Golgi complex.

c)

lysosomes.

d)

mytochondria.

e)

rough EPR

30.

In a cell subunits of ribosomes are formed in?

a)

nucleolus.

b)

smooth EPR.

c)

rough EPR.

d)

Golgi complex.

e)

Mytochondria

31.

Membranous organelles are all enumerated except for?

a)

ribosomes.

b)

Golgi complex.

c)

Lysosomes.

d)

Mytochondria.

e)

Peroxisomes

32.

In a light microscope used for histology, resolution and magnification of cells are largely dependent on which component?

a)

Objective lens.

b)

Condenser.

c)

Eyepieces or ocular lenses.

d)

Specimen slide.

e)

The control for illumination intensity

33.

Cytoplasm often stains poorly because its lipid content is removed by the organic solvents used in the clearing step in routine histological preparations. This problem is most likely to occur with cytoplasmic regions rich in which organelles?

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Free polysomes.

c)

Mitochondria.

d)

Lysosomes.

e)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

34.

Oval and round organelles with double wall are seen at the electron micrograph. The outer membrane is smooth, the inner membrane folded into cristae contain enzyme ATPase synthetizes. These are?

a)

Mitochondria.

b)

Golgi complex.

c)

Lyzosomes.

d)

Centrioles.

e)

Ribosome

35.

A tissue sample of benign tumor was studied under the electron microscope. A lot of small (15-20 nm) spherical bodies, consisting of 2 unequal subunits were detected. These are?

a)

Ribosomes.

b)

Mitochondria.

c)

Golgi complex.

d)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

e)

Microtubules

36.

The organisms to be identified have a nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Genetic material is concentrated predominantly in the chromosomes that consist of DNA strands and protein molecules. These cells divide mitotically. Identify these organisms?

a)

Eukaryotes.

b)

Bacteriophages.

c)

Prokaryotes.

d)

Viruses.

e)

Bacteria

37.

Cells of healthy liver actively synthesize glycogen and proteins. What organelles are the most developed in them?

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Cell center.

c)

Lysosomes.

d)

Mitochondria.

e)

Peroxosomes

38.

Which organelle contains detoxifying enzymes?

a)

Peroxisome.

b)

Ribosomes.

c)

Microfilaments.

d)

Centrioles.

e)

Nucleoli

39.

Which organelle contains digestive enzymes?

a)

Lysosome.

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

d)

Golgi apparatus.

e)

Mitochondria

40.

What are the folds on the inner mitochondrial membrane called?

a)

Cristae.

b)

Plasmalemma.

c)

Glycocalyx.

d)

Protoplasm.

e)

Ground substance

41.

Which organelle is involved in lipid metabolism?

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

Lysosome.

d)

Golgi apparatus.

e)

Mitochondria

42.

In transmission EM preparations of cells the cell membrane often appears as a trilaminar structure having two parallel dark-staining components on either side of an unstained middle layer. This central poorly stained region of the membrane is primarily responsible for which functions?

a)

Creation of a barrier to water-soluble molecules.

b)

Binding by cellular receptions to specific ligands.

c)

Catalyzing membrane-associated activities.

d)

Transport of ions.

e)

Connections to the cytoskeleton

43.

Cytoplasm often stains poorly because its lipid content is removed by the organic solvents used in the clearing step in routine histological preparations. This problem is most likely to occur with cytoplasmic regions rich in which organelles?

a)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

Free polysomes.

c)

Mitochondria.

d)

Lysosomes.

e)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

44.

Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?

a)

Anaphase.

b)

Metaphase.

c)

Telophase.

d)

Prophase.

e)

Interphase

45.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?

a)

Metaphase.

b)

Prophase.

c)

Anaphase.

d)

Telophase.

e)

Interphase

46.

The two main stages of the cell cycle are called?

a)

Mitosis and interphase.

b)

Telophase and cytokinesis.

c)

Interphase and anaphase.

d)

Cytokinesis and mitosis.

e)

Mitosis and meiosis

47.

DNA in a cell is copied during?

a)

S phase.

b)

G1 phase.

c)

G2 phase.

d)

Cytokinesis.

e)

M phase

48.

Name this organ-...

a)

Umbilical cord

b)

Esophagus

c)

Ureter

d)

Urethra

e)

Vermiform appendix

49.

Nutrition of the embryo in the early stages of embryogenesis-...

a)

Gistiotrophic

b)

Gematotrophic

c)

Due to yolk

d)

Is not necessarily

e)

By the amnion

50.

Gastrulation occurs with in the following days-...

a)

7

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

e)

9

51.

