wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Bio Review

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is phenotype?
a)
physical appearance of an organism
b)
mental condition of an organism
c)
genetic makeup of an organism
d)
cell structure of an organism
2.
What are organisms that consume producers called?
a)
decomposers
b)
herbivores
c)
primary consumers
d)
secondary consumers
3.
Who is considered the "Father of Genetics"?
a)
George Washington
b)
Carl Linnaeus
c)
Charles Darwin
d)
Gregor Mendel
4.
At which trophic level are tertiary consumers located?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
5.
Which cell does not have a nucleus?
a)
Animal Cell
b)
Eukaryotic Cell
c)
Plant Cell
d)
Bacterial Cell
6.
What is the cell that is needed by a virus in order to reproduce called?
a)
Host Cell
b)
Bacterial Cell
c)
Prison Cell
d)
Home Cell
7.
Which level of organization is a community of living and non-living things that interact with each other?
a)
Population
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Community
d)
Biosphere
8.
What is a biotic factor?
a)
living factor
b)
 positive factor
c)
 non-living factor
d)
 medical factor
9.
All living and non-living things are made up of cells.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
What is the maintenance of constant internal conditions in an organism called?
a)
perspiration
b)
photosynthesis
c)
homeostasis
d)
metabolism
11.
As a primary consumer, how much energy is passed on to the next trophic level?
a)
50%
b)
30%
c)
75%
d)
10%
12.
Which symbiotic relationship occurs when both organisms benefit from each other?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Symbiotism
13.
What is the science of naming and classifying organisms?
a)
Taxonomy
b)
Biology
c)
Ontology
d)
Chemistry
14.
If an organism has a cell wall made of cellulose, and is autotrophic, which Kingdom does it belong to?
a)
Animalia
b)
Archaebacteria
c)
Protista
d)
Plantae
15.
What is not an example of evidence supporting the Evolutionary Theory?
a)
Homologies
b)
Fossil Records
c)
Biogeography
d)
Evolutionary Records
16.
What are pioneer organisms?
a)
first organisms to live in an area
b)
last organsims to leave an area
c)
organisms that reproduce the fastest
d)
most physically-fit organisms
17.
What characteristic is present in a living thing?
a)
contains DNA
b)
needs an energy source
c)
able to grow
d)
all of the above
18.
What is the probability of having a boy or a girl from a single birth?
a)
50%
b)
25%
c)
75%
d)
10%
19.
Organisms that feed on a living host are known as
a)
decomposer
b)
saprophyte
c)
parasite
d)
producer
20.
A cell with membrane-bounded organelles is known as
a)
eukaryotic cell
b)
prokaryotic cell 
c)
bacteria
d)
virus
21.
Organisms that eat both plants and animals are
a)
omnivores
b)
carnivores
c)
herbivores
d)
vertebrates
22.
A organic molecule will always contain this element along with other elements
a)
carbon
b)
hydrogen
c)
oxygen
d)
nitrogen
23.
The tendency of a solvent to travel across a semipermeable membrane to areas of higher solute concentration
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
physical change
d)
cohesion tension
24.
The powerhouse of the cell is the
a)
mitochondria
b)
nucleus
c)
lysosomes
d)
cytoplasm
25.
The process of asexual reproduction in eukaryotic cells is 
a)
meiosis
b)
mitosis
c)
conjugation
d)
mutation
26.
Which is the "resting" phase of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
27.
Which is the last phase of mitosis?
a)
telophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
interphase
28.
A diploid cell 
a)
is 2n
b)
has twice the chromosomes of a haploid cell
c)
results at the end of mitosis
d)
All of the above
29.
Cells used in sexual reproduction are 
a)
somatic cells
b)
gametes
c)
zygotes
d)
meiosis
30.
Human gametes are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
osmosis
c)
meiosis
d)
viruses
31.
A flatworm, like a human, has this kind of symmetry.
a)
spherical 
b)
radial
c)
bilateral
d)
anterior 
32.
An organism that can maintain its own body heat is
a)
ectothermic
b)
endothermic
c)
exothermic
d)
perennial
33.
If a diploid cell has 46 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be present in the cells that result from meiosis
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
varies
34.
If a snake eats a mouse that ate grain. The snake would be a 
a)
tertiary consumer
b)
primary consumer
c)
secondary consumer
d)
producer
35.
If an animal eats only other carnivores would always be a 
a)
producer
b)
tertiary consumer
c)
secondary consumer
d)
primary consumer
36.
In order or a recessive trait to be seen, the following must be true
a)
two recessive alleles must be present
b)
one recessive allele must be present
c)
one dominant allele must be present
d)
It must be sex-linked
37.
This carries oxygenated blood away from the heart
a)
veins
b)
capillaries
c)
arteries
d)
nerves
38.
This make a leaf green
a)
chloroplast
b)
chlorophyll
c)
mesophyll 
d)
all of the above
39.
Major difference in plant cells and animal cells
a)
nucleus
b)
mitrochondria
c)
cell wall (plants have/animals don't)
d)
plasma membrane
40.
To follow a drop of water in its journey from rain to the ocean you would study
a)
the watershed
b)
the water cycle
c)
the geological column
d)
the carbon cycle
41.
This scientist worked with genetics
a)
Dalton
b)
Mendel
c)
Darwin
d)
Frazier
42.
Most cellular respiration takes place in the
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
Krebs cycle
43.
What is the main function of a selectively permeable membrane?
a)
storage of water
b)
storage of chemicals
c)
breaks down molecules within the cell
d)
regulates what enters and leaves the cell
44.
In an experiment testing how plant water intake affects a plant's growth, what would be the independent variable?
a)
Glucose production
b)
Plant growth
c)
Amount of water
d)
Sunlight
45.
In an experiment testing how plant water intake affects a plant's growth, what would be the dependent variable?
a)
Glucose production
b)
Plant growth
c)
Amount of water
d)
Sunlight
46.
Special proteins called enzymes are biological catalysts. This means that they:
a)
Speed up the rate of chemical reactions in biological processes
b)
Reduce the activation energy required to start a chemical reaction
c)
All of the above
d)
None of the above
47.
Which organelle is the site of protein synthesis?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Lysosome
c)
Vacuole
d)
Mitochondrion
48.
Which nucleotides compose DNA?
a)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
b)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine
c)
Adenine, uracil, thymine
d)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
49.
Which nucleotides compose RNA?
a)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
b)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine
c)
Adenine, uracil, thymine
d)
Adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
50.
What is one major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a)
Prokaryotes have many DNA replication origins while eukaryotes do not.
b)
Eukaryotes have circular DNA while prokaryotic DNA forms a double helix shape.
c)
Eukaryotes have membrane-bound organelles while prokaryotes do not.
d)
Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus while eukaryotic cells do not.
51.
DNA code is transferred to mRNA in the ____ through a process called ____.
a)
Cytoplasm, translation
b)
Nucleus, transcription
c)
Nucleus, translation
d)
Ribosome, transcription
52.
"All cells arise from pre-existing cells."
This would be one major component of which scientific principle?
a)
Darwin's theory of natural selection
b)
The cell theory
c)
Heisenberg's formula
d)
Newton's laws of motion
53.
Which best explains why a bacteria is classified as a prokaryote?
a)
The presence of a nucleus.
b)
The absence of a nucleus.
c)
The presence of a cell wall.
d)
The absence of a cell wall.
54.
What is the primary function of DNA in organisms?
a)
Binds to specific active sites
b)
Stores genetic information
c)
Transports amino acids to the ribosomes
d)
Produces chromosomes for sexual reproduction
55.
This phase of mitosis occurs after metaphase and before telophase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Anaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
56.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of life?
a)
Has DNA
b)
Adapts
c)
Breathes
d)
Can Reproduce
57.
Organelle that converts sunlight into food.
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Nucleus
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Cytoplasm
58.
A biome is 
a)
a group of similar ecosystems with the same general abiotic factors and primary producers and consumers. 
b)
a group of similar ecosystems with the same general abiotic factors and primary producers. 
c)
a group of similar ecosystems with the same general abiotic factors. 
d)
a group of similar ecosystems with the same general biotic factors. 