Large brown blastomer form-...

a)

Embryoblast

b)

Trophoblast

c)

Placenta

d)

Mulberry body

e)

Blastocyst

52.

Of these organelles in the ovul the next is lack-...

a)

Centrioles

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Plate complex

d)

Lysosomes

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

53.

Contains enzymes that digest a path for the sperm-...

a)

Acrosome

b)

Polar body

c)

Capacitation

d)

Zona pellucida

e)

Pronuclei

54.

Human blastula is called-...

a)

Blastocyst

b)

Coeloblastula

c)

Discoblastula

d)

Amfioblastula

e)

Blastomere

55.

The connecting link between the mother's body and fetus-...

a)

Umbilical cord

b)

Placenta

c)

Yolk stalk

d)

The allantois

e)

Amnion

56.

In the neck of the spermatozoon are placed-...

a)

Proximal and distal centrioles

b)

Crosome, mitochondria

c)

Axial filament, mitochondria

d)

Two central and 9 pairs of peripheral microtubules

e)

9 peripheral triplets, mitochondria

57.

"Dark" and "light" blastomeres are formed in the process of-...

a)

Cleavage

b)

Fertilization

c)

The first phase of gastrulation

d)

The second phase of gastrulation

e)

Histogenesis and organogenesis

58.

In human fertilization and cleavage takes place in-...

a)

Oviduct

b)

Uterus

c)

Vagina

d)

Ovary

e)

Abdominal cavity

59.

In the formation of human placenta involved extraembryonic organ-...

a)

Chorion

b)

Serosa

c)

The amnion

d)

The yolk sac

e)

The allantois

60.

Implantation of the human embryo takes place on-...

a)

7th day

b)

1st day

c)

3 - 4th days

d)

10 – 14 days

e)

12 - 21 days

61.

The human embryo, formed as a result of cleavage is called-...

a)

Blastocyst

b)

Zygote

c)

Ovum

d)

Gastrula

e)

Coeloblastula

62.

The implementation process of the embryo in the uterine wall is called-...

a)

Implantation

b)

Delamination

c)

Capacitation

d)

Invagination

e)

Gastrulation

63.

The human embryo crushing begins by the end of-...

a)

1 day

b)

3 days

c)

5 day

d)

7 days

e)

4 day

64.

Which process in the third week of development converts the embryonic disc into the trilaminar embryo-...

a)

Gastrulation

b)

Placentation

c)

Neurulation

d)

Somitogenesis

e)

Embryonic disc folding

65.

Placenta accreta is a medical condition in which the placenta attaches abnormally to the myometrium. What is the earliest embryonic stage that this could occur, which cells are responsible for this attachment-...?

a)

Blastulation, trophoblast

b)

Early cleavage, trophoblast

c)

Blastulation, epiblast

d)

Early cleavage, embryoblast

e)

Blastulation, hypoblast

66.

Malformation of the peripheral nervous system is linked to specific groups cell formed during neurulation, and these cells are derived from one of 3 embryonic germ layers. What is this specific group of cells, and which embryonic layers are they derived from-...

a)

Neural crest cells, ectoderm

b)

Neural layer cells, mesoderm

c)

Neural tube cells, ectoderm

d)

Neural fold cells, endoderm

e)

Neural layer cells, ectoderm

67.

A radioactive marker was applied to the mesoderm of a mammalian embryo. Which tissues or organs would have this marker in the adult-...

a)

Bones and muscles

b)

Spine and brain

c)

Skin and intestines

d)

Muscles and skin

e)

Bones and skin

68.

During which phase does the nuclear envelope begin to disappear-...

a)

Prometaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

S phase

d)

Cytokinesis

e)

Telophase

69.

What exact cells are localized to the neural plate of the embryo during the third week of prenatal development-...

a)

Neuroectoderm

b)

Mesenchyme

c)

Somites

d)

Endoderm

e)

Mesoderm

70.

What is the prenatal organ that joins the pregnant woman and the developing embryo during the second week of prenatal development-...

a)

Placenta

b)

Amniotic cavity

c)

Yolk sac

d)

Primitive streak

e)

Allantois

71.

From which embryonic layer is mesoderm derived during prenatal development-...

a)

Epiblast layer

b)

Hypoblast layer

c)

Endoderm

d)

Neuroectoderm

e)

Mesenchyme

72.

Which of the following tissues listed will develop from the ectoderm layer of the embryo during prenatal development-...

a)

Epidermis

b)

Liver

c)

Muscle

d)

Dermis

e)

Bone

73.

Found in early prenatal development, the neural tube will form in the future which of the following structures-...

a)

Spinal cord

b)

Heart

c)

Face

d)

Digestive tract

e)

Lung

74.