59.
Suppose two organisms reproduced. One organism was homozygous dominant (BB) for fur color while the other was homozygous recessive (bb). If brown fur is dominant over white fur, what phenotype can be expected for 100% of these organisms' offspring?
a)
Brown fur
b)
Bb
c)
BB / bb
d)
White fur
60.
Which molecule is paired with its correct role in protein synthesis?
a)
Nucleus - forms peptide bonds
b)
Ribosome - carries DNA instructions
c)
mRNA - joins amino acids
d)
tRNA - transfers amino acids
61.
Which tool is best for a student to use to observe mitosis in an onion root tip?
a)
Gel electrophoresis chamber
b)
Triple beam balance
c)
Microscope
d)
Flask
62.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
63.
The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in a group is called a(n)
a)
change
b)
adaption
c)
species
d)
variation
64.
what did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations of the Galapagos Islands off the coast of South America?
a)
different species on different islands
b)
all species on one of the islands
c)
identical species on all the islands
d)
the same species as North America
65.
a bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
life expectancy
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
66.
which of the following describes natural selection
a)
it acts on genetic material directly
b)
it acts on existing physical traits
c)
it forms new traits 
d)
it forms new genetic material
67.
which of the folllowing is an exammple of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the wings of an ostrich
68.
What is suggested by the similarity of early embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a)
no evolutionary relationships between the groups
b)
recent common ancestry
c)
similar environments in the past
d)
evolution froma distant common ancestor
69.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures.  These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
70.
If an organism has a vestigial structure, that structure likely once had a function in a(n)
a)
close relative
b)
early ancestor
c)
unrelated organism
d)
embryological stage
71.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
72.
Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene.  The change is called a(n)
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
gene pool
d)
allele
73.
The five-factors gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection and ....
a)
non-random mating
b)
controlled mating
c)
emigration
d)
immigration
74.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
75.
An earthquake causes an ocean channel top open and separate an island into two.  the species on each section are now in
a)
geographic isolation 
b)
behavioral isolation
c)
disruptive isolation 
d)
temporal isolation
76.
two species are in different environments and look very similar.  However, that are not closely related (analogous).  Their resemblance is most likely an example of.
a)
sexual selection
b)
temporal isolation
c)
convergent evolution
d)
divergent evolution
77.
Other insects can not, but, a bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and pollinate.  This adaption is ....
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
78.
What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?
a)
natural selection
b)
inheritance
c)
artificial selection
d)
descent withOUT modification
79.
combined alleles of all individuals in a population is called
a)
phenothype
b)
gene pool
c)
mutation rate
d)
allele frequency
80.
what type of isolation occures which the timing of reproduction is different between two populations?
a)
geographic
b)
temporal
c)
behavioral
d)
selective
81.
How would you describe this evolution?
a)
Homologous structure
b)
Analogous structure
c)
Structural adaption
d)
Functional adaption
82.
What type of genetic drift occurs when the population size is greatly decreased?
a)
Founder's Effect
b)
Bottleneck Effect
c)
Intrasexual Selection
d)
Intersexual Selection
83.
Which of the following ideas proposed by Lamarck was later found to be incorrect?
a)
Acquired characteristics can be inherited
b)
All species are descended from other species
c)
Living things change over time
d)
There is a relationship between an organism and its environment
84.
According to Lyell, how are geographical features formed? 
a)
Slowly, forces such as erosion have accumulated over time
b)
They appeared in a matter of hours
c)
They appeared in a matter of a few years 
d)
Differently than they were created in the past 
85.
Physical separation of a population, leading to speciation.
a)
reproductive isolation
b)
geographic isolation
c)
speciation
d)
gene pool
86.
A population moving from on place to another.
a)
speciation
b)
geographic isolation
c)
genetic drift
d)
migration
87.
The idea that evolution seems to occur in spurts of time.
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
directional selection
c)
disruptive selection
d)
puntuated equilibrium