What type of tissue lines the urinary bladder-...

a)

Transitional epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Simple columnar epithelium

e)

Stratified squamous epithelium

75.

What type of epithelial cells are as tall as they are wide-...

a)

Cuboidal

b)

Simple

c)

Stratified

d)

Squamous

e)

Columnar

76.

What do you call the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels-...

a)

Endothelium

b)

Epithelioid tissue

c)

Mesothelium

d)

Transitional

e)

Pseudostratified

77.

What type of gland secretes its product through a duct or tube-...

a)

Exocrine gland

b)

Endocrine gland

c)

Multicellular gland

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

78.

What type of tissue lines the esophagus-...

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

Simple columnar epithelium

e)

Transitional epithelium

79.

What type of epithelial cells are taller than they are wide-...

a)

Columnar

b)

Simple

c)

Stratified

d)

Squamous

e)

Cuboidal

80.

Which of the following is a unicellular gland-...

a)

Goblet cell

b)

Squamous cell

c)

Basal cell

d)

Basket cell

e)

Sertoli cell

81.

What is another term for an acinar gland-...

a)

Alveolar

b)

Simple gland

c)

Compound gland

d)

Tubular

e)

Tubuloalveolar

82.

What is a characteristic of the cells in the epidermis of the skin-...

a)

Keratinization

b)

Microvilli

c)

Stereocilia

d)

Cilia

e)

Villi

83.

An intermediate filament protein found in cytoplasm of most epithelial cells is which of the following-...

a)

Keratin

b)

Actin

c)

Vimentin

d)

Laminin

e)

Myosin

84.

An 11-month-old girl is referred to a pediatric gastroenterology clinic due to a history of generalized weakness, slow growth, and refractory diarrhea. For the past month she has been hospitalized regularly to receive parenteral nutrition. Examination of the epithelium lining her small intestine confirms that the failure to absorb nutrients is most likely due to a significant decrease in which of the following-...

a)

Microvilli

b)

Gap junctions

c)

Cilia

d)

Cell layers

e)

Basement membrane thickness

85.

With a 5-year history of chronic respiratory infections, a 23-year-old, non-smoking man is referred to an otolaryngologist. A bronchial biopsy indicates altered structures in the epithelial cells. Which of the following, if altered to reduce function, is most likely involved in this patient’s condition-...

a)

Cilia

b)

Hemidesmosomes

c)

Basolateral cell membrane folds

d)

Microvilli

e)

Tight junctions

86.

What is the feature of a compound exocrine gland-...

a)

branched duct

b)

unbranched duct

c)

single secretory portion

d)

branched secretory portion

e)

tubularalveolar shape of secretory portion

87.

What is the feature of a simple exocrine gland-...

a)

unbranched duct

b)

branched duct

c)

single secretory portion

d)

branched secretory portion

e)

tubular shape of secretory portion

88.

During holocrine secretion takes place-...

a)

full destruction of secretory cell

b)

integrity of secretory cell structure

c)

destruction of secretory cell apical part

d)

destruction of secretory cell basal part

e)

destruction of secretory cell nucleus

89.

During apocrine secretion takes place-...

a)

destruction of secretory cell apical part

b)

integrity of secretory cell structure

c)

destruction of secretory cell basal part

d)

full destruction of secretory cell

e)

destruction of secretory cell nucleus

90.

During merocrine secretion takes place-...

a)

integrity of secretory cell structure

b)

destruction of secretory cell apical part

c)

destruction of secretory cell basal part

d)

full destruction of secretory cell

e)

destruction of secretory cell nucleus

91.

Anchoring junctions of epithelial cells include everything except for one-...

a)

nexuses

b)

desmosomes

c)

hemidesmosomes

d)

zonulae adherens

e)

focal adhesions

92.

The release of lipid droplets from cells is which type of secretion-...

a)

Apocrine

b)

Merocrine

c)

Serous

d)

Mucous

e)

Holocrine

93.

Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland-...

a)

Mucous gland

b)

Serous gland

c)

Mixed gland

d)

Tubuloacinar gland

e)

Simple gland

94.

A histological specimen presents an artery. One of the membranes of its wall has flat cells lying on the basal membrane. What type of cells is it-...

a)

Endothelium

b)

Mesothelium

c)

Smooth myocytes

d)

Fibroblasts

e)

Macrophages

95.

A microslide contains the specimen of a gland composed of several secretory saccule-shaped parts that open in the common excretory duct. What gland is it-...

a)

Simple branched alveolar gland

b)

Compound branched alveolar gland

c)

Simple unbranched alveolar gland

d)

Compound unbranched alveolar gland

e)

Simple branched tubular gland

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